IFSTA Company Officer Flashcards

1
Q

_______ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.

A

Authority

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2
Q

Decisions made by one person at the top of the structure describes _____ authority.

A

Centralized

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3
Q

Decisions are made at a lower level with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure describes _____ authority.

A

Decentralized

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4
Q

______ is the process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete an assignment.

A

Delegation

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5
Q

_________ means that each person within an organization reports to one, and only one designated authority.

A

Unity of Command

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6
Q

What is the path of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa?

A

Chain of Command

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7
Q

What is an organizational principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor?

A

Functional Supervision

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8
Q

The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise describes what?

A

Span of Control

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9
Q

Span of Control typical range?

A

3-7

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10
Q

NIMS-ICS optimal span of control.

A

1 to 5

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11
Q

Dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals describes what?

A

Division of Labor

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12
Q

Notifying ones supervisor that one wishes to take an issue to the supervisors supervisor describes what?

A

Skip Level Notification

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13
Q

Going around a link in the chain of command to deal with an issue describes what?

A

Sidestepping

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14
Q

This leadership style provides clear directions of what, how, and when tasks will be performed.

A

Autocratic

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15
Q

________ inspires confidence from subordinates, the administration and the public.

A

Command Presense

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16
Q

________ is a system of moral principles.

A

Ethics

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17
Q

What principles define what is correct and proper behavior for the members of society?

A

Ethics

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18
Q

Personal _________ determine what an individual believes about morality and right and wrong.

A

Ethics

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19
Q

_________ is a critical variable influencing career success, personal achievement, and life satisfaction.

A

Emotional Intelligence

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20
Q

What is the process of directing, overseeing, and controlling the activities of other individuals.

A

Supervision

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21
Q

What refers to the administration and control of projects, programs, situations, or organizations.

A

Management

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22
Q

Supervising fire officer (all company officers)

Level 1, 2, 3 or 4

A

1

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23
Q

Managing fire officer (battalion, district, and assistant chiefs)

Level 1, 2, 3 or 4

A

2

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24
Q

Administrative fire officer (admin chiefs)

Level 1, 2, 3 or 4

A

3

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25
Q

Executive fire officer (chief of department)

Level 1, 2, 3 or 4

A

4

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26
Q

Who will be held responsible for their own actions, commands, and decisions as well as for the actions of their subordinates?

A

Company Officers

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27
Q

Who’s priorities are based on the mission of the organization and the services it provides?

A

Company Officer

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28
Q

Angry or emotional individuals will not hear ________ solutions to problems.

A

Rational

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29
Q

When brainstorming is used in the problem solving process, ______ has a voice.

A

Everyone

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30
Q

_________ assists in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting an individuals performance.

A

Counseling

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31
Q

_______ uses a positive role model to better prepare individuals for their roles and responsibilities within an organization.

A

Mentoring

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32
Q

________ is the process of controlling or directing available resources for the purposes of achieving a goal or objective through the use of authority or persuasion.

A

Managing

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33
Q

What management function creates:

a mission statement
sets goals and objectives
Develops tactical plans for accomplishing a specific objective.

A

Planning

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34
Q

What management function coordinates tasks and resources to accomplish the units goals and objectives.

A

Organizing

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35
Q

What management function guides, influences, inspires and motivates employees to achieve goals and objectives within a group?

A

Directing

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36
Q

What management function establishes and implements mechanisms to ensure the objectives are attained. Sets performance standards and measure the actual performance.

A

Controlling

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37
Q

What is an evaluation method that incorporates feedback from multiple sources such as the worker, his/her peers, superiors, subordinates and customers?

A

360 degree feedback evolution

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38
Q

What is an individuals ability to correctly perceive and label their own and others emotions?

A

Emotional Intelligence

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39
Q

Who must consider the safety, health, and well being of their personnel above all else?

A

Company Officers

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40
Q

What type of conflict behavior:

Occurs when people hide their own emotions so that others do not know how they feel. The goal of this is to appease others and avoid conflict at all costs.

