IFSTA Company Officer Flashcards
1
Q
_______ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.
A
Authority
2
Q
Decisions made by one person at the top of the structure describes _____ authority.
A
Centralized
3
Q
Decisions are made at a lower level with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure describes _____ authority.
A
Decentralized
4
Q
______ is the process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete an assignment.
A
Delegation
5
Q
_________ means that each person within an organization reports to one, and only one designated authority.
A
Unity of Command
6
Q
What is the path of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa?
A
Chain of Command
7
Q
What is an organizational principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor?
A
Functional Supervision
8
Q
The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise describes what?
A
Span of Control
9
Q
Span of Control typical range?
A
3-7
10
Q
NIMS-ICS optimal span of control.
A
1 to 5
11
Q
Dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals describes what?
A
Division of Labor
12
Q
Notifying ones supervisor that one wishes to take an issue to the supervisors supervisor describes what?
A
Skip Level Notification
13
Q
Going around a link in the chain of command to deal with an issue describes what?
A
Sidestepping
14
Q
This leadership style provides clear directions of what, how, and when tasks will be performed.
A
Autocratic
15
Q
________ inspires confidence from subordinates, the administration and the public.
A
Command Presense
16
Q
________ is a system of moral principles.
A
Ethics
17
Q
What principles define what is correct and proper behavior for the members of society?
A
Ethics
18
Q
Personal _________ determine what an individual believes about morality and right and wrong.
A
Ethics
19
Q
_________ is a critical variable influencing career success, personal achievement, and life satisfaction.
A
Emotional Intelligence
20
Q
What is the process of directing, overseeing, and controlling the activities of other individuals.
A
Supervision
21
Q
What refers to the administration and control of projects, programs, situations, or organizations.
A
Management
22
Q
Supervising fire officer (all company officers)
Level 1, 2, 3 or 4
A
1
23
Q
Managing fire officer (battalion, district, and assistant chiefs)
Level 1, 2, 3 or 4
A
2
24
Q
Administrative fire officer (admin chiefs)
Level 1, 2, 3 or 4
A
3
25
Executive fire officer (chief of department)
Level 1, 2, 3 or 4
4
26
Who will be held responsible for their own actions, commands, and decisions as well as for the actions of their subordinates?
Company Officers
27
Who's priorities are based on the mission of the organization and the services it provides?
Company Officer
28
Angry or emotional individuals will not hear ________ solutions to problems.
Rational
29
When brainstorming is used in the problem solving process, ______ has a voice.
Everyone
30
_________ assists in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting an individuals performance.
Counseling
31
_______ uses a positive role model to better prepare individuals for their roles and responsibilities within an organization.
Mentoring
32
________ is the process of controlling or directing available resources for the purposes of achieving a goal or objective through the use of authority or persuasion.
Managing
33
What management function creates:
a mission statement
sets goals and objectives
Develops tactical plans for accomplishing a specific objective.
Planning
34
What management function coordinates tasks and resources to accomplish the units goals and objectives.
Organizing
35
What management function guides, influences, inspires and motivates employees to achieve goals and objectives within a group?
Directing
36
What management function establishes and implements mechanisms to ensure the objectives are attained. Sets performance standards and measure the actual performance.
Controlling
37
What is an evaluation method that incorporates feedback from multiple sources such as the worker, his/her peers, superiors, subordinates and customers?
360 degree feedback evolution
38
What is an individuals ability to correctly perceive and label their own and others emotions?
Emotional Intelligence
39
Who must consider the safety, health, and well being of their personnel above all else?
Company Officers
40
What type of conflict behavior:
Occurs when people hide their own emotions so that others do not know how they feel. The goal of this is to appease others and avoid conflict at all costs.
Passive
41
What type of conflict behavior:
occurs when people express their emotions openly and use threatening behaviors toward people or objects that violate the rights of others.
Aggressive
42
What type of conflict behavior:
Occurs when people express negative feelings, resentment, and aggression in unassertive, passive ways.
passive/aggressive
43
What type of conflict behavior:
occurs when people express their emotions honestly and defend their rights without hurting others.
