Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FEO Promotional Exam 2022 > IFD Hydraulics Manual COPY > Flashcards

IFD Hydraulics Manual COPY Flashcards

1
Q

_____, at normal temperatures, exists in large quantities, which makes it the most economical extinguishing agent available.

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The physical properties of ____ that makes it an excellent extinguishing agent are the latent heat of fusion of ice, the specific heat of water, the latent heat of vaporization and the expansion rate of ____ when converted to steam.

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ______ is the quantity of heat absorbed by water when it changes from a solid to a liquid.

A

Latent Heat of Fusion of Ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The melting of one pound of ice at 32F into water at 32F will absorb ______.

A

143.4 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______ of water is a measure of the heat absorbing capacity of a substance.

A

Specific Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1F

A

One BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many BTU will be absorbed by raising the temperature of 1 pound of water at 32F to 212F?

A

180 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many BTU would be absorbed if 5 pounds of ice at 32F were raised to a temperature of 85F?

A

982 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The _______ is the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from a liquid to a vapor.

A

Latent Heat of Vaporization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When one pound of water is changed from a liquid at 212F to a vapor at 212F it will absorb _____.

A

970 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If 10 lbs of water at 212F were heated sufficiently to change to vapor at 212F, how many BTU would be absorbed?

A

9,700 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many BTU would be absorbed if 5lbs of water at 85F were converted to steam at 212F?

A

5,485 BTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When water, at 212F, is converted to steam, it will expand approximately _____ times its original volume.

A

1700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the temperature of the water is being discharged into is 500F, the expansion ration is approximately ____ times.

A

2400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many gallons of water in a cubic foot?

A

7.5 gallons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If 160 gallons of water at 212°F absorbs enough heat to be converted to steam at 212°F, how many cu. ft. Of area would it occupy?

A

36,261 Cu. ft. of steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____ is defined as a branch of science that deals with the practical applications of water or other liquid in motion.

A

Hydraulics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Water, for all practical purposes, is considered to be ______.

A

incompressible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For ordinary calculations, the weight of water is ____ per cubic foot.

A

62.4 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One gallon of water weighs _____.

A

8.33 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The force exerted against the inside of a hose, pipe or container, by a liquid, with or without flow, is called _____.

A

Pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would be the pressure measured at the bottom of a container filled with water that measured one (1) cubic foot?

A

0.433 PSI = The pressure exerted by a column of water 1’ high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

he height 1 PSI of pressure will raise a column of water.

A

2.31 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_____ is the pressure the atmosphere exerts on the earth.

A

Atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At sea level, atmospheric pressure is ______.

A

14.7 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For every 1000 foot rise in elevation, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately _____.

A

0.5 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The pressure of 1 PSI will raise a column of mercury ____

A

2.04 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

______ is what allows a pump to draft water.

A

Atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

______ refers to the height of a water supply above where the water is to be discharged.

A

Head pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The water level in an elevated storage tank is 100’ above the 1-1/2” opening on a particular hydrant in a water system. What would be the head pressure at the hydrant opening?

A

43.3 PSI head pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The ____ in a water system is the pressure without flow.

A

Static pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

______ can be defined as stored potential energy that is available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.

A

Static pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The pressure that is found in a water system before a hydrant is opened is considered to be the _____ on the system.

A

Static Pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

______ is the part of the total pressure that is not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fire hose, fittings, and adapters.

A

Residual pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

_____ is the forward pressure at a discharge opening, nozzle or hydrant, indicated by a pitot tube and gauge.

A

Flow pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nozzle reaction of a smooth bore nozzle. (formula)

A

Nozzle Reaction = Diameter squared x Nozzle Pressure x 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the nozzle reaction using a 2” tip on a ladder pipe with 71 PSI nozzle pressure?

A

426lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nozzle reaction of a fog nozzle (formula)

A

Nozzle Reaction = 0.0505. Q √ NP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the nozzle reaction of a 1000 gpm fog nozzle at 100 psi nozzle pressure on a ladder pipe?