A

Passive

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41
Q

What type of conflict behavior:

occurs when people express their emotions openly and use threatening behaviors toward people or objects that violate the rights of others.

A

Aggressive

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42
Q

What type of conflict behavior:
Occurs when people express negative feelings, resentment, and aggression in unassertive, passive ways.

A

passive/aggressive

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43
Q

What type of conflict behavior:

occurs when people express their emotions honestly and defend their rights without hurting others.

A

Assertive

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44
Q

It is best to resolve _______ as soon as it occurs.

A

Conflict

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45
Q

The longer a company officer waits to confront a problem, the _______ it will be to find a solution.

A

harder

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46
Q

What has been defined as training that corrects?

A

Discipline

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47
Q

The main purpose of _________ is to educate and change behavior

A

discipline

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48
Q

What type of discipline starts with training/education

A

Progressive

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49
Q

Progressive discipline involves what 3 levels?

A

Preventative, corrective, punitive

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50
Q

What is a complaint against management by one or more personnel concerning an actual, alleged, or perceived injustice?

A

Grievance

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51
Q

Interpersonal Communication Basics:
What is the content that the sender is trying to communicate?

A

The message

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52
Q

Interpersonal Communication Basics:
Who are the individuals with whom the sender is attempting to communicate?

A

Receiver

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53
Q

Interpersonal Communication Basics:
What is anything that prevents the receiver from understanding the message?

A

Interference

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54
Q

Determining the audience, scope and purpose is the first step in doing what?

A

Writing any document

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55
Q

A ______ is used to determine organizational decision making.

A

Policy

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56
Q

A ______ is a detailed plan of action that is similar and closely related to a policy.

A

Procedure

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57
Q

At an emergency scene, what is the preferred route of communication?

A

Direct, face to face

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58
Q

What type of radios are operated from a departments telecommunications center?

A

Base RAdio

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59
Q

What type of radios are mounted in a response vehicle?

A

Mobile

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60
Q

What type of radios are handheld?

A

Portable

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61
Q

What type of system receives a signal from a radio, boosts its power and transmits the signal?

A

Repeater system

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62
Q

___________ is the ability of a system to work with and use the parts or equipment of another system.

A

Interoperability

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63
Q

What does it mean to use clear text?

A

Plain English on the radio

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64
Q

Internal employees, external beneficiaries and stakeholders are often referred to as _________ by fire organizations.

A

Customers

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65
Q

Customer _______ indicates how well an organization meets or exceeds the expectations of the community it serves.

A

satisfaction

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66
Q

Employees and members of the organization, including emergency personnel, admin staff and officers.

Internal or External customers

A

Internal

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67
Q

Members of the general population within the service area.

Internal or External Customers

A

External

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68
Q

________ customers should be allowed to participate in the decision making process at meetings.

A

Internal

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69
Q

What is a broad term that incorporates all programs that protect the public using protection, prevention, and education?

A

Community Risk Reduction

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70
Q

A public relations program _________ the organization to the community,

A

Markets

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71
Q

What determines if current policies are effective and enforceable, or if the lack of policies has caused problems.

A

Policy Analysis

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72
Q

When does a policy analysis occur?

A

When an organization is experiencing internal difficulty

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73
Q

What provides a consistent point of reference that helps all organizational members perform to a measurable standard?

A

SOP’s

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74
Q

Company officers must communicate any concerns or problems with policies and procedures to their ________

A

Supervisors

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75
Q

At an emergency incident, orders and directives are considered ________.

A

mandatory

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76
Q

What type of budget includes projected major expenses?

A

Capital Budget

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77
Q

What type of budget includes items that cost more than a specified amount and are elected to last more than a year?

A

Capital Budget

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78
Q

Fire apparatus, vehicles, equipment and facilities are usually a __________ budget item.

A

Capital

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79
Q

What budget is used to pay for the recurring expenses of day-to-day operations including personnel salary and benefits?

A

Operational Budget

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80
Q

What is the single biggest expense of the operating budget?