Assertive
44
It is best to resolve _______ as soon as it occurs.
Conflict
45
The longer a company officer waits to confront a problem, the _______ it will be to find a solution.
harder
46
What has been defined as training that corrects?
Discipline
47
The main purpose of _________ is to educate and change behavior
discipline
48
What type of discipline starts with training/education
Progressive
49
Progressive discipline involves what 3 levels?
Preventative, corrective, punitive
50
What is a complaint against management by one or more personnel concerning an actual, alleged, or perceived injustice?
Grievance
51
Interpersonal Communication Basics:
What is the content that the sender is trying to communicate?
The message
52
Interpersonal Communication Basics:
Who are the individuals with whom the sender is attempting to communicate?
Receiver
53
Interpersonal Communication Basics:
What is anything that prevents the receiver from understanding the message?
Interference
54
Determining the audience, scope and purpose is the first step in doing what?
Writing any document
55
A ______ is used to determine organizational decision making.
Policy
56
A ______ is a detailed plan of action that is similar and closely related to a policy.
Procedure
57
At an emergency scene, what is the preferred route of communication?
Direct, face to face
58
What type of radios are operated from a departments telecommunications center?
Base RAdio
59
What type of radios are mounted in a response vehicle?
Mobile
60
What type of radios are handheld?
Portable
61
What type of system receives a signal from a radio, boosts its power and transmits the signal?
Repeater system
62
___________ is the ability of a system to work with and use the parts or equipment of another system.
Interoperability
63
What does it mean to use clear text?
Plain English on the radio
64
Internal employees, external beneficiaries and stakeholders are often referred to as _________ by fire organizations.
Customers
65
Customer _______ indicates how well an organization meets or exceeds the expectations of the community it serves.
satisfaction
66
Employees and members of the organization, including emergency personnel, admin staff and officers.
Internal or External customers
Internal
67
Members of the general population within the service area.
Internal or External Customers
External
68
________ customers should be allowed to participate in the decision making process at meetings.
Internal
69
What is a broad term that incorporates all programs that protect the public using protection, prevention, and education?
Community Risk Reduction
70
A public relations program _________ the organization to the community,
Markets
71
What determines if current policies are effective and enforceable, or if the lack of policies has caused problems.
Policy Analysis
72
When does a policy analysis occur?
When an organization is experiencing internal difficulty
73
What provides a consistent point of reference that helps all organizational members perform to a measurable standard?
SOP's
74
Company officers must communicate any concerns or problems with policies and procedures to their ________
Supervisors
75
At an emergency incident, orders and directives are considered ________.
mandatory
76
What type of budget includes projected major expenses?
Capital Budget
77
What type of budget includes items that cost more than a specified amount and are elected to last more than a year?
Capital Budget
78
Fire apparatus, vehicles, equipment and facilities are usually a __________ budget item.
Capital
79
What budget is used to pay for the recurring expenses of day-to-day operations including personnel salary and benefits?
Operational Budget
80
What is the single biggest expense of the operating budget?
Salary and Benefits
81
Personnel costs may be as much as _____ percent of the budget.
90
82
Utilities, office supplies, fuel, janitorial supplies are part of what budget?
Operating
83
The external review is the _________ review the budget-request document receives.
Final
84
Based on citizen interests or concerns, the budget may be ________
revised
85
What defines the needs of the organization and allows manufacturers or authorized distributors to decide if they can meet bid specs.
Request for proposal
86
What maintenance is usually performed according to a pre-determined schedule to prevent damage, reduce wear, and extend the life of an item?
Preventative Maintenence
87
______ ______ and repairs are often the result of an unforeseen event.
Corrective maintenance
88
The decision to repair or replace an item is often based on its ________ record and life _______.
Maintenance, Expectancy
89
What are the basis for planning and justifying budget requests?
Activity Records
90
What type of records include training, performance, attendance, hazardous materials exposure, and medical records?
Personnel Records
91
Why must personnel records be kept current?
