Building Construction Related to the Fire Service COPY Flashcards

1
Q

The useful life span of a building can range from _____ or more.

A

25-100 years

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2
Q

_____: include not only the age of the building but also fire protection systems, occupancy type, fuel load, type and contraction, configurations, and the buildings access and exposures.

A

building variables

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3
Q

The age of a building is not in itself a hazard, but age is often an indication of _____.

A

Potential hazards.

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4
Q

An automatic fire protection system, especially an automatic sprinkler system is the _____.

A

first line of defense in any building.

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5
Q

The ____ of a building often affects the ways in which building components behave under fire conditions.

A

occupancy

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6
Q

Over time, many buildings undergo one of several changes in ____.

A

occupancy

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7
Q

Changes in ___ frequently result in a significant difference in the amount and type of combustible materials in a building.

A

occupancy

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8
Q

Type I construction:

A

Fire resistive

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9
Q

Type II construction:

A

Protected noncombustible or noncombustible

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10
Q

Type III construction:

A

Exterior protected.

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11
Q

Type IV construction:

A

Heavy Timber

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12
Q

Type V construction:

A

Wood Frame

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13
Q

The ____ of a building refers to its general shape or layout.

A

configuration

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14
Q

_____ is a primary factor for fire department operations.

A

access

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15
Q

NFPA defines a building as an ____ when the heat from an external fire might cause ignition of or damage to the exposed building

A

exposure

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16
Q

_____ occurred when fire communicated from building to building.

A

Conflagrations

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17
Q

The problem of _____ remains significant, especially in older urban environments with closely spaced combustible construction.

A

communication of fire

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18
Q

Communication of fire from building to building occurs by _______

A

convection and/or radiation.

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19
Q

_____ is the transfer of heat by the movement of liquids or gases, usually in an upward direction.

A

Convection.

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20
Q

Horizontal communication of fire is mainly due to _______.

A

Thermal radiation.

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21
Q

____ is the transfer of heat energy through space by electromagnetic waves.

A

Thermal radiation.

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22
Q

Fire spread is often the result of _____.

A

radiant heat.

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23
Q

In engineering, _____ is said to occur when a structure or part is no longer capable of performing its required function in a satisfactory manner.

A

failure

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24
Q

To the firefighter, building failure usually means ____.

A

structural collapse.

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25
Q

The collapse of a building under fire conditions is a result of the loss of a buildings _____.

A

structural integrity.

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26
Q

The term ____ refers to a failure to provide a level of fire safety appropriate to the ultimate use of the building.

A

design deficiencies

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27
Q

A ____ is a body of law that determines the minimum standards that buildings must meet in the interest of community safety and health.

A

building code

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28
Q

Manual fire alarm stations must not be more than ___ ft and not less than ___ ft above the floor level so they can be reached from a wheelchair.

A

4.5 and 3.5

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29
Q

An ____ is a protected area where a person can remain temporarily until someone else provides assistance or instructions.

A

area of refuge.

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30
Q

______ - group of people, usually 5 to 7, with experience in fire prevention, building construction, and/or code enforcement legally constituted to arbitrate differences of opinion between fire inspectors and building officials, property owners, occupants, or builders.

A

board of appeals.

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31
Q

Over the course of their useful lives, buildings often undergo various ____.

A

renovations

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32
Q

Building departments require that _____ be designed by structural engineers and performed by licensed contractors.

A

structural modifications.

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33
Q

It should be noted that the role of the fire inspector is to ____ system tests, not actually perform the tests.

A

witness

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34
Q

_____ is a valuable tool in accomplishing control of emergencies in individual buildings.

A

pre incident planning.

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35
Q

_____ include information regarding occupancy, industrial process, hazardous materials, fire protection systems, building access, and utilities.

A

Preincident plans.

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36
Q

_______ are another means of obtaining analyzing, and using data based on locations.

A

Geographic information systems (GIS)

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37
Q

____ allows a large project to be divided into smaller areas or sector.

A

GIS

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38
Q

Having current ____ ensures accuracy and familiarity with individual sites.