A

Salary and Benefits

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81
Q

Personnel costs may be as much as _____ percent of the budget.

A

90

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82
Q

Utilities, office supplies, fuel, janitorial supplies are part of what budget?

A

Operating

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83
Q

The external review is the _________ review the budget-request document receives.

A

Final

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84
Q

Based on citizen interests or concerns, the budget may be ________

A

revised

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85
Q

What defines the needs of the organization and allows manufacturers or authorized distributors to decide if they can meet bid specs.

A

Request for proposal

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86
Q

What maintenance is usually performed according to a pre-determined schedule to prevent damage, reduce wear, and extend the life of an item?

A

Preventative Maintenence

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87
Q

______ ______ and repairs are often the result of an unforeseen event.

A

Corrective maintenance

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88
Q

The decision to repair or replace an item is often based on its ________ record and life _______.

A

Maintenance, Expectancy

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89
Q

What are the basis for planning and justifying budget requests?

A

Activity Records

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90
Q

What type of records include training, performance, attendance, hazardous materials exposure, and medical records?

A

Personnel Records

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91
Q

Why must personnel records be kept current?

A

For emergencies or LODD’s

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92
Q

Personnel records are confidential with the exception of _______

A

Attendance

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93
Q

Performance is documented and measured through individual job performance _________.

A

Evaluations

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94
Q

Hazard exposures and medical records must be maintained for ____ years after employment end.

A

30

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95
Q

What is the intranet?

A

Internal Network

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96
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility or providing a safe workplace and protect employees from job-related injuries, illnesses and exposures?

A

Organizational Management

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97
Q

What is the most common cause of incident fatalities?

A

cardiac arrest

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98
Q

If an unsafe act occurs during on-scene operations, the company officer should address it _______.

A

Immediately

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99
Q

During exposure reduction, do not use wipes that contain ______.

A

Alcohol

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100
Q

Regardless of conditions, company officers are always responsible for their drivers ________.

A

Actions

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101
Q

One of the best methods for providing a safe workplace is proper ________.

A

Maintenence

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102
Q

What is the process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards?

A

Risk Management

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103
Q

__________ risk management evaluates risks and hazards that can effect the organization and provide control measures to reduce the frequency, severity, and probability of a negative event.

A

Operational

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104
Q

Risk reduction through ____ ______ is the most common method used to manage risk.

A

Control Measures

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105
Q

Three E’s of safety?

A

Engineering, education, enforcement

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106
Q

Which component of a risk management plan?

Conducted in the community, within the organization, and within the operational setting at emergency and non emergency incidents.

A

Risk Identification

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107
Q

Which component of a risk management plan?

Evaluated on their probability and potential for negative consequences, including the anticipated severity and frequency of occurrence.

A

Risk Evaluation

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108
Q

Which component of a risk management plan?

Determined by ranking the identified risks on the degree of severity and frequency of occurrence.

A

Establishment of priorities for action

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109
Q

Which component of a risk management plan?

Identified control measures for each significant risk.

A

Risk-Control techniques

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110
Q

Which component of a risk management plan?

Ongoing process to monitor the risk control measures. Recommendations for plan revision will be based on the monitoring process.

A

Risk Management monitoring

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111
Q

What NFPA standard provides guidance on yearly physicals?

A

1582

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112
Q

Absorption rates increase _____ percent for every ______ degree rise in temperature.

A

400, 5

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113
Q

What areas have a high absorption rate?

A

groin, jaw, forehead, back

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114
Q

4 step method of instructing.

A

Preparation, presentation, application, evaluation.

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115
Q

What is a road map that guides the instructor, teacher, or company officer through a topic?

A

Lesson Plan

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116
Q

What is the act of showing how to do something or how something operates and is a basic means for teaching psychomotor skills?

A

Demonstration

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117
Q

NFPA 1403 reccomends an instructor to student ration of ____ to ____.

A

1, 5

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118
Q

______ are legal documents that govern activities at various levels of government.

A

Codes

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119
Q

What is a set of requirements that are similar to a standard, and these requirements are generally called prescriptive codes?