For emergencies or LODD's
92
Personnel records are confidential with the exception of _______
Attendance
93
Performance is documented and measured through individual job performance _________.
Evaluations
94
Hazard exposures and medical records must be maintained for ____ years after employment end.
30
95
What is the intranet?
Internal Network
96
Who has the ultimate responsibility or providing a safe workplace and protect employees from job-related injuries, illnesses and exposures?
Organizational Management
97
What is the most common cause of incident fatalities?
cardiac arrest
98
If an unsafe act occurs during on-scene operations, the company officer should address it _______.
Immediately
99
During exposure reduction, do not use wipes that contain ______.
Alcohol
100
Regardless of conditions, company officers are always responsible for their drivers ________.
Actions
101
One of the best methods for providing a safe workplace is proper ________.
Maintenence
102
What is the process of identifying and analyzing the exposure to hazards?
Risk Management
103
__________ risk management evaluates risks and hazards that can effect the organization and provide control measures to reduce the frequency, severity, and probability of a negative event.
Operational
104
Risk reduction through ____ ______ is the most common method used to manage risk.
Control Measures
105
Three E's of safety?
Engineering, education, enforcement
106
Which component of a risk management plan?
Conducted in the community, within the organization, and within the operational setting at emergency and non emergency incidents.
Risk Identification
107
Which component of a risk management plan?
Evaluated on their probability and potential for negative consequences, including the anticipated severity and frequency of occurrence.
Risk Evaluation
108
Which component of a risk management plan?
Determined by ranking the identified risks on the degree of severity and frequency of occurrence.
Establishment of priorities for action
109
Which component of a risk management plan?
Identified control measures for each significant risk.
Risk-Control techniques
110
Which component of a risk management plan?
Ongoing process to monitor the risk control measures. Recommendations for plan revision will be based on the monitoring process.
Risk Management monitoring
111
What NFPA standard provides guidance on yearly physicals?
1582
112
Absorption rates increase _____ percent for every ______ degree rise in temperature.
400, 5
113
What areas have a high absorption rate?
groin, jaw, forehead, back
114
4 step method of instructing.
Preparation, presentation, application, evaluation.
115
What is a road map that guides the instructor, teacher, or company officer through a topic?
Lesson Plan
116
What is the act of showing how to do something or how something operates and is a basic means for teaching psychomotor skills?
Demonstration
117
NFPA 1403 reccomends an instructor to student ration of ____ to ____.
1, 5
118
______ are legal documents that govern activities at various levels of government.
Codes
119
What is a set of requirements that are similar to a standard, and these requirements are generally called prescriptive codes?
Model Code
120
Like standards, model codes are only enforceable when the _______ adopts them.
AHJ
121
What 2 model code organizations in America?
NFPA, ICC
122
What are the codes used by the department of defense called?
Unified Facilities Criteria
123
What refers to a document that a committee of experts has developed and agreed upon before publication?
Consensus Standard
124
Who develops and publishes the majority of the consensus standards concerning fire protection, electrical systems and life safety systems in the US?
NFPA
125
Who is an independent, not-for-profit product safety testing and certification organization?
Underwriters Labratory
126
UL has developed more than ____ standards for safety.
800
127
Who adopts and amends building codes to meet local requirements?
AHJ
128
What building type provides the highest level of protection from fire spread as well as collapse?
Type I
129
Reinforced concrete, precast concrete, and protected steel frames can be found in what building type?
Type I
130
What building type roof may be difficult to ventilate due to material and design?
Type I
131
What building type is composed of material that will not contribute to fire development or spread?
Type II
132
Mercantile, business, residential structures and older schools are typically what building type?
Type III
133
What building type is extremely stable and resistant to collapse due to the sheer mass of their structural members?
Type IV
134
What building type has exterior load bearing walls composed entirely of wood?
Type V
135
What building type includes the use of prefabricated wood truss system instead of solid floor joists?
Type V
136
Are manufactured homes required to conform to building codes?
No
137
What type of homes are required to conform to HUD standards?