A

NR = 505 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter:

A

Pi, 3.14159.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Formulas to determine the area of a circle:

A 
Area = Pi x R squared. 
Area = Diameter squared x .7854
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What would be the area of a circle 6 1/2’ in diameter?

A

A= 33.17 sq.ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Circumference =

A

Pi x diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the circumference of a cylinder that has a diameter of 10’?

A

Circumference = 31.416’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the formulas to find the volume of a cylinder?

A 
Volume = diameter squared x 0.7854 x height
volume = Pi x radius squared x height.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What would be the volume of an oil storage tank that is 30’ in diameter and 20’ in height?

A

Volume = 14,137.2 cu. ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The volume of a sphere can be determined by the formula:

A

volume = 1/6 Pi x diameter cubed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What would be the volume of a sphere that measures 8’ in diameter?

A

Volume = 268.08 Cubic Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The ____ of a material is the condition which determines whether it will transfer heat to or from other materials.

A

temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Centigrade degree is _____ the difference between the temperature of melting ice and boiling water at 1 atmospheric pressure.

A

1/100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fahrenheit degree is ____ the difference between the temperature of melting ice and boiling water at 1 atmospheric pressure.

A

1/180.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Convert 75°F to Celsius.

A

5/9 (temp F - 32 deg.)

Temp. Celsius = 23.880

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Convert 75° C to Fahrenheit.

A

(9/5 x temp. C) + 32 deg.

Temp. Fahrenheit = 167°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

______ is defined as, a divisor of a quantity that when squared gives the quantity.

A

Square root.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the square root of 71?

A

8.426

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The foundation for the friction loss equations is ____.

A

Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

___ is the quantity expressed in hundreths, or more commonly, gallons per minute flowing divided by 100.

A

Q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Friction loss for a 3/4 booster line:

A

FL per 100’ = 1100 Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Friction loss for a 1” booster line.

A

FL per 100’ = 150 Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Friction loss for a 1-3/4 hose with 1 1/2 couplings.

A

FL per 100’ = 11 Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Friction loss for a 3” hose with 2 1/2” couplings.

A

FL per 100’ = 0.8Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Friction loss for 5” hose.

A

FL per 100’ = 0.06Q squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The ____ calculation per 100’ will be rounded off to the nearest whole number.

A

friction loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

To be able to figure a practice working engine pressure and be able to accurately pump, using these gauges, all friction loss calculations will be rounded off to the nearest _____.

A

5lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

200’ of 1-3/4” pre-connect with a 1-1/2” fog nozzle. The desired flow is 125 GPM at 100 PSI nozzle pressure. Determine the friction loss per 100’ hose and the proper engine pressure for this hose layout.

A 
FL = 17 (rounded down)
EP = 135
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

250’ of 3” hose, supplying 250 GPM flowing a 2-1/2” fog nozzle at 100 PSI. Determine the friction loss per 100’ of hose and the proper engine pressure for the layout.

A 
FL = 15 (rounded up) 5 PSI/ 100 ft
EP = 115
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Two 3” hose lines supplying a Multiversal with a 1-1/2” straight bore tip flowing 500 GPM; each line is 400’ in length. The Siamese pressure is 85 PSI. Determine the friction loss per 100’ of 3” hose and the engine pressure for this layout.

A 
FL = 20
EP = 105
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

400’ of 3” hose supplying two 200’ 1-3/4” attack lines. Each attack line is discharging 125 GPM from an Akron Turbo-Jet Nozzle with 100 PSI nozzle pressure. What is the wye pressure and the EP?

A

Wye pressure = 135

EP = 155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

900’ of 5” hose supplying 750 GPM to a manifold at a manifold pressure of 140 PSI. Determine the friction loss per 100’ of hose and the proper engine pressure for the layout.

A 
FL = 3 psi per 100' of 5" hose.
EP = 165
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The Elkhart _____ nozzle provides for adjustable gallon flows of 10, 20, and 30 GPM at 100 PSI nozzle pressure irrespective of stream pattern setting.