A

Model Code

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120
Q

Like standards, model codes are only enforceable when the _______ adopts them.

A

AHJ

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121
Q

What 2 model code organizations in America?

A

NFPA, ICC

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122
Q

What are the codes used by the department of defense called?

A

Unified Facilities Criteria

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123
Q

What refers to a document that a committee of experts has developed and agreed upon before publication?

A

Consensus Standard

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124
Q

Who develops and publishes the majority of the consensus standards concerning fire protection, electrical systems and life safety systems in the US?

A

NFPA

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125
Q

Who is an independent, not-for-profit product safety testing and certification organization?

A

Underwriters Labratory

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126
Q

UL has developed more than ____ standards for safety.

A

800

127
Q

Who adopts and amends building codes to meet local requirements?

A

AHJ

128
Q

What building type provides the highest level of protection from fire spread as well as collapse?

A

Type I

129
Q

Reinforced concrete, precast concrete, and protected steel frames can be found in what building type?

A

Type I

130
Q

What building type roof may be difficult to ventilate due to material and design?

A

Type I

131
Q

What building type is composed of material that will not contribute to fire development or spread?

A

Type II

132
Q

Mercantile, business, residential structures and older schools are typically what building type?

A

Type III

133
Q

What building type is extremely stable and resistant to collapse due to the sheer mass of their structural members?

A

Type IV

134
Q

What building type has exterior load bearing walls composed entirely of wood?

A

Type V

135
Q

What building type includes the use of prefabricated wood truss system instead of solid floor joists?

A

Type V

136
Q

Are manufactured homes required to conform to building codes?

A

No

137
Q

What type of homes are required to conform to HUD standards?

A

Manufactured Homes

138
Q

T/F: HUD standards are more stringent than building codes?

A

T

139
Q

An _______ occupancy is any structure or compartment (room) that is used for the gathering of 50 or more persons.

A

Assembly

140
Q

Occupancies in which people, with physical limitations due to health or age, are cared for or provided medical treatment are classified as group _____ by the _____.

A

1, ICC

141
Q

Do local fire alarm systems transmit a signal outside of the property?

A

No

142
Q

What type of fire alarm system is connected directly to the communications/dispatch system?

A

Remote Station

143
Q

What type of alarm system is used to protect large commercial, industrial buildings, high rise and college campuses?

A

Proprietary

144
Q

What class of water system is intended for firefighters trained in handling large landlines, typically 2 1/2 with a reducer to attach a 1 3/4.

A

Class I

145
Q

What class of water system is designed for use by trained building occupants or firefighters. These are equipped with 1 1/2 hose stored in a hose rack system.

A

Class II

146
Q

What class of water system is equipped with 1 1/2 hose in a rack system and is typically single jacket hose?

A

Class II

147
Q

What class of water system combines class I and II and must allow both to be used simultaneously?

A

Class III

148
Q

What type of smoke management system uses smoke control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to protect against fire spread?

A

Passive System

149
Q

Fire stops around barrier penetrations, door gasket and stop seals describe what type of smoke management system?

A

passive system

150
Q

What type of smoke management system uses mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier to prevent smoke from entering the high pressure side?

A

Pressurized Systems

151
Q

What smoke control method is designed to limit the movement of smoke from one compartment to another?

A

Zoned-Smoke Control

152
Q

What is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, gas, density and pressure?

A

Thermal Layering

153
Q

What is defined as the space between the air intake and the exhaust outlet?

A

Flow Path

154
Q

The interface between the hot gas layer and the cooler layer of air is referred to what?

A

Neutral Plane

155
Q

Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient stage become _______ ________.

A

Ventilation Limited

156
Q

What occurs when all exposed combustable surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to their ignition temp and ignite almost simultaneously?

A

Flashover

157
Q

What is a condition where the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer?

A

rollover

158
Q

A significant indicator if flashover is _____.