Manufactured Homes
138
T/F: HUD standards are more stringent than building codes?
T
139
An _______ occupancy is any structure or compartment (room) that is used for the gathering of 50 or more persons.
Assembly
140
Occupancies in which people, with physical limitations due to health or age, are cared for or provided medical treatment are classified as group _____ by the _____.
1, ICC
141
Do local fire alarm systems transmit a signal outside of the property?
No
142
What type of fire alarm system is connected directly to the communications/dispatch system?
Remote Station
143
What type of alarm system is used to protect large commercial, industrial buildings, high rise and college campuses?
Proprietary
144
What class of water system is intended for firefighters trained in handling large landlines, typically 2 1/2 with a reducer to attach a 1 3/4.
Class I
145
What class of water system is designed for use by trained building occupants or firefighters. These are equipped with 1 1/2 hose stored in a hose rack system.
Class II
146
What class of water system is equipped with 1 1/2 hose in a rack system and is typically single jacket hose?
Class II
147
What class of water system combines class I and II and must allow both to be used simultaneously?
Class III
148
What type of smoke management system uses smoke control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to protect against fire spread?
Passive System
149
Fire stops around barrier penetrations, door gasket and stop seals describe what type of smoke management system?
passive system
150
What type of smoke management system uses mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier to prevent smoke from entering the high pressure side?
Pressurized Systems
151
What smoke control method is designed to limit the movement of smoke from one compartment to another?
Zoned-Smoke Control
152
What is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, gas, density and pressure?
Thermal Layering
153
What is defined as the space between the air intake and the exhaust outlet?
Flow Path
154
The interface between the hot gas layer and the cooler layer of air is referred to what?
Neutral Plane
155
Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient stage become _______ ________.
Ventilation Limited
156
What occurs when all exposed combustable surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to their ignition temp and ignite almost simultaneously?
Flashover
157
What is a condition where the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer?
rollover
158
A significant indicator if flashover is _____.
Rollover
159
How is rollover distinguished from flashover?
Rollover only involves the gases at the upper layer of the compartment.
160
Flashover represents a transition from the _____ stage to the _______ stage.
growth, fully developed
161
When a fire is in ventilation -limited decay, the introduction of new oxygen can trigger _______.
Flashover
162
Backdraft occurs in the ______ stage.
Decay
163
Fire spread results from _______ transferring from a burning object to other objects of lower temperatures.
Heat
164
Local alarm systems initiate an alarm signal only on the _________ where they are installed.
Premise
165
What type of alarm systems do not transmit an alarm signal to any other location?
Local
166
What type of alarm system is connected to a municipal alarm box?
Auxillary
167
What type of alarm system is connected directly to the communications/dispatch center?
Remote Station
168
What type of alarm system usually used a leased telephone line, not municipal box circuits?
Remote Station
169
What type of alarm system uses a radio signal on a dedicated fire and emergency frequency?
Remote Station
170
A noncoded fire alarm system may be used when covering how many buildings?
1
171
Is a coded or noncoded alarm system installed when occupancies span multiple buildings?
Coded
172
One remote station for a coded fire alarm may cover up to how many buildings?
5
173
What type of alarm system is used to protect large commercial buildings, high-rise, and groups of commonly owned buildings in a single location such as a college campus or industrial complex?
Proprietary
174
What type of alarm system has an employee who is trained in system operation and should constantly man the station?
Proprietary
175
What type of alarm system differs from a proprietary system by not having the receiving point on premises and the owner of the facility does not employ who the alarm goes to?
Central Station
176
What type of alarm system receives an alarm, calls fire/ems and also calls the building owner?
Central Station
177
What must an owner do if they have fire sprinklers, but the municipal water system pressure is too low to adequately provide to the system?
Install an additional water tank on the property
178
What may be installed in occupancies when it is impractical or impossible to maintain water storage for fire protection?
Stationary fire pumps
179
In a type ____ alarm system, the alarm operator must manually retransmit alarms received from the street boxes to the designated fire stations.