A

Select-o-flow (SOF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The ______ nozzle is similar to the Elkhart SOF except that its flow settings are 13, 23, and 30 gpm.

A

Akron Turbojet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The Elkhart _____ nozzle is rated at 30 gpm at 100 PSI nozzle pressure.

A

Select-o-matic (SOM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The Elkhart select-o-stream (sos), the Akron PDQ and the Akron Marauder nozzles provide a flow of ____ at 100 psi nozzle pressure at narrow fog pattern.

A

23 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The required nozzle pressure for IFD reel line nozzles is ____.

A

100 PSI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The required engine pressure for reel line nozzles will be ____.

A

180 PSI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The ____, used on reel lines, reacts automatically to water flow and delivers that water flow efficiently throughout the specified flow range.

A

1” Elkhart SM-3F nozzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The 1” Marauder is a ____.

A

constant gallon nozzle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The 1” Akron Turbojet is a _____.

A

constant gallon rate nozzle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The _____ is the predominate hand line fog nozzles in the Irving Fire Department today with just a few exceptions.

A

Akron Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The ________ is one of the most versatile and easy-to-use nozzles in today’s fire service.

A

Akron Assault Nozzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Engine Pressure = _______. (formula)

A

Friction Loss in hose + Nozzle Pressure + Elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The FEO must be aware that the _____ will fluctuate as a result of the nozzle operator using the shut-ff to control the amount of water needed.

A

pump discharge pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Once the desired pressure is obtained for a particular lay, the ______ must be set.

A

relief valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

There can be as much as ____ difference in the main pump pressure gauge and the gauge for the discharge that is being used.

A

50 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The rule to remember is that _____ do exactly as calculated with standard hydraulics.

A

automatic nozzles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The _____ is the predominate hand line fog nozzles in the IFD today with just a few exceptions.

A

Akron Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

IFD engines carry a 2 1/2” straight bore nozzle for use on ____ hand lines.

A

2 1/2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The 2 1/2” straight bore nozzle is equipped with a removable _____ tip.

A

1 1/4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

It should be noted that the nozzle pressure required for ___ nozzles will increase the siamese pressure requirements.

A

fog

90
Q

The ____ is capable of producing master streams of 400 gpm to 1000 gpm

A

stinger portable monitor

91
Q

The Stinger Portable monitor should be secured to a stationary object with the 10’ of safety chain and the 5” LDH straight in-line with the inlet a minimum of ____.

A

10 ft.

92
Q

In the event the situation is a such that the stinger cannot be secured with the safety chain, or by extending its length, the 5” LDH must be straight in-line with the inlet a minimum of ____.

A

20 ft.

93
Q

The vertical sweep of the stinger stream is 35 degrees to 80 degrees above horizontal, with the ______ in place.

A

Safety Stop

94
Q

The horizontal sweep of the stream must be limited to ___ degrees left or right of straight ahead with the front support leg on the base pointing at the middle of the potential fire target.

A

45

95
Q

Do not under any circumstance, operate the stinger portable monitor above ____. (PSI)

A

150 PSI

96
Q

2 1/2 Bresnan distribution nozzle is a celar nozzle that operates at a nozzle pressure of _____.

A

50 psi.

97
Q

1 1/2” piercing applicator nozzle requires ____ nozzle pressure and discharges ____.

A

100 psi, 95 gpm.

98
Q

Size and intensity of the fire determines the ____ of the stream needed.

A

size

99
Q

_____ entrain much air and blow heat, smoke, and fire through a building or across other firefighters if used improperly.

A

Fog

100
Q

Shut down of the deck-gun must be coordinated with the _____ of personnel.

A

entry

101
Q

The presence and location of ____ should be an ever present consideration when operating the deck gun or any other fire stream.

A

people

102
Q

When the ____ is shut down, it must always be done slowly to prevent rupture of water main, hose, or pump parts.