A

Rollover

159
Q

How is rollover distinguished from flashover?

A

Rollover only involves the gases at the upper layer of the compartment.

160
Q

Flashover represents a transition from the _____ stage to the _______ stage.

A

growth, fully developed

161
Q

When a fire is in ventilation -limited decay, the introduction of new oxygen can trigger _______.

A

Flashover

162
Q

Backdraft occurs in the ______ stage.

A

Decay

163
Q

Fire spread results from _______ transferring from a burning object to other objects of lower temperatures.

A

Heat

164
Q

Local alarm systems initiate an alarm signal only on the _________ where they are installed.

A

Premise

165
Q

What type of alarm systems do not transmit an alarm signal to any other location?

A

Local

166
Q

What type of alarm system is connected to a municipal alarm box?

A

Auxillary

167
Q

What type of alarm system is connected directly to the communications/dispatch center?

A

Remote Station

168
Q

What type of alarm system usually used a leased telephone line, not municipal box circuits?

A

Remote Station

169
Q

What type of alarm system uses a radio signal on a dedicated fire and emergency frequency?

A

Remote Station

170
Q

A noncoded fire alarm system may be used when covering how many buildings?

A

1

171
Q

Is a coded or noncoded alarm system installed when occupancies span multiple buildings?

A

Coded

172
Q

One remote station for a coded fire alarm may cover up to how many buildings?

A

5

173
Q

What type of alarm system is used to protect large commercial buildings, high-rise, and groups of commonly owned buildings in a single location such as a college campus or industrial complex?

A

Proprietary

174
Q

What type of alarm system has an employee who is trained in system operation and should constantly man the station?

A

Proprietary

175
Q

What type of alarm system differs from a proprietary system by not having the receiving point on premises and the owner of the facility does not employ who the alarm goes to?

A

Central Station

176
Q

What type of alarm system receives an alarm, calls fire/ems and also calls the building owner?

A

Central Station

177
Q

What must an owner do if they have fire sprinklers, but the municipal water system pressure is too low to adequately provide to the system?

A

Install an additional water tank on the property

178
Q

What may be installed in occupancies when it is impractical or impossible to maintain water storage for fire protection?

A

Stationary fire pumps

179
Q

In a type ____ alarm system, the alarm operator must manually retransmit alarms received from the street boxes to the designated fire stations.

A

A

180
Q

In a type ____ alarm system, alarms received from street boxes are automatically retransmitted to all fire stations within the jurisdiction.

A

B

181
Q

Type ____ alarm systems are necessary in jurisdictions with a large call volume to prevent stations from being inundated with fire calls for which they are not assigned the initial response.

A

A

182
Q

Standpipe systems are found in buildings that are greater than _____ stories.

A

4

183
Q

Class I, II, or III Standpipe System

Intended for firefighting personnel trained in large handlines. Consist of valve controlled 2 1/2 outlets attached to the riser.

A

I

184
Q

Class I, II, or III standpipe system

Designed for use by either trained building occupants or FD personnel. Equipped with 1 1/2 hose and nozzle stored on hose rack system.

A

II

185
Q

What standpipe class typically uses single-jacket hose and equipped with lightweight, twist-type nozzle?

A

II

186
Q

Class I, II or III standpipe system.

1 1/2 hose stations for use by trained building occupants and 2 1/2 connections for FD use.

A

III

187
Q

What kind of smoke management system?

Smoke-control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to protect against fire spread. Examples include: fire stops around barrier penetrations, door gasket and drop seals.

A

Passive

188
Q

What kind of smoke management system?

Use mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier such as a wall to prevent smoke from entering the high pressure side?

A

Pressurized

189
Q

What kind of smoke control system method is designed to limit the movement of smoke from one compartment of a building to another?

A

Zoned Smoke Control

190
Q

What kind of smoke control system method is in areas such as building atriums and highway tunnels and uses fresh air to get the environment to an acceptable level.

A

Dilution

191
Q

What kind of smoke control system method uses mechanical ventilation along with the properties of smoke to collect it at its highest space?