A
180
In a type ____ alarm system, alarms received from street boxes are automatically retransmitted to all fire stations within the jurisdiction.
B
181
Type ____ alarm systems are necessary in jurisdictions with a large call volume to prevent stations from being inundated with fire calls for which they are not assigned the initial response.
A
182
Standpipe systems are found in buildings that are greater than _____ stories.
4
183
Class I, II, or III Standpipe System
Intended for firefighting personnel trained in large handlines. Consist of valve controlled 2 1/2 outlets attached to the riser.
I
184
Class I, II, or III standpipe system
Designed for use by either trained building occupants or FD personnel. Equipped with 1 1/2 hose and nozzle stored on hose rack system.
II
185
What standpipe class typically uses single-jacket hose and equipped with lightweight, twist-type nozzle?
II
186
Class I, II or III standpipe system.
1 1/2 hose stations for use by trained building occupants and 2 1/2 connections for FD use.
III
187
What kind of smoke management system?
Smoke-control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to protect against fire spread. Examples include: fire stops around barrier penetrations, door gasket and drop seals.
Passive
188
What kind of smoke management system?
Use mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier such as a wall to prevent smoke from entering the high pressure side?
Pressurized
189
What kind of smoke control system method is designed to limit the movement of smoke from one compartment of a building to another?
Zoned Smoke Control
190
What kind of smoke control system method is in areas such as building atriums and highway tunnels and uses fresh air to get the environment to an acceptable level.
Dilution
191
What kind of smoke control system method uses mechanical ventilation along with the properties of smoke to collect it at its highest space?
Exhaust method
192
What kind of smoke control system method is used in large spaces where smoke migration from the fire zone is limited by opposing air flow using high velocity air?
Opposed Air Flow Method
193
Rapid fire development usually occurs during the _____ phase.
Growth
194
Unconfined fires draw air from all sides and the _______ of air cools the plume of hot gases, reducing flame length and vertical extension.
Entrainment
195
Fires in fuel packages in the middle of the room can entrain air from where?
All sides
196
Fires in fuel packages near walls can entrain air from where?
3 sides
197
Fires in fuel packages in corners can only entrain air from where?
2 sides
198
The area where sufficient air is available to feed the fire is defined as what?
combustion zone
199
A fire is in the growth stage until the fire's heat release rate has reached its ______
peak
200
When a fire cannot grow without the introduction of a new fuel source or new oxygen source, it has left the _______ stage and entered the __________ stage.
Growth, Fully Developed
201
What is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, gas density and pressure?
Thermal Layering
202
What is the space between the air intake and the exhaust outlet?
Flow Path
203
As the mass and energy of the hot gas layer increases, so does the _____
pressure
204
_______ causes the hot gas layer to spread downward and laterally through openings.
Higher Pressure
205
The interface between the hot gas layer and the cooler layer of air is referred to as what?
Neutral Plane
206
What exists at openings where hot gases exit and cooler air enters the compartment?
Neutral Plane
207
Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient stage become _______ ________.
Ventilation Limited
208
What decreases when a fire is ventilation-limited?
Heat release rate
209
In order for a ventilation-limited fire to grow, it needs a new supply of ______.
Oxygen
210
What refers to the rapid transition from growth stage or early decay stage to a ventilation-limited, fully developed stage?
Rapid Fire Development
211
What occurs when all exposed combustable surfaces and objects within a compartment have been heated to their ignition temperature and ignite simultaneously?
Flashover
212
During ______, the environment in the room changes from a two-layer condition, to a single mixed hot gas condition from ceiling to floor.
Flashover
213
_______ describes a condition where the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer.
Rollover
214
_________ is distinguished from ___________ because it involves only the fire gases at the top and not the other fuel packages within a compartment.
Rollover, Flashover
215
Transition in fire development, rapidity, compartment and pyrolysis of all exposed fuel surfaces are the 4 common elements of what?
Flashover
216
High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:
May indicate that the fire is in the early stages of development.
High
217
High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:
Could indicate that the compartment has not yet ventilated or that flashover is approaching.
