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A&P > Blood And Respiratory > Flashcards

Blood And Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main function of platelets?

A

To begin the process of hemostasis when there is a break in the vessel wall

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2
Q

What kind of cells are platelets part of?

A

Megakaryocytes

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3
Q

How do platelets develop and get into the bloodstream?

A

The megakaryocyte continues to get larger, but never divides into new cells. Pieces of its limbs break off into the bloodstream, and those pieces are the platelets

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4
Q

What chemicals do platelets contain?

A 
Actin and myosin
Calcium 
ADP
Serotonin
PDGF (platelet derived growth factor)
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5
Q

What are the three stages of hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm
Platelet plug formation
Coagulation

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6
Q

Vascular spasm

A

Phase one of hemostasis, damaged vessel vasoconstricts to prevent as much blood loss

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7
Q

Steps of platelet plug formation

A

Break in vessel wall exposes collagen, attracting platelets
Platelets attach to collagen, and then get larger, as well as more sticky and spiky to help other platelets stick to them
Platelets release ADP to signal other platelets to come
Platelets also release serotonin to enhance the vascular spasm

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8
Q

What is the outcome of phase one of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin activator forms

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9
Q

What are the two ways that phase one of coagulation can occur?

A

Intrinsic pathway: happens with less extreme injuries, slower process with more steps and factors to be activated before prothrombin activator forms
Extrinsic pathway: happens with tissue cell trauma, faster process with less factors before prothrombin activator forms

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10
Q

What happens in phase two of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin activator transforms prothrombin into thrombin

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11
Q

What happens in phase three of coagulation?

A

Thrombin activates fibrinogen into fibrin, which makes a fiber mesh at the injury site

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12
Q

What is the difference between fibrinogen and fibrin?

A

Fibrinogen is a dissolved protein the blood (soluble substance) and can’t do anything until it runs into thrombin
Fibrin precipitates out of the solution (becomes insoluble and visible) in order to be able to work

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13
Q

How do platelets play a role in clot repair?

A

The platelets pull their actin and myosin together, contracting the space together

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14
Q

What chemicals signal for repair at the site of a clot?

A

PDGF and EDGF

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15
Q

How does fibrinolysis work?

A

Plasminogen becomes plasmin in the clot, which breaks the clot apart

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16
Q

What are some things that help to limit unwanted clot formation in the body?

A

Body maintaining a smooth endothelial lining at all times
The body quickly removing clotting factors from blood
The body inhibiting activated factors quickly

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17
Q

What is the main danger of a thromboembolic disorder?

A

The embolus getting stuck somewhere, like in the brain or lungs, cutting off blood supply to that area

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18
Q

What happens in clotting disorders?

A

The blood doesn’t clot quickly enough/well enough

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19
Q

What are three examples of clotting disorders?

A

Hemophilia: missing a clotting factor
Liver damage: most clotting factors are made in the liver, and liver damage might change that
Thrombocytopenia: low platelet count

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20
Q

How does atmospheric pressure relate to intra-alveolar pressure?

A

The atmospheric pressure will always be the zero pressure or the baseline for the intra-alveolar pressure

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21
Q

What will the relationship be between pleural pressure and intra-alveolar pressure be under normal conditions?

A

The pleural pressure will always be negative as compared to the intra-alveolar pressure

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22
Q

What is the difference between pleural pressure and intra-alveolar pressure called?

A

Transpulmonary pressure

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23
Q

What happens if the transpulmonary pressure equals zero?

A

The lungs will collapse

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24
Q

What two conditions could cause the transpulmonary pressure to equal zero?

A

Pneumothorax or hemothorax

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25
Q

What does Boyle’s law say?

A

When volume increases, pressure decreases/when volume decreases, pressure increases

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26
Q

Describe the mechanical process of breathing (4 steps)

A

Muscles contract, volume increases, pressure decreases (becomes more negative), and gas enters the lungs

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27
Q

What muscles are used for normal inspiration?

A

Diaphragm (flattens when contracted) and the external intercostals

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28
Q

For a forceful inhalation, which other muscles are used?

A

Sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor, and scalenes

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29
Q

What are the four mechanical processes of expiration?

A

Muscles relax, volume goes down, pressure goes up (becomes more positive), and gas leaves the lungs

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30
Q

What muscles are used for passive expiration?

A

None, the muscles simply relax

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31
Q

What muscles are used for forced expiration?

A

Internal intercostals, abdominals, external obliques

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32
Q

What does airway resistance do to pulmonary ventilation?

A

Decreases air flow

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33
Q

What factors could cause airway restriction?