A

Exhaust method

192
Q

What kind of smoke control system method is used in large spaces where smoke migration from the fire zone is limited by opposing air flow using high velocity air?

A

Opposed Air Flow Method

193
Q

Rapid fire development usually occurs during the _____ phase.

A

Growth

194
Q

Unconfined fires draw air from all sides and the _______ of air cools the plume of hot gases, reducing flame length and vertical extension.

A

Entrainment

195
Q

Fires in fuel packages in the middle of the room can entrain air from where?

A

All sides

196
Q

Fires in fuel packages near walls can entrain air from where?

A

3 sides

197
Q

Fires in fuel packages in corners can only entrain air from where?

A

2 sides

198
Q

The area where sufficient air is available to feed the fire is defined as what?

A

combustion zone

199
Q

A fire is in the growth stage until the fire’s heat release rate has reached its ______

A

peak

200
Q

When a fire cannot grow without the introduction of a new fuel source or new oxygen source, it has left the _______ stage and entered the __________ stage.

A

Growth, Fully Developed

201
Q

What is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, gas density and pressure?

A

Thermal Layering

202
Q

What is the space between the air intake and the exhaust outlet?

A

Flow Path

203
Q

As the mass and energy of the hot gas layer increases, so does the _____

A

pressure

204
Q

_______ causes the hot gas layer to spread downward and laterally through openings.

A

Higher Pressure

205
Q

The interface between the hot gas layer and the cooler layer of air is referred to as what?

A

Neutral Plane

206
Q

What exists at openings where hot gases exit and cooler air enters the compartment?

A

Neutral Plane

207
Q

Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient stage become _______ ________.

A

Ventilation Limited

208
Q

What decreases when a fire is ventilation-limited?

A

Heat release rate

209
Q

In order for a ventilation-limited fire to grow, it needs a new supply of ______.

A

Oxygen

210
Q

What refers to the rapid transition from growth stage or early decay stage to a ventilation-limited, fully developed stage?

A

Rapid Fire Development

211
Q

What occurs when all exposed combustable surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to their ignition temperature and ignite simultaneously?

A

Flashover

212
Q

During ______, the environment in the room changes from a two-layer condition, to a single mixed hot gas condition from ceiling to floor.

A

Flashover

213
Q

_______ describes a condition where the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer.

A

Rollover

214
Q

_________ is distinguished from ___________ because it involves only the fire gases at the top and not the other fuel packages within a compartment.

A

Rollover, Flashover

215
Q

Transition in fire development, rapidity, compartment and pyrolysis of all exposed fuel surfaces are the 4 common elements of what?

A

Flashover

216
Q

High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:

May indicate that the fire is in the early stages of development.

A

High

217
Q

High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:

Could indicate that the compartment has not yet ventilated or that flashover is approaching.

A

Mid Level

218
Q

High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:

May indicate the fire is reaching backdraft conditions.

A

Low Level

219
Q

What is an explosively rapid combustion of all the flammable gases?

A

Backdraft

220
Q

Backdraft occurs in what stage?

A

decay

221
Q

Fire spread results from _____ transferring from a burning object to other objects of lower temperatures.

A

Heat

222
Q

The greater the ________ difference between objects, the more rapid the transfer rate.

A

Temperature

223
Q

Outdoor fires are always considered ______ limited.

A

Fuel

224
Q

Unless a compartment fire is in its incipient stage, the fire should be considered ________ limited.

A

Ventilation

225
Q

_______ allows fires that have stopped growing to continue to grow.

A

Ventilation

226
Q

Fire will always grow towards _______ openings as it seeks fresh air.

A

Ventilation

227
Q

_________ ventilation occurs when a structural member fails, usually because of exposure to heat and introduces a new source of oxygen to the fire.

A

Unplanned

228
Q

Wind speeds as low as ____ MPH can create wind-driven fire conditions.

A

10

229
Q

What occurs when a mixture of unburned fuel gases and oxygen comes into contact with an ignition source?