Mid Level
218
High/MidLevel/Low Level neutral plane:
May indicate the fire is reaching backdraft conditions.
Low Level
219
What is an explosively rapid combustion of all the flammable gases?
Backdraft
220
Backdraft occurs in what stage?
decay
221
Fire spread results from _____ transferring from a burning object to other objects of lower temperatures.
Heat
222
The greater the ________ difference between objects, the more rapid the transfer rate.
Temperature
223
Outdoor fires are always considered ______ limited.
Fuel
224
Unless a compartment fire is in its incipient stage, the fire should be considered ________ limited.
Ventilation
225
_______ allows fires that have stopped growing to continue to grow.
Ventilation
226
Fire will always grow towards _______ openings as it seeks fresh air.
Ventilation
227
_________ ventilation occurs when a structural member fails, usually because of exposure to heat and introduces a new source of oxygen to the fire.
Unplanned
228
Wind speeds as low as ____ MPH can create wind-driven fire conditions.
10
229
What occurs when a mixture of unburned fuel gases and oxygen comes into contact with an ignition source?
Smoke Explosion
230
Cellulose type fuels are what class?
A
231
Flammable/Combustable liquids and gases are what class?
B
232
Energized electrical wiring, equipment and appliances are what class?
C
233
fuels, combustable metals, are what class?
D
234
deep fat fryers are what class?
K
235
The surface area and type of fuel involved influence compartment fires involving class _____ fires.
B
236
The total quantity of combustable contents of a building, space, or fire area is referred to as what?
Fuel Load
237
Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction describes what?
Convection
238
Physical flow or transfer of heat energy from one body to another through direct contact or intervening medium describes what?
Conduction
239
Are pre-incident surveys intended to locate code violations?
No
240
Under common law and statutory law, does the presence of an emergency constitute implied consent to enter a structure?
Yes
241
What is the first step when gathering information when assigned to inspect an occupancy?
Gather information
242
What is the single most important life safety item to be inspected when inspecting a building?
Means of egress
243
Hazard Classes:
Every Good Lieutenants Standard Operating Procedures Require Constant Maintenance
1. Explosives
2. Gases
3. Flammable Liquids
4. Flammable Solids
5. Oxidizers
6. Poisonous
7. Radioactive
8. Corrosive
9. Miscelaneous
244
What sprinkler system has piping that is constantly full of water?
Wet-Pipe System
245
What sprinklers system has piping that is filled with air?
Dry-Pipe System
246
Which sprinkler system is preferable where temperatures can freeze?
Dry-Pipe System
247
What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of closed sprinkler heads attached to a piping system that contains air under pressure.
Dry-Pipe
248
What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of closed sprinkler heads attached to a piping system that contains air under pressure and a secondary detection system. Both systems must operate before the extinguishing agent is released.
Preaction
249
What type of dry-sprinkler system consists of piping and open sprinklers and a fire detecting system is used to activate the water?
Deluge
250
When a fire is confined within a compartment, the walls, ceiling, floor and objects in the room absorb _______ heat from the fire.
Radiant
251
The only indication of potential for a _____ _______ is the presence of smoke, generally in an area away from the fire.
smoke explosion
252
What type of fuel includes the contents of the structure and structural members themselves.
Building
253
What is the most common type of fuel found in structures?
Class A or cellulose
254
A ____ _____ includes all furnishings, merchandise, interior finish, and structural components of the structure.
fuel load
255
_______ fires that go undetected for many hours will consume all the oxygen in a structure, creating the potential for backdraft.