A

deck gun

103
Q

With a permanent water supply, the deck gun is capable of discharging ____.

A

1000 gpm.

104
Q

The deck gun is capable of discharging up to 1000 gpm of ____ depending on the foam concentrate and the maximum capabilities of the proportioning system.

A

class A foam.

105
Q

If a ____ aerial operator is not readily available, the aerial ladder or elevating platform should not be placed into operation.

A

qualified.

106
Q

A qualified aerial operator must remain at the ______ during any aerial operations.

A

turntable control station

107
Q

Only _____ will be allowed on the aerial ladder when used as a water tower.

A

one firefighter

108
Q

When using an engine to supply the aerial waterway, the engine should be located as close as possible to the waterway intake and no further than ____ away from the intake.

A

100 ft.

109
Q

The primary nozzle utilized and connected to the aerial monitor is a _____ connected to a stream straighter.

A

2” solid bore tip

110
Q

The crimson 103’ aerial is a four section ladder that will extend and elevate to a working height of ____ above ground.

A

103’

111
Q

Nozzle selection should be limited to the 2 1/4 solid bore tip or the fog nozzle when using the ____ to supply the waterway. (crimson 103’ aerial)

A

rear waterway

112
Q

The 105’ aerial is a four section ladder that will extend and elevate to a working height of ____ above ground.

A

105’

113
Q

The crimson aerial ladder is the only aerial capable of operating at -____ degrees. All other aerials are -5 degrees.

A

-10 degrees.

114
Q

103’ crimson aerial has a ____ gpm aerial monitor.

A

1250

115
Q

The 105’ pierce aerial has a ____ aerial monitor.

A

1250

116
Q

Water tower operations should not exceed ____ gpm.

A

1000

117
Q

The 100’ aerial platform is a 3 section ladder that has a 22 square foot basket attached to the tip. This aerial is equipped with ____ master stream monitors.

A

2

118
Q

Which monitor on the 100’ pierce aerial is controlled manually?

A

The solid bore monitor.

119
Q

The 100’ pierce arial is equipped with a waterous ___ gpm onboard pump.

A

2000

120
Q

The tractor drawn pierce 100’ aerial is equipped with a _____ monitor.

A

Akron 2000 GPM.

121
Q

On the 105” pierce arial, Allow for ___ pounds of friction loss in the four section telescopic waterway and monitor at full extension.

A

90

122
Q

Foam concentrates are usually available in ____ strengths.

A

6%, 3%, and 1%.

123
Q

_____ is the proper ratio of water to foam concentrate as It leaves the educator or proportioning system.

A

Foam solution.

124
Q

_____ is the final product as it will be applied to the hazardous situation.

A

Finished foam.

125
Q

The _______ determines the quantity of finished foam that will be produced in relation to the quantity of foam solution used to generate the foam.

A

expansion ratio.

126
Q

Foam manufacturers recommend an expansion ratio of ______.

A

8:1 to 11:1.

127
Q

Conventional nozzles will usually give an expansion ratio of _____.

A

3-4:1

128
Q

_____ is obtained at 10 degree to 15 degree fog and maximum expansion will occur with these fog settings.

A

Maximum air entrainment

129
Q

Air aspirating foam nozzles and air aspirating nozzle attachments are specifically designed to draw large amounts of air into the nozzle by ______.

A

venturi action.

130
Q

Air aspirating foam nozzles and air aspirating nozzle attachments will properly mix the foam solution with the air production expansion ratios of ____ and higher.

A

10:1

131
Q

The _____ is a system whereby a foam concentrate is introduced into the pump allowing foam capabilities from any discharge outlet.

A

Around-the-pump proportioning system

132
Q

When using the ______ the pumping capacity is limited to the maximum capabilities of the proportioning system.

A

around the pump proportioner.

133
Q

The proper operation of all around the pump proportioning systems a pump intake pressure of less than ____ to an intake vacuum of less than ____ of Hg must be maintained while discharging foam solution.