A

Smoke Explosion

230
Q

Cellulose type fuels are what class?

A

A

231
Q

Flammable/Combustable liquids and gases are what class?

A

B

232
Q

Energized electrical wiring, equipment and appliances are what class?

A

C

233
Q

fuels, combustable metals, are what class?

A

D

234
Q

deep fat fryers are what class?

A

K

235
Q

The surface area and type of fuel involved influence compartment fires involving class _____ fires.

A

B

236
Q

The total quantity of combustable contents of a building, space, or fire area is referred to as what?

A

Fuel Load

237
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction describes what?

A

Convection

238
Q

Physical flow or transfer of heat energy from one body to another through direct contact or intervening medium describes what?

A

Conduction

239
Q

Are pre-incident surveys intended to locate code violations?

A

No

240
Q

Under common law and statutory law, does the presence of an emergency constitute implied consent to enter a structure?

A

Yes

241
Q

What is the first step when gathering information when assigned to inspect an occupancy?

A

Gather information

242
Q

What is the single most important life safety item to be inspected when inspecting a building?

A

Means of egress

243
Q

Hazard Classes:

Every Good Lieutenants Standard Operating Procedures Require Constant Maintenance

A
  1. Explosives
  2. Gases
  3. Flammable Liquids
  4. Flammable Solids
  5. Oxidizers
  6. Poisonous
  7. Radioactive
  8. Corrosive
  9. Miscelaneous
244
Q

What sprinkler system has piping that is constantly full of water?

A

Wet-Pipe System

245
Q

What sprinklers system has piping that is filled with air?

A

Dry-Pipe System

246
Q

Which sprinkler system is preferable where temperatures can freeze?

A

Dry-Pipe System

247
Q

What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of closed sprinkler heads attached to a piping system that contains air under pressure.

A

Dry-Pipe

248
Q

What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of closed sprinkler heads attached to a piping system that contains air under pressure and a secondary detection system. Both systems must operate before the extinguishing agent is released.

A

Preaction

249
Q

What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of piping and open sprinklers and a fire detecting system is used to activate the water?

A

Deluge

250
Q

When a fire is confined within a compartment, the walls, ceiling, floor and objects in the room absorb _______ heat from the fire.

A

Radiant

251
Q

The only indication of potential for a _____ _______ is the presence of smoke, generally in an area away from the fire.

A

smoke explosion

252
Q

What type of fuel includes the contents of the structure and structural members themselves.

A

Building

253
Q

What is the most common type of fuel found in structures?

A

Class A or cellulose

254
Q

A ____ _____ includes all furnishings, merchandise, interior finish, and structural components of the structure.

A

fuel load

255
Q

_______ fires that go undetected for many hours will consume all the oxygen in a structure, creating the potential for backdraft.

A

Contents

256
Q

In wood frame buildings, the structure itself is a ______ source.

A

fuel

257
Q

combustable interior finishes, such as wood paneling, can be a significant factor influencing what?

A

fire spread

258
Q

because of energy efficient home designs, structures tend to ______ fires for a longer period of time

A

contain

259
Q

In modern fire environments, it is common to experience a ____ period prior to flashover.

A

decay

260
Q

forcible entry is a form of ______.

A

ventilation

261
Q

once fires become _____ ____, the amount of smoke forced out of structural gaps or openings is reduced or stopped.

A

ventilation limited

262
Q

each new ventilation opening creates a new flow path to and from the fire, which is especially dangerous in a _____ ________ fire.

A

ventilation limited

263
Q

a fire in a large compartment will normally develop _____ than one in a small compartment.

A

slower

264
Q

What thermal property contains heat within the building which causes a localized increase in the temperature and fire growth?

A

insulation

265
Q

what thermal property maintains temperature by slowly absorbing and releasing large amount of heat?

A

retention

266
Q

legacy construction assemblies fail over a ____ area, while lightweight construction assemblies fail over a _____ area.

A

small, large

267
Q

preheated wood structural components ______ a structure before direct fire involvement.

