III - infection Flashcards

1
Q

what are microbial strategies used by pathogens for attachment

A

bind firmly to epithelial surface
produces IgA protease
inactivate IgA

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2
Q

what are host defence for attachment of pathogens

A

microbes rinsed away by host secretions
produce secretory immunoglobulin (IgA)

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3
Q

what is the host defence to pathogen invasion

A

host cell membrane poses barrier to intracellular microbe

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4
Q

what is the microbial strategy for invasion

A

traverse host cell membrane; endure or trigger uptake by phagocyte and resist killing

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5
Q

what is the microbial strategy for invasion to bypass host cell defences

A

fusion protein in viral envelope; inject proteins that trigger uptake and/or block intracellular killing

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6
Q

what are microbial strategies for intracellular survival

A

block phagocyte chemotaxis
kills phagocyte before/after phagocytosis
inhibits phagocytosis and lysosome function
resist killing and multiply in the phagocyte

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7
Q

what is the host defence to intracellular survival

A

restriction of Fe(III)

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8
Q

what are microbial strategies for intracellular survival in response to iron restriction

A

scavenge iron in competition with the host

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9
Q

how do microbes survive intracellularly in response to iron restriction

A

secrete siderophores - bind Fe(III) with extremely high affinity
imported into the cytosol where the captured iron is released

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10
Q

what is the host defence to microbial extracellular survival

A

production of complements and antimicrobial peptides

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11
Q

what are the microbial strategies for extracellular survival

A

alter their cell surfaces, inactivate complement; or bind complement non-productively

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12
Q

what is the microbial mechanism for intracellular survival

A

release leucocidins, antiphagocytic haemolysins etc.
cell wall or capsule components to inhibit phagocytosis
inhibits 1 or 2 components needed for fusion of phagosome with lysosome
escape from phagosome into cytosol

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13
Q

what is the host defensive response to molecular release of siderophores

A

production of reactive oxygen and nitrogen species

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14
Q

what are the microbial strategies in response to host production of reactive O/N

A

avoids oxidative burst
removes reactive O and N species

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15
Q

what are the mechanisms microbes employ to avoid oxidative burst and removal of reactive N/O species

A

divert vesicles bearing NADPH oxidase so they don’t fuse with the phagosome
production of enzymes (catalase, superoxidase dismutase) to inactivate reactive N/O

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16
Q

what are the microbial mechanisms for extracellular survival, to go into ‘stealth mode’

A

sialyation of cell membrane or alteration in LPS structure
production of protease

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17
Q

function of C3b receptor

A

microbial receptor that competes with that on a phagocyte
hinders production of membrane attack complex
aids in microbial extracellular survival

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18
Q

what is another host defence to microbial extracellular survival

A

production of antimicrobial antibodies

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19
Q

what are the microbial extracellular survival strategies in response to host production of antimicrobial antibodies

A

destroy antibodies
prevent induction of protective antibodies
express Fc receptors
prevent antibody binding - prevent immune recognition

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20
Q

what are the microbial mechanisms for extracellular survival in response to antimicrobial antibodies

A

secretion of IgA protease
infection of lymphoid cells
bind antibody so that it is 180 degrees from normal
produce long LPS chain to keep antibodies/complements at ‘arms length’
acquire coating of host molecules - fibronectin

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21
Q

what is a 3rd host defence to extracellular microbial survival

A

antimicrobial cell-mediated response

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22
Q

what are the microbial strategies for extracellular survival in response to host antimicrobial cell-mediated response

A

invasion of T cells to inactivate or kill
switch on T/B cells non-productively

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23
Q

what are the microbial mechanisms that allow invasion of T/B cells for extracellular survival

A

virus envelope component binds CD4 on T helper cell
polyclonal activation of B cells
polyclonal activation of T cells by release of T cell mitogens