A

10, 10

134
Q

The ______ can generally discharge from 20 gpm to 400 gpm of foam solution.

A

Around-the-pump proportioner

135
Q

The Eductors used by the IFD are called ____.

A

In-line.

136
Q

____ are designed for a specific volume or water at a specific inlet pressure.

A

Eductors.

137
Q

The ____ educators are 60 gpm and 95 gpm models.

A

1 1/2

138
Q

Eductors will lose approximately ___ of the inlet pressure in creating the vacuum in the eductor leaving ____ of the inlet pressure to compensate for friction loss in the supply hose, nozzle pressure, and any elevation.

A

30%, 70%

139
Q

For all eductors used by the IFD, the recommended inlet pressure is ___.

A

170 psi.

140
Q

If the back pressure equals or exceeds ___ of the inlet pressure, the eductor will stop working.

A

70%

141
Q

All eductors have an ______ that can be accurately set for the percentage of concentrate being used.

A

infinite setting metering valve

142
Q

The settings for the eductor metering valve will vary from one manufacturer to another, but will generally be in the range of ____

A

0% to 6%.

143
Q

The ____ used with an eductor is extremely important.

A

nozzle.

144
Q

When using a _____, the GPM output must be matched to the GPM output of the particular eductor.

A

conventional nozzle.

145
Q

The base purpose of the ____ is to allow the Fire Department to place into operation, quickly and conveniently, effective firefighting streams on the upper floors of tall buildings or in large area buildings.

A

standpipe

146
Q

The FDC to the standpipe must be considered an _____ water supply.

A

auxiliary

147
Q

Direct connections to city water mains and fire pumps with auxiliary power usually are _______ for all firefighting streams.

A

sufficient

148
Q

_____ lines should be laid to the standpipe siamese by one of the first two arriving engines with a 5” supply line from a fire hydrant.

A

2, 3” lines

149
Q

_____ will be connected to the engine opposite the pump panel in the event a hose should burst or a coupling should come loose.

A

Standpipe supply lines

150
Q

Due to the high pressures required to supply standpipe systems, all personnel should be kept back ____ from the supply lines.

A

50 ft.

151
Q

The ____ must be set when supplying standpipes.

A

relief valve

152
Q

On average, ____% of all fires in sprinklered buildings are either extinguished or held in check by a sprinkler.

A

96

153
Q

The flow per sprinkler head can be roughly calculated using the formula:

A

1/2P +15 = GPM

154
Q

After a hydrant connection is made and necessary valves are opened, slowly increase the engine pressure to provide ____ to the siamese and add 5 PSI for each fire floor above the first. (Automatic sprinkler systems)

A

150 PSI

155
Q

______ utilize one large diameter riser for both systems.

A

Combined automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems.

156
Q

Since the required nozzle pressure for hose lines is greater than the pressure needed for sprinkler heads, engine pressure determination should be used as _____.

A

Standpipes.

157
Q

The ____ is nothing more than increasing the number of 2 1/2 hose connections that can be used to supply water from one fire hydrant.

A

tandem hook up.

158
Q

The ______ should be used as an emergency method, and not as a primary method, to get water to the seat of the fire quickly and efficiently.

A

tandem hook up

159
Q

A minimal drop in hydrant flow pressure, as additional lines are placed in service, indicates ___ supply form the hydrant.

A

good

160
Q

The second engine, which is to be set in tandem with the first engine, connects the ____ to the unused intake valve of the first engine in the same manner as if laying to a fire hydrant.

A

25’ or 50’ 5” hose.

161
Q

When pumping in relay, the engine that is the “relay” pumper will pump _____ residual pressure.

A

friction loss + 20lbs.

162
Q

The pressure on the intake must not exceed _____.

A

175 lbs.

163
Q

Newer engines have a relief valve located on the intake side of the pump that is set to open at ____

A

175 PSI.

164
Q

The limiting factor for the maximum GPM that can be delivered when using different size hose will be the ______ in the relay.