A

pre incident plans

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39
Q

All building codes classify buildings by _____

A

construction type

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40
Q

The classification of buildings is based on two attributes of building construction which are:

A

fire resistance and combustibility.

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41
Q

_____ determines the likelihood of structural collapse under fire conditions.

A

Fire resistance

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42
Q

_____ is a function of the properties of all materials used, including combustibility, thermal conductivity, chemical composition, density, and dimensions.

A

Fire resistance

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43
Q

_____ is the ability of a structural assembly to maintain its load-bearing capacity and structural integrity under fire conditions.

A

Fire resistance.

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44
Q

The fire resistance of structural components can be evaluated quantitively and is known as the _____.

A

fire resistance rating.

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45
Q

Building codes will have requirements for the fire resistance of structural elements such as the following:

A

beams, columns, walls and partitions, floor and ceiling assemblies, roof and ceiling assemblies.

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46
Q

The earliest known fire tests on building materials were conducted in Germany in _____

A

1884-86

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47
Q

In the United States the first known fire tests were conducted in Denver, Colorado in ____.

A

1890

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48
Q

Normally, assemblies are not tested beyond ___ hours because this is the maximum time required by the building codes.

A

4

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49
Q

The ______ for the test include: failure to support an applied load, temperature increase on the unexposed side of the wall, floor and roof assemblies of 250F above ambient temperatures, passage of heat or flame through the assembly sufficient to ignite cotton waste, and excess temperature on steel members.

A

primary points of failure

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50
Q

Fire resistance ratings for test specimens, including fire doors and Windows are expressed in standard intervals such as:

A

15 minutes, 30 minutes, 45 minutes, 1 hour, 1.5 hours, 2 hours, 3 hours, and 4 hours.

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51
Q

The _____ test is the only method currently universally accepted by building codes.

A

E-119

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52
Q

The NFPA ____ standard time-temperature test is the most commonly used method of satisfying building code requirements for structural fire resistance.

A

251

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53
Q

_____: Incapable of supporting combustion under normal circumstances.

A

noncombustible.

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54
Q

The most commonly used test for determining combustibility is ____.

A

ASTM E 136

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55
Q

NFPA ____ Standard on Types of Building Construction details the requirements for each of the classifications and subclassifications of buildings.

A

220

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56
Q

In NFPA 220, each classifications is designated by a ____.

A

three digit number code.

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57
Q

What does the first digit of the NFPA 220 building classification stand for?

A

Fire resistance rating in hours of exterior bearing walls.

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58
Q

What does the second digit in NFPA 220 building classifications stand for?

A

Fire resistance rating of structural frames or columns and girders that support loads of more than one floor.

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59
Q

What does the third digit of the NFPA 220 building classification stand for?

A

fire resistance rating of the floor construciton.

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60
Q

In type IV construction (heavy timber) the designation ___ is used.

A

2HH

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61
Q

In ____ construction, the structural members are of non-combustible construction that has a specified fire resistance.

A

Type I or fire resistive

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62
Q

Type I contractions is divided into ___ subclassifications

A

2

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63
Q

The two most common methods of constructing ___ buildings are by using reinforced concrete or a protected steel frame.

A

Type I.

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64
Q

Type ____ construction can be either protected or unprotected. In unprotected construction, the major components are noncombustible but have no fire resistance.

A

type II (noncombustible)

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65
Q

Building codes allow the use of combustible material in type II construction for applications similar to those in ____ construction.

A

Type I.

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66
Q

The point at which unprotected members will fail depends on the following factors;

A

ceiling height of the building, size of the unprotected steel members, and intensity and duration of the exposing fire.

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67
Q

Type ___ construction has been commonly referred to as “ordinary construction”

A

III

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68
Q

Type ____ constructions is frequently constructed with exterior walls of masonry, but from a technical standpoint any noncombustible material with the required fire resistance can be used for the exterior walls.

A

III

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69
Q

In ___ construction, although the exterior walls are non combustible, the interior structural members including walls, columns, beams, floors and roofs are permitted to be partially or wholly combustible.

A

type III.

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70
Q

A fundamental fire concern with Type ___ construction is the combustible concealed spaces that are created between floor and ceiling joints and between studs in partition walls when they are covered with interior finish materials.

A

III

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71
Q

Type ____ constructions is commonly known as heavy-timber or “mill” construction.

A

IV

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72
Q

Like Type III construction, in type ___ construction the exterior walls are normally of masonry construction and the interior structural members are combustible.

A

type IV

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73
Q

There are two important distinctions between Type III and type IV construction:

A

Type IV construction the structural members are made of wood with greater dimensions than type III and the concealed spaces are not permitted between structural members in type IV construction.

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74
Q

Type ___ construction was used extensively in factories, mills, and warehouses in the 19th, and early 20th centuries.

A

IV

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75
Q

In Type ___ construction, all major structural components are permitted to be of combustible construction.

A

V

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76
Q

The basic method of construction in a Type __ building consists of using a wood frame to provide the primary structural support.

A

V

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77
Q

Many type ___ structures are required to have a 1 hour fire resistance for the structural members.

A

V

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78
Q

A fundamental problem posed by Type ___ construction is the creation of combustible concealed voids and channels more extensive than are found in type III constructions.

A

V

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79
Q

In modern practice, wood frame buildings are most often constructed using a method known as ____ construction.

A

light-frame

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80
Q

In some jurisdictions it is permissible to have type V construction over type I construction up to a height of ___ ft.

A

70

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81
Q

____ refer to the maximum heat that would be released if all the available fuel in a building was consumed.

A

fire load or fuel load.

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82
Q

The ____ is the product of the weight of the combustible multiplied by their heat of combustion.

A

fire load

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83
Q

The ___ can be used as an estimate of the total potential heat release or thermal energy to which a building may be subjected if all combustibles become fully involved in fire.

A

fire load

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84
Q

_____ classify buildings according to their occupancy as well as their construction type.

A

Building codes

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85
Q

The International building code contains ___ major occupancy classifications.

A

10

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86
Q

IBC group A

A

assembly

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87
Q

IBC group B

A

business

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88
Q

IBC group E

A

Educational

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89
Q

IBC group F

A

factories

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90
Q

IBC group H

A

high hazard

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91
Q

IBC group I

A

institutional

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92
Q

IBC group M

A

Mercantile

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93
Q

IBC group R

A

residential

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94
Q

IBC group S

A

storage

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95
Q

IBC group U

A

utility and miscellaneous

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96
Q

The IBC contains a total of __ subgroups within the 10 major occupancy classifications

A

26

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97
Q

NFPA 5000 and NFPA 101 make use of ___ major occupancy classifications

A

12

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98
Q

A ___ is defined as any effect or force that a structure must resist.

A

load

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99
Q

___ arise from several sources such as gravity, wind, earthquakes, and soil pressure and can be classified in several ways.

A

loads

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100
Q

_____: the impact effect the wind has on a surface. This force may be reduced by streamlining the surface encountered.

A

Direct pressure

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101
Q

_____: when wind encounters an object, its fluid nature causes it to flow around the object. this exerts a drag effect on the object.

A

Aerodynamic drag

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102
Q

______: a suction effect produced on the downwind side of the building resulting in an outward pressure.

A

Negative pressure

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103
Q

In designing buildings to withstand the force of wind, the primary effect considered is the force due to _____.

A

direct pressure.

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104
Q

The vibrational motion of the surface subjects buildings to forces known as ____ that can be very destructive, as history has shown.

A

seismic forces

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105
Q

_____ are produced in a structural member when it is twisted.

A

torsional forces

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106
Q

_____ are movements of relatively large amplitude resulting from a small force applied as the natural frequency of a structure.

A

Resonant forces

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107
Q

Although the movement of the ground beneath a building can be three dimensional, the ____ is the most significant force.

A

horizontal motion.

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108
Q

____: the tendency of a body to remain in motion or at rest until it is acted upon by force.

A

inertia

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109
Q

_____: structural element designed to control vibration.

A

damping mechanism

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110
Q

The ___ is the weight of any permanent part of a building.

A

dead load

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111
Q

The ____ load also includes permanent equipment such as heating plants, elevator hoist, pumps, and water supply tanks in earthquake zones.