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24
Q

what is the host defence IV to prevent extracellular microbial survival

A

antimicrobial immune response

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25
what are microbial strategies for extracellular survival in response to host antimicrobial immune response
infects areas that are relatively inaccessible to antibodies/immune cells supress immune response vary microbial antigens
26
what are the host defences to prevent microbial shedding
apart from innate and acquired immunity, there is none
27
what are microbial strategies for shedding
stimulate host processes that increase chance of transmission via key routes: respiratory, faecal-oral or venereal blood via arthropods, needles, milk or saliva
28
effect of Vibrio cholerae
Diarrhoeal disease massive loss of water from intestinal epithelial cells
29
what does cholera toxin bind to and what happens
enterocyte GM1 receptors it is endocytosed
30
what occurs to endocytosed cholera toxin
is trafficked to the ER cholera A1 toxin is then released into the cytosol
31
function of cytosolic cholera toxin A1
diffuses towards the adenylate cyclase catalyses ADP ribosylation of the Gs alpha subunit using NAD
32
Gs alpha has intrinsic what, and what does ribosylation do to it
intrinsic GTPase activity ribosylation inhibits catalytic activity of hydrolysing GTP
33
what is the overall effect of ribosylation of Gs alpha subunit
increase in GTP increased adenylate cyclase activity increase in cAMP production
34
what e-coli cause noninflammatory diarrhoea
ETEC - enterotoxigenic E.coli EPEC - enteropathogenic E.coli
35
what E.coli cause inflammation
EIEC - enteroinvasive E.coli EAggEC - enteroaggregative E.coli EHEC - enterohaemorrhagic E.coli
36
what does ETEC do
attach to small intestinal mucosal elaborate one/both heat labile/stable toxins
37
what does EPEC do
attaches firmly to intestinal mucosa causes dissolution of brush border done by vesiculation of microvili
38
what does EIEC do
attach to colonic enterocytes penetrate via endocytic mechanism and replicate therein causes necrosis and large stripping of colonic mucosa and a dysentery
39
what does EAggEC do
damage and blunt colonic villi done by haemorrhagic necrosis
40
what does EHEC cause
diarrhoea haemorrhagic colitis haemolytic uraemic syndrome
41
what does EHEC destroy and what does it cause
RBC - haemolytic anaemia platelets - thrombocytopenia
42
what is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children
EHEC enterohaemorrhagic E.coli
43
what is the major toxin that EHEC produces
shiga-like toxins
44
what does EHEC adhere to
enterocytes in large intestine removes microvilli (efface)
45
what characteristic structural changes does EHEC cause onto a host cell
attaching-effacing lesions
46
how are pathogenicity islands acquired
via horizontal transfer from other bacteria
47
what is the major pathogenicity island in EHEC termed
locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE)
48
function of LEE
encodes proteins that form a specialised secretion system that injects EHEC into proteins into host cell as well as some of the injected proteins
49
what is EspA
filament extension in EHEC/EPEC
50
function of EspA
essential for host cell adherence transport of translocon and downstream effectors through the EspA filament to reach the host cell
51
structure of shiga-like toxins 1/2 (SLT)
have an enzymatic A subunit 5 identical B subunits
52
function of A subunits in SLT
inhibit protein synthesis cell is unable to recover
53
how specifically does the A subunit in SLT achieve its function
A subunit is a N-glycosidase depurinates adenosine 4324 in 28s rRNA
54
what do the B subunits in SLT bind to and where are they located
ceramide host cell receptors renal epithelial tissue CNS vascular endothelium
55
what are the stx1 and stx2 genes carried by
bacteriophage lysogens in EHEC cells
56
where does Stx production occur
in the intestine
57
how does bacteria cross the intestinal barrier
via M cells on Peyers patches in ileum cells in small intestine they are long polar fimbriae adhesins
58
where do bacteria enter, survive and produce Stx
lamina propria
59
what can helicobacter pylori be a causative agent for
peptic ulcers gastric cancer
60
what can helicobacter pylori protect against
protects against oesophageal cancer present in over 50% of the population
61
what is gram +/- bacteria based on and what are the differences
properties of their cell wall gram - - peptidoglycan surrounded by LPS gram + - no LPS layer, only thick layer of peptidoglycan
62
outline the steps required to stain both gram+/- bacteria in a culture
fixation crystal violet iodine treatment decolourisation counterstain
63
what is the function of crystal violet in staining
detects thick peptidoglycan and becomes trapped in the presence of iodine
64
function of ethanol in staining bacteria
stabilises/dehydrates crystal violet in gram + washes crystal violet and iodine out of gram -
65
name a counterstain
safranin
66
what is phytophora infestans
major fungal pathogen with broad host specificity (responsible for irish potato famine)