A

smallest hose

165
Q

The amount of water available at a given _____ is related to its contained capacity, velocity flow, friction loss, and carrying capacity, which are determined by some function of the diameter of the main.

A

hydrant

166
Q

Percent decrease of static pressure of 0-10% indicates:

A

3 times amount being delivered

167
Q

Percent decrease of static pressure of 11-15% indicates:

A

2 times amount being delivered

168
Q

Percent decrease of static pressure of 16-25% indicates:

A

same amount as water being delivered

169
Q

Percent decrease of static pressure of 25%+ indicates:

A

more water available but not as much as is being delivered.

170
Q

When an engine is connected to a hydrant and there is no water flowing, take the ___ reading on the intake gauge.

A

static pressure

171
Q

When water is flowing and discharge pressures on the engine are set, take the ______ reading on the intake gauge.

A

residual pressure

172
Q

______ are not capable of pumping air, therefore they will not prime themselves and require some type of external priming device.

A

Centrifugal pumps

173
Q

______: The working part of a centrifugal pump; when rotating, imparts energy to the water.

A

Impeller

174
Q

When variations in capacity and pressure are required beyond that which can be conveniently obtained from a single impeller, then ______ pumps are used.

A

multi-stage series/parallel

175
Q

In ____ pumps, there are two swing clapper valves in the intake passage of the second stage.

A

two stage

176
Q

In 2 stage pumps, the valves when open when pumping in ____.

A

volume

177
Q

In 2 stage pumps, the valves are closed by the first stage when pumping in _____

A

pressure.

178
Q

_____: an automatic valve; activated by the relief valve control that maintains the desired pump pressure when discharge valves or nozzles are closed.

A

Relief valve

179
Q

______: a hand adjustment valve, when set to the desire pressure, will control the relief valve to maintain the working pressure.

A

Relief valve control

180
Q

_____: A pump is used to prime the main fire pump. Priming removes the air from the main pump and suction hose, thus creating a vacuum.

A

Priming pump

181
Q

______: a valve located in the priming line between the priming pump and the main pump when open, allows air to be removed from the main pump by the priming pump.

A

Priming valve

182
Q

The ______ is connected to the suction side of the pump indicated positive pressure when pumping from a hydrant or vacuum when pumping from draft.

A

Intake gauge.

183
Q

The ______ is graduated to read pressure in PSI and is connected to the pump discharge manifold, indicating the pump discharge pressure.

A

pump pressure gauge.

184
Q

______: this pressure gauge is connected to the discharge piping for the particular discharge. This gauge will give the most accurate pressure reading when pumping to various hose layouts.

A

Discharge pressure gauge.

185
Q

A _____ is a gauge that is constructed to read PSI or vacuum.

A

compound gauge.

186
Q

When a pump is being supplied by a positive pressure, hydrant, or supply line, the actual pressure being produced by the pump is referred to as _______.

A

net pump discharge pressure.

187
Q

Operating a pump at excessive speed or too high suction lift, or restricting the intake causes the pressure on the liquid to fall below its vapor pressure and produces a condition called _____.

A

Cavitation

188
Q

Reducing the pump speed or improving suction or intake conditions will usually eliminate ______.

A

cavitation

189
Q

When in pressure mode, the pump will deliver ___ capacity at a net pump pressure 250 PSI.

A

50%

190
Q

From the standpoint of safety to firefighter and equipment, the change over from pressure to volume or volume to pressure should not take place. at net pump pressure of more than _____

A

50 PSI.

191
Q

_____ water with a centrifugal pump requires the use of a gauge that will register vacuum in inches of mercury.

A

Drafting

192
Q

Mercury is _____ times the weight of water, therefore, using mercury as a standard, it is necessary to know the pressure exerted by 1 inch mercery PSI.

A

13.61

193
Q

One inch mercury vacuum will lift water _____

A

1.34 ft.