A

dead

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112
Q

A ____ is any load that is not fixed or permanent.

A

live load

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113
Q

Although ____ loads can include wind and seismic loads, the term is usually applied to building contents, occupants, and the weight of snow or rain on the roof.

A

live load.

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114
Q

_____, can vary from visually none in southern states to 60 lbs per square foot.

A

snow load

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115
Q

____ are loads that are steady or are applied gradually.

A

static loads

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116
Q

The dead load of a building, the snow load, and many live loads are _____.

A

static loads.

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117
Q

_______ are loads that involve motion.

A

dynamic loads

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118
Q

_____ loads include the forces arising from wind, moving vehicles, earthquakes, vibration, firefighters, and falling objects.

A

dynamic loads

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119
Q

_____ differ from static loads in that they are capable of delivering energy to a structure in addition to the weight of an object.

A

dynamic loads

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120
Q

______: condition in which the support provided by a structural system is equal to the applied loads.

A

equilibrium.

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121
Q

A beam that is supported at one end is known as a ___.

A

cantilever beam

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122
Q

____: those vertical or horizontal forces that tend to pull things apart’ for example, the force exerted on the bottom chord of a truss.

A

Tension

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123
Q

_____: point at which material ceases to perform satisfactorily

A

failure point

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124
Q

An ____ is a load applied to the center of the cross-section of a structural member and perpendicular to that cross section.

A

axial load

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125
Q

An _____ load is a load that is perpendicular to the cross section of the structural member but does not pass through the center of the cross section.

A

eccentric

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126
Q

A ____ load is offset from the center of the cross section of the structural member and at an angle to or in the same plane as the cross section.

A

torsional

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127
Q

A ___ is a structural member that can carry loads perpendicular to its longitudinal dimension.

A

beam

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128
Q

A ____ beam is supported at each end and is free to rotate at the ends.

A

simply supported

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129
Q

____ are structural members designed to support an axial compressive load.

A

Columns

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130
Q

An ____ is a curved structural member in which the interior stresses are primarily compressive.

A

arch

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131
Q

____ are framed structural units made up of a group of triangles in one plane.

A

trusses

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132
Q

_____: structural member used to form a roof or floor framework.

A

truss

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133
Q

____ can be thought of as flexible structural members that can be used to support roofs, brace tents, and restrain pneumatic structures.

A

cables

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134
Q

The top members of a truss are called the ____.

A

top chords

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135
Q

The bottom members of a truss are called the _____.

A

bottom chords

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136
Q

Typical ____ shapes are available to span distance of 22ft to 70 ft but in todays construction truss spans in excess of 100ft are not uncommon.

A

truss

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137
Q

The diagonal members of a truss are called either ____ or ____.

A

diagonals or web members

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138
Q

A common method of construction uses the walls of a building to support spanning elements such as beams, trusses, and precast concrete slabs. These are appropriately known as _____ structures.

A

bearing wall

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139
Q

The distinctive characteristic of ______ framing is the spacing of the vertical posts and the cross-sectional dimension of the members.

A

Post and beam

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140
Q

In post and beam framing, the vertical posts may be spaced up to ____ apart, unlike stud wall construction where the studs are 12-16 inches apart.

A

24 inches

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141
Q

In rigid frames, the ____ usually must be reinforced and will be the last portion of the assembly to fail under fire conditions.

A

joints

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142
Q

_____: system of construction in which the building consists primarily of an enclosing surface and in which the stresses resulting from the applied loads occur within the surface bearing wall structures.

A

Surface system

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143
Q

______: Structure with an enclosing surface of a thin stretched flexible material. Examples include simple tent or an air supported structure.

A

Membrane structure

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144
Q

______: safe , continuous path of travel from any point in a structure to a public way.

A

means of egress.

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145
Q

_____: stair that usually connects two floors in a multistory building.

A

convenience stair

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146
Q

______: vertical distance between the treads of a stairway or the height of the entire stairway.

A

Rise

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147
Q

_____: The horizontal measurement of a stair tread or the distance of the entire stair length

A

Run

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148
Q

Most ___ provide a dual role as a building system. First, they enable occupants to access various levels of the structure and second, they serve as a basic component of building egress during an emergency.

A

stairs

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149
Q

Many ____ have failed when loaded with people during an emergency.

A

older fire escapes

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150
Q

Building codes have traditionally required a minimum of 1 smoke proof stair enclosure for stairs serving buildings ____ stories or higher and more recently, stairs serving more than 30ft below the level. of the exit discharge.

A

5

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151
Q

Activated by automatic fire/smoke detection equipment, a dedicated mechanical air handling system is designed to keep smoke out of the stair enclosure by _____.

A

pressurizing the shaft.

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152
Q

Stair enclosures may be classified as ______ by using either active or passive smoke control.

A

smokeproof

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153
Q

_____: stairway that are designed to limit the penetration of smoke, heat, and toxic gases from a fire on a floor of a building into the stairway and that serve as part of a means of egress.

A

smokeproof enclosure.

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154
Q

____ are a key building system for providing access to above or below grade stories.

A

elevators.

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155
Q

____: the most common type of elevator in buildings over 6 stories.

A

traction elevator

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156
Q

_____ are very fast and do not have the height limitations of either hydraulic or drum type elevators.

A

traction elevators.

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157
Q

The practical upper limit for hydraulic elevators is ___.

A

6 stories.

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158
Q

____ motors have a braking system that operates during both normal operation and malfunctions.

A

traction

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159
Q

An ____ is the vertical shaft in which the elevator car travels and includes the elevator pit.

A

elevator hoist way.

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160
Q

_____ enclosures usually are required to be a fire-rated assembly with a 1-2 hour rating.

A

Elevator hoistways

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161
Q

If the elevator hoist way is not vented at the top, the accumulated hot gases and smoke may tend to ___ or spread horizontally into the upper floors.

A

mushroom

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162
Q

To prevent ____, building codes require venting at the top of practically every hoist way built today.

A

mushrooming

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163
Q

In very tall building, ____ are divided into zones.

A

elevators.

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164
Q

A elevator zone typically serves ___ to ____ floors.

A

15-20

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165
Q

The ____ zone cars operate express from the first floor to the lowest floor of the upper zone.

A

upper

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166
Q

____ are used for express elevators that serve the upper elevator zones in tall buildings.

A

blind hoistways

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167
Q

____ also include stairways and elevator and dumbwaiter hoist ways.

A

vertical shafts

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168
Q

____ is a term generally applied to the vertical pathway in a building that contains utility services.

A

Utility chase

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169
Q

A _____ is a type of utility chase used to contain piping needed for building services such as hot and cold potable water, drain lines, steam, hot and chilled water for heating and air conditioning, and sprinkler piping.

A

pipe chase

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170
Q

Occasionally buildings do not have pipe chases but instead use ______.

A

stacked mechanical equipment rooms.

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171
Q

A ____ provides for the removal of trash and garbage from upper floors of buildings such as residential properties.

A

refuse chute.

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172
Q

A ____ is installed as part of an exhaust system for commercial cooking appliances that produce grease laden vapors.

A

grease duct

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173
Q

The functions provided by an ____ system include heating, cooling, filtering, humidifying, and dehumidifying.

A

HVAC

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174
Q

An ____ provides conditioned air to building occupants.

A

HVAC

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175
Q

NFPA ____ requires that the shaft enclosure for HVAC units be 1 hour rated for buildings less than 4 stories in height and 2 hour fire rated for buildings four stories or greater.

A

90A

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176
Q

____: channel or enclosure, usually of sheet metal, used to move heating and cooling air through a building. Hollow pathways used to move air from one area to another in ventilation systems.

A

duct

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177
Q

____: in building construction, refers to generally inaccessible spaces between layers of building materials.

A

interstitial space.

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178
Q

____ means the use of mechanical equipment to produce pressure differences across smoke barriers to inhibit smoke movement.

A

Smoke control

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179
Q

Automatic transfer of an HVAC system to fire operation can be accomplished by ___ serving the various floors of the building.

A

smoke detectors

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180
Q

The automatic transfer of the system to fire mode (HVAC) can also be initiated by ______.