A

Obstructed bronchiole or constricted bronchiole in the case of asthma/allergies

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34
Q

What is the role of surfactants in the lungs?

A

Surfactant helps to overcome the surface tension (attraction of the water) in the alveoli that would cause them to collapse without it

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35
Q

When do type II cells mature in the lungs?

A

At 8 months in utero

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36
Q

What is the respiratory risk for a baby born prematurely?

A

If their type II alveolar cells aren’t yet secreting surfactant, their lungs wont be able to overcome the alveolar surface tension and they wont be able to breathe on their own

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37
Q

What does lung compliance mean?

A

The ease with which the lungs inflate. Highly compliant lungs easily fill with air

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38
Q

What are some factors that can decrease lung compliance?

A

Scar tissue
Thorax deformities
Ossification of costal cartilage
Decrease in thoracic cage flexibility

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39
Q

What are the four respiratory volumes?

A

Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume
Residual volume

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40
Q

Tidal volume

A

The amount of air that can be breathed in and out in a normal respiration

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41
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled beyond tidal inhalation

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42
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled beyond tidal exhalation

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43
Q

Residual volume

A

The amount of air that remains in the lungs after forced exhalation (the air that keeps the lungs from collapsing)

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44
Q

What are the four lung capacities?

A

Inspiratory capacity
Functional residual capacity
Vital capacity
Total lung capacity

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45
Q

Inspiratory capacity

A

Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume

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46
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

Expiratory reserve volume plus residual volume

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47
Q

Vital capacity

A

Tidal volume plus expiratory and inspiratory reserve capacities

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48
Q

Total lung capacity

A

Sum of all the lung capacities

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49
Q

Anatomical dead space

A

The space of the conducting zone (usually about 155 mL)

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50
Q

What does Dalton’s law of partial pressures say?

A

The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases will be equal to the partial pressure of each gas

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51
Q

How would you find the partial pressure of a gas?

A

Multiply atmospheric pressure times the percentage of that gas present in the air. Answer will be in mmHg

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52
Q

What does Henry’s law say?

A

It says that if a gas is in contact with a liquid, it will dissolve in proportion to its partial pressure

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53
Q

What does Henry’s law depend on?

A

The solubility of the gas that’s in contact with the liquid

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54
Q

Will oxygen or CO2 dissolve more easily in the bloodstream? Why?

A

CO2 will dissolve more easily, because it is non-polar and hydrophilic. It will dissolve about 20x more readily than oxygen

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55
Q

How likely is nitrogen to dissolve in the bloodstream?

A

Highly unlikely, as it is triple bonded and highly insoluble

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56
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus versus the lung capillary? Which way will the oxygen move?

A

It is about 104 mmHg in the alveolus and 40 in the capillary, so it will move from the lung to the capillary

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57
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic circuit versus the tissues? Which way will it move?

A

It’s about 100 mmHg in the bloodstream and about 40 in the tissues, so it will move from the bloodstream to the tissues

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58
Q

What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the tissues versus the bloodstream? Which way will the CO2 move?

A

It’s about 45 mmHg in the tissues and 40 in the bloodstream, so it will move from tissues to blood

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59
Q

What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli versus the pulmonary capillaries? Which way will it move?

A

It’s about 40 mmHg in the alveoli versus 45 in the capillaries, so it will move from the bloodstream to the lungs

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60
Q

What are two general factors that can influence the function of the respiratory membrane?

A

Thickness of the membrane and decreased surface area

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61
Q

What are some factors that increase thickness of the respiratory membrane?

A

Fluid buildup from things like pneumonia or left ventricle failure

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62
Q

What are some things that decrease surface area in the lungs?

A

Emphysema or carcinoma

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63
Q

In what ways and percentages is oxygen transported in the blood?

A
  1. 5% is carried on hemoglobin

1. 5% is free floating in the plasma

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64
Q

What are four factors that can effect hemoglobin saturation to increase oxygen delivery?

A

Low pH, higher temperature, increased CO2 (goes with low pH), and presence of BPG (anaerobic respiration byproduct) will all increase oxygen delivery

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65
Q

How do ph, temperature, CO2, and BPG affect oxygen saturation as pertains to hemoglobin?

A

They change the shape of the hemoglobin protein, causing it to unload oxygen more easily

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66
Q

What are the three main mechanisms by which CO2 is transported in the blood? In what percentages?

A

7% is dissolved in plasma
23% is bound to the globin protein
70% is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions

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67
Q

Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is made into the bicarbonate ion

A

Carbonic anhydrase combines CO2 and H2O into H2CO3 (carbonic acid) which turns into H+ and HCO3- (the bicarbonate ion)

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68
Q

Where is carbon dioxide made into the bicarbonate ion?

A

In the red blood cell

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69
Q

What is the chloride shift?

A

It is the movement of the bicarbonate ion into the blood stream and the movement of a chloride ion into the RBC (this happens because charges must balance)

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70
Q

How does breathing rate help control blood pH?

A

When blood becomes too acidic, you’ll breathe a bit more to release more CO2. When it becomes too basic, you’ll breath a bit less to retain a little more CO2

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71
Q

How do bicarbonate ions help to maintain blood pH?

A

Bicarbonate ions act as a buffer system, because they can drop or pick up hydrogen ions as needed to help balance the pH

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72
Q

What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

A

Immunity/protection from pathogens

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73
Q

What are some secondary functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Maintain fluid balance
Blood filtration
Creation and maturation of lymphocytes

74
Q

How does the lymphatic system help to maintain fluid balance?

A

The lymph capillary system drains excess fluid from the interstitial space back to the blood stream

75
Q

What is found in lymph nodes and why are they there?

A

White blood cells, because it is a good place for them to monitor for invaders as the lymph passes through the nodes

76
Q

How is the lymph capillary system like the circulatory system? How is it different?

A

Similar: It has vessels for carrying fluid that have valves, and skeletal and respiratory muscles help it get where it should be
Different: it only flows one way (always towards the heart)

77
Q

List the flow of the lymph capillary system

A

Capillaries > vessels > ducts > trunks > lymph into circulation near superior vena cava

78
Q

What are the main functions of lymph nodes?

A

Filtering lymph
Removal of bacteria
Congregation spot for immune cells

79
Q

Spleen function

A

Blood filtration and removal of old red blood cells from circulation

80
Q

Thymus: location and function

A

Location: above heart
Function: T cell maturation

81
Q

How does the thymus grow?

A

It continues to enlarge until about age 60, and then it starts to get smaller

82
Q

Tonsils: location and function

A

Location: lymphatic nodules in pharynx
Function: protection from bacteria

83
Q

What are the three sets of the tonsils?

A

Palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal tonsils

84
Q

MALT: description and function

A

Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue that lies underneath the mucous membranes of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts
They stop bacteria before they can get into these structures

85
Q

Peyers patches

A

Immune tissue in the second half of the small intestine and the appendix

86
Q

Innate immune defenses

A

Surface barriers

Internal defenses

87
Q

Surface barriers

A

Skin and mucous membranes

88
Q

List the internal defenses of the innate immune system

A 
Phagocytes 
Natural killer cells
Inflammation
Fever
Antimicrobial proteins
89
Q

Types of adaptive immunity

A

Humoral and cellular immunity

90
Q

What are some physical characteristics of surface barriers that help keep microbes out?

A

The skin/mucous membranes being an actual physical barrier
Cilia that sweep dust out of the respiratory tract
Goblet cells that secrete mucous to trap bacteria

91
Q

What are some chemical characteristics of surface barriers that help keep microbes out?

A

Acidity of skin
Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
Lysozyme in tears

92
Q

What role do phagocytes play in innate immunity?

A

They eat foreign bacteria/pathogens

93
Q

How do neutrophils and monocytes respond differently?

A

Neutrophils get to the scene of an infection quickly. Monocytes take much longer to get there, because they must leave the bloodstream to become macrophages. But once they arrive on scene, they can eat a lot of bacteria at once.

94
Q

What is the target of natural killer cells?

A

They are looking for anything not identifiable as “self”. they are not picky

95
Q

How do natural killer cells kill their targets?

A

They kill their targets by apoptosis (inducing cell death by triggering fas receptors)

96
Q

How do natural killer cells help against cancer cells?

A

Good at attacking cancer cells, because rapidly dividing and mutating cancer cells wont have all the self-markers a normal body cell would have.

97
Q

How does the systemic immune process of fevers work?

A

In the case of infection/illness, the white blood cells secrete pyrogens, which are chemicals that change the set point for body temperature, leading to a temperature increase

98
Q

Why is a moderate fever good?

A

A moderate fever is good, because it increases the metabolic rate and induces iron and zinc sequestration in the liver and spleen so bacteria cannot use it, both of which aid in recovery

99
Q

Why is a high fever bad?

A

A high fever is bad because it will denature proteins in the body so that they no longer work

100
Q

What are two types of antimicrobial proteins?

A

Interferons and compliment

101
Q

What do interferons do?

A

interfere with viral replication by warning cells around infected cells so they wont get infected

102
Q

What are the steps of interferon operation?