194
Q

NFPA requires that a priming device be capable of attaining a maximum vacuum of at least ____.

A

22” Hg

195
Q

For the two-stage pumps, the experienced pump operator will pump in the range that gives the desired flow and pressure at the _______

A

lowest engine RPM.

196
Q

When the pump is not discharging water for a long period of time (______ minutes), the pump should be disengaged or fresh water allowed to enter the pump to keep it from overheating.

A

3-5 minutes.

197
Q

Transfer valve should always be in the ____ unless the pumping requirements dictate otherwise.

A

pressure

198
Q

If the priming pump does not discharge water in ____ seconds (45 seconds on a 1500 gpm pump) do not continue to run.

A

30

199
Q

__________ in texas is, Rated capacity at 150 pounds net engine pressure for two hours; 70% of rated capacity at 200 pounds net engine pressure for one half hour; and 50% of rated capacity at 250 pounds for one half hour.

A

The standard fire engine acceptance test.

200
Q

__________ in Texas is: A test conducted under the same conditions that are required for an acceptance test, except that the time for each test is reduced as follows: 100 Percent rated capacity for 20 minutes, 70 percent rated capacity for 10 minutes, and 50 percent rated capacity for 10 minutes. The engine oil should be checked before the test, the engine temperature observed during the test, and the oil level checked after the test.

A

The standard fire engine service test

201
Q

The _______ of a pump can be determined by multiplying its related pressure by its rated capacity in gallons.

A

theoretical pounds/gallons

202
Q

Few innovations introduced to the IFD have been accepted as readily as the __________.

A

5” hose program.

203
Q

The 1 1/2” hose has approximately ______ times the friction loss of a 5” hose at the same GPM flow.

A

32

204
Q

The GPM flow of 5” hose is _____ times that of 2 1/2 hose at the same friction loss.

A

6.21

205
Q

The ________ is to be used in those situations where the company officer has reason, before arrival, to believe that a line will be needed.

A

straight lay

206
Q

Engine drops 5” hose off at the hydrant and drives to the fire.

A

Forward lay

207
Q

Engine drops hose at the fire and drives to the hydrant.

A

Reverse lay.

208
Q

Experience has shown the ______ lay is the less attractive option now than in the past.

A

Reverse

209
Q

Most ____ are carried in the rear compartment on the engine.

A

manifolds

210
Q

The manifold has a built in relief valve set to function at _____

A

160 PSI.

211
Q

One of the greatest problems likely to be encounter with _____ operations is the problem of driving over the hose.

A

LDH operations

212
Q

Available information indicates that ____ is not likely to rupture severely enough to seriously deplete the water flow.

A

5” hose

213
Q

Chiefs cars and other low clearance shall, under no circumstances, attempt to _____

A

drive over 5” hose.

214
Q

A company laying a ____ will give specific information on the radio as to where the line is being laid and what intersections will be blocked.

A

5” line

215
Q

The lightweight, all-synthetic, ____ is designed specifically for use as a supply line of “above ground main” to get the water from the hydrant to the fire scene.

A

LDH

216
Q

Pressures above ____ should not be pumped into the 5” hose.

A

150 PSI

217
Q

When sufficient lines have been attached to the manifold to produce a ____, 3 PSI of friction loss should be allocated per 100’ of 5” hose.

A

750 gpm

218
Q

When sufficient lines have been attached to the manifold to produce ____ gpm flow, 5 PSI of friction loss per 100’ should be allocated.

A

1000 GPM

219
Q

____: The most serious problem associated with LDH, may cause catastrophic failure.

A

Water Hammer

220
Q

Fire department intake valves should be set at _____.

A

100 PSI***

this is wrong, but its in the hydraulics manual

221
Q

______ should be tested annually and after any repairs or any time there is a reason to suspect its inability to perform as designed.

A

5” LDH

222
Q

____ should be tested in stretches no longer than 300’ at 200 PSI for 5 minutes.

A

LDH

FEO Promotional Exam 2022 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions