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Flight Study > IFR > Flashcards

IFR Flashcards

1
Q

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

A

Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.

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2
Q

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

A

6 months

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3
Q

Which additional IFR experience allows you to meet the recent IFR experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an helicopter under IFR?Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is:1. three hours with holding, intercepting and 2. two instrument approaches in a helicopter. tracking courses in an approved flight simulator.

A

Four instrument approaches in a helicopter, or an approved flight simulator or training device.

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4
Q

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

A

15,000 feet.

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5
Q

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read?

A

within 6° of the selected radial.

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6
Q

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM’s?

A

FAA AFSS/FSS

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7
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been vilolated?

A

When priority has been given.

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8
Q

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by

A

removal of the identification feature.

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9
Q

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.’’ This phrase means that

A

you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

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10
Q

What is the definition of MEA?

A

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

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11
Q

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

A

When assigned a VFR on Top clearance.

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12
Q

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

A

DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches.

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13
Q

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.

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14
Q

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A

700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

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15
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)

A

5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

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16
Q

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

A

IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart

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17
Q

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

A

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

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18
Q

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

A

Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.

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19
Q

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

A

IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

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20
Q

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

A

Middle compass locator

21
Q

Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?

A

200 feet

22
Q

What substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A

LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.

23
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

A

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.

24
Q

During a GPS approach the approach should sequence from ARMED to APPROACH at what point?

A

Two miles prior to FAWP.

25
Q

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approachthe pilot should do what?

A

Select another type of navigation and approach system.

26
Q

How often should data be transmitted for ADSB equipped aircraft?

A

Every 1 sec in flight for position and velocity.

27
Q

Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

Ice pellets

28
Q

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

Separation from all aircraft.

29
Q

What is the significance of an ATC clearance that reads …CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…?

A

The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.

30
Q

How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en-route and IFR approaches?

A

Flight manual supplement

31
Q

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches any required alternate airport must have what?

A

An approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

32
Q

A RNP value of .3 is required for?

A

Approach segments

33
Q

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates what?

A

The pilot must advise the ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.

34
Q

What actions if any are required to start the Missed Approach (GPS Approach)?

A

The missed approach must be initiated by the pilot at the MAP.

35
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on 180 deg plus or minus 4 deg, the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

36
Q

An abbreviated departure clearance …CLEARED AS FILED… will always contain …..(non-Radar)

A

one or more fixes, as necessary to identify the initial route.

37
Q

Authorization for offshore approaches (ARA, HEDA, OSAP) are derived from ?

A

AC 90-80B

38
Q

In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?

A

Airport/Facility Directory

39
Q

Must a pilot verify RAIM availability to initiate a GPS approach?

A

Yes

40
Q

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

A

Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 ft of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

41
Q

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

A

A procedure turn is not authorized.

42
Q

Assume this clearance is received: CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT. When would the pilot be expected to commence the side step maneuver?

A

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

43
Q

Assuming the maximum altitude loss is zero if the auto-pilot fails then what is the lowest allowed coupled operation on an ILS approach

A

Does not apply to helicopters

44
Q

An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR unless the pilot?

A

Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved given by an approved FAA examiner.

45
Q

In the 48 contigous states excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above?

A

10,000 ft

46
Q

What is a DPA?

A

Decision Point Altitude: Point at 500 ft MSL between FAP and not less then 2 miles from approach target. To descend after DPA to 200 ft obstacles must be at least 0.5 miles from approach course.

47
Q

Is a weather report required for a HEDA?

A

No

48
Q

What needs to be operational to descend below 700 ft MSL in a HEDA?

A
  • Radar Altimeter

* Airborne Radar

49
Q

HEDA: What altitude (MSL or Rad Alt) defines MDA?

A

Rad Alt

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