A 
Virus enters cell
Interferon gene turns on
Cell produces and releases interferon
Interferon binds to neighboring cells
Cells put up blockers so virus cannot bind
103
Q

What does complement do?

A

Causes cell lysis in bacterial cells by creating a membrane attack complex that makes a hole in the bacteria

104
Q

How does complement aid other immune processes?

A

it can opsonize (make tasty) invaders, flagging them so phagocytes will eat them

105
Q

Compare and contrast innate and adaptive immunity

A

Innate: acts more quickly (upon first response, after adaptive meets something once, it will be faster than innate responses). Non specific, does not have memory, and is generally a local response, not a systemic one
Adaptive: slow to respond upon first meeting (7-10 days) and has to have met invader once before to mount an effective immune response. Has memory, and is generally a systemic response

106
Q

How does humoral immunity work?

A

Uses B cells, which release antibodies (B cells do not fight one on one, the antibodies do the fighting)

107
Q

How else do antibodies aid in immune responses?

A

They can also flag things for phagocytosis

108
Q

How does cellular immunity work?

A

T cells, which fight invaders one on one

109
Q

Are T cells or B cells better at fighting abnormal/cancerous cells?

A

T cells

110
Q

Where do B cells originate and mature?

A

Both processes happen in the bone marrow

111
Q

Where do T cells originate and mature?

A

They originate in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus

112
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A very specific part on a cell that causes antibodies to be generated

113
Q

What responds to antigens?

A

Antibodies

114
Q

What are three examples of immunodeficiency?

A

SCID
Acquired immunodeficiency (hodgkins disease)
AIDS

115
Q

What is SCID?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, which is a Congenital deficiency in B and T cells that is fatal if untreated. Treated by bone marrow transplant

116
Q

What is acquired immunodeficiency and how does it work?

A

Also called Hodgkin’s disease, its a cancer of the B cells that makes patients immunodeficient by suppression of the lymph node cells

117
Q

What is AIDS and how does it get to the point of being AIDS?

A

HIV attacks helper T cells, and it becomes aids when cell count is less than 200 cells per microliter with an opportunistic infection

118
Q

What are three examples of autoimmune diseases?

A

Type I Diabetes
Graves Disease
Multiple Sclerosis

119
Q

Type I Diabetes

A

Immune system attacks the insulin secreting beta cells in the pancreas

120
Q

Graves Disease

A

Overactive thyroid

121
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Immune cells attack the myelin sheath in the nervous system

122
Q

How do hypersensitivities work?

A

Basophils and mast cells release histamine when allergen is encountered, but can overreact to an allergen, causing too much inflammation

123
Q

What happens if allergies lead to a systemic reaction and what could the outcome be?

A

If systemic reaction, it is anaphylactic shock which constricts bronchioles, causes vasodilation and fluid loss from the bloodstream, and can cause hypotensive shock and death

124
Q

Trace the path of food through the digestive system

A 
oral cavity
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
rectum
125
Q

oral cavity tissue types

A

stratified squamous epithelium and skeletal muscle

126
Q

pharynx tissue types

A

stratified squamous epithelium and pseudostratified columnar epithelium

127
Q

esophagus tissue types

A

Stratified squamous epithelium, smooth muscle, and skeletal muscle

128
Q

stomach tissue types

A

Simple columnar epithelium, smooth muscle, and simple squamous epithelium

129
Q

small intestine tissue types

A

simple columnar epithelium and smooth muscle

130
Q

large intestine tissue type

A

simple columnar epithelium and smooth muscle

131
Q

rectum and anus tissue type

A

Smooth muscle, simple columnar epithelium, skeletal muscle, and simple squamous epithelium

132
Q

stomach function

A

mixing of food in highly acidic solution to kill bacteria

133
Q

small intestine function

A

nutrient digestion and absorption

134
Q

large intestine function

A

formation and storage of feces

135
Q

What are the three types of propulsion?

A

swallowing
peristalsis
mass movements

136
Q

peristalsis: description and where it occurs

A

smooth muscle contractions that push food along a tube. occurs in the esophagus and small intestine

137
Q

mass movements: description and location

A

very intense and extended peristalsis-like contraction that completely empties a portion of the large intestine

138
Q

where all are mucous and enzymes secreted in the digestive system?

A

stomach, small and large intestines, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, salivary glands

139
Q

where does mechanical digestion occur?

A

mouth, stomach, and small intestines

140
Q

where does chemical digestion occur?

A

some in the mouth via salivary enzymes, some in the stomach, but mostly in the small intestines

141
Q

where does absorption occur?

A

almost entirely in the small intestine but some in the large intestine as well

142
Q

From deep to superficial, what are the three layers of the alimentary canal?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Serosa

143
Q

What is the mucosa made of and what does it do?