Contents
256
In wood frame buildings, the structure itself is a ______ source.
fuel
257
combustable interior finishes, such as wood paneling, can be a significant factor influencing what?
fire spread
258
because of energy efficient home designs, structures tend to ______ fires for a longer period of time
contain
259
In modern fire environments, it is common to experience a ____ period prior to flashover.
decay
260
forcible entry is a form of ______.
ventilation
261
once fires become _____ ____, the amount of smoke forced out of structural gaps or openings is reduced or stopped.
ventilation limited
262
each new ventilation opening creates a new flow path to and from the fire, which is especially dangerous in a _____ ________ fire.
ventilation limited
263
a fire in a large compartment will normally develop _____ than one in a small compartment.
slower
264
What thermal property contains heat within the building which causes a localized increase in the temperature and fire growth?
insulation
265
what thermal property maintains temperature by slowly absorbing and releasing large amount of heat?
retention
266
legacy construction assemblies fail over a ____ area, while lightweight construction assemblies fail over a _____ area.
small, large
267
preheated wood structural components ______ a structure before direct fire involvement.
weaken
268
modern trusses are generally spaced every _____ inches.
24
269
unprotected engineered steel and wooden trusses can fail after ____ to _____ minutes exposure to fire.
5, 10
270
what temperature does steel start to weaken?
1000F
271
an arched or curved outline indicated what type of truss?
bowstring
272
what type of extinguishing system is used when rapid extinguishment is necessary but reignition is unlikely?
dry chemical systems
273
what is the most common type of dry chemical system?
local application
274
what type of system is installed in areas such as spray booths, where a heavy cloud of agent is needed to fill the entire space.
total flooding
275
what type of system is designed to be installed in commercial range hoods, plenums and ducts?
wet chemical systems
276
what type of system is well suited for cooking-oil related applications.
wet chemical systems
277
how does C02 extinguish a fire?
removes oxygen
278
total flooding C02 systems must have what prior to activation?
a warning system for occupants
279
halogenated agents are principally effective on what type of fires?
class B and C
280
Halon 1211 is commonly found where?
portable fire extinguishers
281
Halon 1301 is commonly found where?
fixed application systems
282
Halon systems are equipped with what to prevent accidental activation?
abort switch
283
_______ systems are used in locations where the application of water alone may not be effective.
foam
284
foam systems may be produced to deploy what type of foam?
AFFF and FFFP
285
what serves as the basis for safe and efficient scene management?
ICS
286
company officers must use _____ on any incident no matter how big or small?
ICS
287
what is necessary when an incident threatens to or involves more than one jurisdiction or agency?
unified command
288
what usually consists of appropriate actions for the initial phase of the incident?
IAP
289
a formal, written ____ will be required for long duration events.
IAP
290
what is a system that optimizes the utilization of all available resources, personnel, procedures and equipment.
CRM
291
_____ training helps to identify barriers and prevent them from impending an operation.
CRM
292
During an incident, what takes precedence over all other considerations?
Life safety
293
who requires that we use 2 in /2 out?
OSHA
294
what is the identification, assessment, analysis, control, avoidance and minimization or elimination of risk?
risk management
295
according to the NFPA, what is the upper survivability limit for humans?
212F
296
what process actually starts before an incident is reported and continues throughout the incident?
Size up
297
what is the lead/reflex time?
amount of time to request and obtain additional resources
298
_______ are things that are not known for certain, but based on known facts, are likely to happen.
probabilities
299
what zone is where resolving the problem is taking place?
hot
300
only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed in what zone?
hot
301
what is the area directly outside the hot zone, where personnel are directly supporting the work being performed?
warm
302
what zone should include the command post and rehab?
cold
303
_______ ________ are the overall plans for controlling an incident.
strategic goals
304
what are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved?
strategic goals
305
______ _____ are specific statements of measurable outcomes.
tactical objectives
306
limiting spread of the problem to the area or property of origin by taking action to save adjacent structures describes what?
exposure control
307
_____ evidence is composed of facts to which a person can attest without further support.
direct
308
what refers to evidence that was damaged, altered, lost, or destroyed by someone who has the responsibility to preserve it?
spoliation
309
when responding to an emergency, the fire department has a right to enter, this is called what?
right of entry
310
once the FD releases the property back to the homeowner, can they enter the scene on their own without homeowner approval?
no
311
what focuses on the on scene activities of the responders without placing blame or finding fault?
postincident analysis
312
what is a meeting that generally involves all participating units and agencies after an incident?
after action review
313
