Immunisations and chemoprophylaxis

Question 1

8 weeks old

Answer 1

1. Diphtheria
2. tetanus
3. pertussis (whooping cough)
4. polio
5. Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
6. hepatitis B

Meningococcal group B (MenB)

Rotavirus

Question 2

12 weeks old

Answer 2

1. Diphtheria
2. tetanus
3. pertussis
4. polio
5. Hib
6. hepatitis B

Pneumococcal (13 serotypes)

Rotavirus

Question 3

16 weeks old

Answer 3

1. Diphtheria
2. tetanus
3. pertussis
4. polio
5. Hib
6. hepatitis B

MenB

Question 4

1 years old

Answer 4

Hib and Meningococcal group C (MenC)

Pneumococcal (booster)

Measles, mumps and rubella (German measles)

MenB (booster)

Question 5

3 years 4 months old or soon after

Answer 5

Diphtheria
tetanus
pertussis
polio

MMR

Question 6

Boys and girls aged 12 to 13 years

Answer 6

HPV (2 doses 6 to 24 months apart)

Question 7

14 years old (school Year 9)

Answer 7

Tetanus
diphtheria
polio

Meningococcal groups A, C, W and Y

Question 8

65 years old

Answer 8

Pneumococcal (23 serotypes)

Question 9

65 years of age and older

Answer 9

Influenza (each year from September)

Question 10

70 to 79 years of age

Answer 10

Shingles

Question 11

Babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers

Answer 11

Hepatitis B vaccine at birth, 4 weeks and 12 months old

Question 12

Infants in areas of the country with tuberculosis (TB) incidence >= 40/100,000 or Infants with a parent or grandparent born in a high incidence country

Answer 12

Tuberculosis BCG vaccine given at Around 28 days old

Question 13

Children in a clinical risk group from 6 months to 17 years of age

Answer 13

Influenza

Question 14

Pregnant women

Answer 14

At any stage of pregnancy during flu season- influenza inactivated flu vaccine

From 16 weeks gestation - pertussis

Question 15

Asplenia or splenic dysfunction (including due to sickle cell and coeliac disease)

Answer 15

Meningococcal groups A, B, C, W and Y vaccine

Pneumococcal

influenza annual flu vaccine

Question 16

Cochlear implants

Answer 16

Pneumococcal

Question 17

Chronic respiratory and heart conditions (such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure)

Answer 17

pneumococcal

influenza

Question 18

Chronic neurological conditions (such as Parkinson’s or motor neurone disease, or learning disability)

Answer 18

pneumococcal

influenza

Question 19

diabetes

Answer 19

pneumococcal

influenza

Question 20

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) (including haemodialysis)

Answer 20

Pneumococcal (stage 4 and 5 CKD)
Influenza (stage 3, 4 and 5 CKD)
Hepatitis B (stage 4 and 5 CKD)

Question 21

Chronic liver conditions

Answer 21

Pneumococcal
Influenza
Hepatitis A,B

Question 22

Haemophilia

Answer 22

Hepatitis A, B

Question 23

Immunosuppression due to disease or treatment

Answer 23

pneumococcal

influenza

Question 24

Complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor therapy)

Answer 24

Meningococcal groups A, B, C, W and Y
Pneumococcal
Influenza

Question 25

live-attenuated (may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients)

Answer 25

BCG
measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
influenza (intranasal)
oral rotavirus
oral polio (historic)
yellow fever
oral typhoid

Question 26

Inactivated preparations

Answer 26

rabies
hepatitis A
influenza (intramuscular)
polio ( currently used in UK)

Question 27

Toxoid (inactivated toxin)

Answer 27

tetanus
diphtheria
pertussis

Question 28

Meningitis post exposure prophylaxis

Answer 28

single dose of ciprofloxacin ideally within 24 hours of the initial diagnosis.The risk is highest in the first 7 days after a case is diagnosed and falls sharply thereafter.

Question 29

HIV Post Exposure Prophylaxis

Answer 29

must be commenced within 72h
Truvada (emtricitabine / tenofovir) and raltegravir for 28 days.
HIV tests should be done initially but also a minimum of 3 months after exposure to confirm a negative status. Individuals should abstain from unprotected activity for a minimum of 3 months until confirmed negative.