A

weaken

268
Q

modern trusses are generally spaced every _____ inches.

A

24

269
Q

unprotected engineered steel and wooden trusses can fail after ____ to _____ minutes exposure to fire.

A

5, 10

270
Q

what temperature does steel start to weaken?

A

1000F

271
Q

an arched or curved outline indicated what type of truss?

A

bowstring

272
Q

what type of extinguishing system is used when rapid extinguishment is necessary but reignition is unlikely?

A

dry chemical systems

273
Q

what is the most common type of dry chemical system?

A

local application

274
Q

what type of system is installed in areas such as spray booths, where a heavy cloud of agent is needed to fill the entire space.

A

total flooding

275
Q

what type of system is designed to be installed in commercial range hoods, plenums and ducts?

A

wet chemical systems

276
Q

what type of system is well suited for cooking-oil related applications.

A

wet chemical systems

277
Q

how does C02 extinguish a fire?

A

removes oxygen

278
Q

total flooding C02 systems must have what prior to activation?

A

a warning system for occupants

279
Q

halogenated agents are principally effective on what type of fires?

A

class B and C

280
Q

Halon 1211 is commonly found where?

A

portable fire extinguishers

281
Q

Halon 1301 is commonly found where?

A

fixed application systems

282
Q

Halon systems are equipped with what to prevent accidental activation?

A

abort switch

283
Q

_______ systems are used in locations where the application of water alone may not be effective.

A

foam

284
Q

foam systems may be produced to deploy what type of foam?

A

AFFF and FFFP

285
Q

what serves as the basis for safe and efficient scene management?

A

ICS

286
Q

company officers must use _____ on any incident no matter how big or small?

A

ICS

287
Q

what is necessary when an incident threatens to or involves more than one jurisdiction or agency?

A

unified command

288
Q

what usually consists of appropriate actions for the initial phase of the incident?

A

IAP

289
Q

a formal, written ____ will be required for long duration events.

A

IAP

290
Q

what is a system that optimizes the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures and equipment.

A

CRM

291
Q

_____ training helps to identify barriers and prevent them from impending an operation.

A

CRM

292
Q

During an incident, what takes precedence over all other considerations?

A

Life safety

293
Q

who requires that we use 2 in /2 out?

A

OSHA

294
Q

what is the identification, assessment, analysis, control, avoidance and minimization or elimination of risk?

A

risk management

295
Q

according to the NFPA, what is the upper survivability limit for humans?

A

212F

296
Q

what process actually starts before an incident is reported and continues throughout the incident?

A

Size up

297
Q

what is the lead/reflex time?

A

amount of time to request and obtain additional resources

298
Q

_______ are things that are not known for certain, but based on known facts, are likely to happen.

A

probabilities

299
Q

what zone is where resolving the problem is taking place?

A

hot

300
Q

only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed in what zone?

A

hot

301
Q

what is the area directly outside the hot zone, where personnel are directly supporting the work being performed?

A

warm

302
Q

what zone should include the command post and rehab?

A

cold

303
Q

_______ ________ are the overall plans for controlling an incident.

A

strategic goals

304
Q

what are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved?

A

strategic goals

305
Q

______ _____ are specific statements of measurable outcomes.

A

tactical objectives

306
Q

limiting spread of the problem to the area or property of origin by taking action to save adjacent structures describes what?

A

exposure control

307
Q

_____ evidence is composed of facts to which a person can attest without further support.

A

direct

308
Q

what refers to evidence that was damaged, altered, lost, or destroyed by someone who has the responsibility to preserve it?

A

spoliation

309
Q

when responding to an emergency, the fire department has a right to enter, this is called what?

A

right of entry

310
Q

once the FD releases the property back to the homeowner, can they enter the scene on their own without homeowner approval?

A

no

311
Q

what focuses on the on scene activities of the responders without placing blame or finding fault?

A

postincident analysis

312
Q

what is a meeting that generally involves all participating units and agencies after an incident?

A

after action review

313
Q
A