A

It contains epithelial lining and secretes mucous and hormones. It can also have digestive enzymes and absorb some nutrients

144
Q

What important features are in the submucosa?

A

Glands

The submucosal nerve plexus (of the enteric nervous system) that control glandular contraction

145
Q

What are the different kinds of muscle in the muscularis layer?

A

Longitudinal muscle that runs parallel to the flow of food

Circular muscle that runs around the canal

146
Q

Which nerve plexus controls the muscularis layer?

A

Myenteric nerve plexus

147
Q

In what parts of the body is the serosa called the adventitia?

A

Esophagus and parts of the large intestine

148
Q

In some organs, the serosa is also..

A

The visceral peritoneum

149
Q

What does the enteric nerve system do?

A

Locally controls the digestive organs via nerve plexuses

150
Q

What are the two digestive nerve plexuses?

A

Submucosal and myenteric

151
Q

How can the autonomic nervous system influence the enteric nervous system?

A

The sympathetic nervous system usually inhibits it (fight or flight)
The parasympathetic usually stimulates it (rest and digest)

152
Q

What effect do acetylcholine and norepinephrine have on the enteric nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine usually stimulates and norepinephrine usually inhibits

153
Q

How does serotonin relate to the digestive system?

A

95% of the serotonin in the body is found in the digestive tract

154
Q

Why can cancer therapies and antidepressants have digestive side effects?

A

Because they mess up the levels of serotonin in the digestive tract

155
Q

What is the mesentary proper?

A

Invagination of the peritoneum that brings blood vessels and nerves to the small intestine

156
Q

What is the greater omentum?

A

Mesenteric structure that brings blood vessels and nerves to the stomach and transverse colon

157
Q

Name the four types of macromolecules

A

Carbohydrates
Lipids
Proteins
Nucleic acids

158
Q

Carbohydrates (monomer, functions, examples)

A

Monomer: monosaccharide
Function: fuel to make ATP
Example: starch, glucose, sucrose

159
Q

Lipids (monomer, function, examples)

A

Monomer: triglycerides (1 glycerol, 3 fatty acid chains)
Function: energy storage and some hormones and cell membrane structures
Examples: triglycerides, estrogen, cholesterol

160
Q

Proteins (monomer, function, examples)

A

Monomer: amino acids (20 types)
Function: catalyze reactions, also the structural components of cells and tissues
Examples: enzymes, some hormones, cellular/extra cellular structures like keratin and collagen

161
Q

Nucleic acids (monomer, function, examples)

A

Monomer: nucleotides
Function: storage of genetic information
Examples: DNA and RNA

162
Q

Which enzymes break down carbohydrates?

A

Salivary amylase
Pancreatic amylase
Brush border enzymes

163
Q

Salivary amylase

A

Produced in the salivary glands and acts in the mouth

164
Q

Pancreatic amylase

A

Produced in the pancreas and acts in the small intestine

165
Q

Brush border enzymes

A

Produced in the Microvilli of the small intestine and act in the small intestine as well

166
Q

What enzymes break down proteins?

A

Pepsin
Pancreatic proteases
Brush border enzymes

167
Q

Pepsin

A

Produced and used in the stomach

168
Q

Pancreatic proteases

A

Produced in pancreas, acts in small intestine to break down proteins

169
Q

Brush border enzymes (for proteins)

A

Produced in the Microvilli of the small intestines and act in the small intestines

170
Q

What breaks down lipids?

A

Lipase

171
Q

Lipase

A

Produced in the pancreas, acts in small intestines

172
Q

What are lacteals?

A

Lymphatic structures in the Microvilli of the intestines that absorb lipids

173
Q

What are bile salts?

A

They are made in the gallbladder, stored in the liver, and act in the small intestine. They are emulsifiers, which means they help to mix fat and water

174
Q

What breaks down nucleic acids?

A

Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease

175
Q

Where are deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease made and where do they act?

A

Made in the pancreas and act in the small intestine

176
Q

What are four general factors that can influence pulmonary ventilation?

A

Airbag resistance
Surface tension
Lung compliance
Respiratory volumes

177
Q

What happens in ischemic hypoxia?

A

Circulation is blocked

178
Q

What happens in hypoxemic hypoxia?

A

There is not enough partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs

179
Q

What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Carbon monoxide binds to the iron on hemoglobin before the oxygen can, because iron is 20x more attracted to carbon monoxide than oxygen

180
Q

What is histotoxic hypoxia?

A

Metabolic poisoning from something like cyanide

A&P (10 decks)

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