A

sprinkler waterflow switches or heat detectors

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181
Q

The advantages to ____ (transfer of HVAC into fire mode) are the elimination of system disruption due to false alarms and more specific system control.

A

manual control

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182
Q

When an HVAC system has both automatic and manual capability, the ___ shall take priority over the other.

A

manual control

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183
Q

A ____ is a type of smoke proof enclosure that makes use of a vestibule between the corridor and the stairwell that is open to the atmosphere.

A

Smokeproof tower

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184
Q

A ____ stairwell utilizes a blower of fan to provide a slightly greater pressure in the stairwell than the corridor to prevent the infiltration of smoke from the corridor into the stairwell.

A

pressurized

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185
Q

NFPA 92A requires a minimum pressure difference of _____, water gauge across a smoke barrier in a sprinklered building.

A

0.05 inches

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186
Q

There are two general design methods used for pressurized stairwells, one method is to have a fan supply air to a stairwell at a single point. This is known as the _____.

A

Single-injection method.

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187
Q

______: vertical boards, fire resistive half walls, that extend down from the underside of the roof of some commercial buildings and are intended to limit the spread of fire, heat, smoke, and fire gases.

A

Curtain boards

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188
Q

____: the electrical force that causes a charge to move through a conductor. Sometimes called the electromotive force.

A

Voltage

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189
Q

_____: nonconductor of direct electric current. Term usually applied to tools that are used to handle energized electrical wires or equipment.

A

dielectric

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190
Q

When transformers are inside, the transformer rooms or vaults are required by code to be enclosed in ___ hour fire rated construction if not protected by automatic sprinklers or ___ hour fire rated construction if they are protected by sprinklers.

A

3 hour; 1 hour

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191
Q

With the increases cost of building materials, many buildings are now supplied by the electric utility with ____ services.

A

480/277 volt

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192
Q

_____ are used to cover high-voltage electricity, as supplied by the electric utility service, to an appropriate voltage for use in the building.

A

Transformers

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193
Q

____ are typically engine driven, using a gasoline, diesel, or natural gas internal combustion engine.

A

generators

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194
Q

The term ____ is generally applied to the materials used for the exposed face of the walls and ceilings of a building.

A

interior finish.

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195
Q

In the international community the term ____ is used instead of interior finish

A

interior lining.

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196
Q

What is the flame spread rating for Class A interior finishes?

A

0-25

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197
Q

What is the flame spread rating for class B interior finishes?

A

26-75

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198
Q

What is the flame spread rating for Class C interior finishes?

A

76-200

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199
Q

Interior finish materials with a Class __ rating are required in the vertical exits of most occupancies.

A

A

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200
Q

Interior finish materials with a class __ rating are required in corridors that provide exit access.

A

B

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201
Q

The maximum flame spread rating for interior finishes is ____.

A

200

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202
Q

The fire load is the measure of the ___ available to a fire and therefore the total heat that can be released in a fire.

A

total fuel.

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203
Q

The severity of a fire is determined by the fire load plus the _____.

A

rate at which the fuel burns

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204
Q

The faster the available fuel burns the greater the _____.

A

Heat release rate (HHR)

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205
Q

The rate at which a fuel burns is determined by several factors. The most significant is the combination of fuel and the _____.

A

available oxygen.

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206
Q

The ____ is the most commonly used method for evaluating the surface burning characteristics of materials.

A

Steiner Tunnel Test

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207
Q

The tunnel test produces a numerical evaluation of the flammability of interior materials, which is known as the _____.

A

flame spread rating.

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208
Q

To derive the numerical flame spread rating, the flame travel along the test material is compared to two standard materials: _______.

A

asbestos cement board and red oak flooring.

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209
Q

The _____ may not produce an accurate correlation with the actual behavior of a material in a fire.

A

flame spread rating.

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210
Q

The _____ is a measure of the relative visual obscurity created by the smoke from a tested material.

A

smoke developed rating.

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211
Q

Codes limit the maximum smoke developed to ____.

A

450

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212
Q

It is very important to remember that the smoke developed in a rating is ____ an indication of the toxicity or volatility of the products of combustion of the interior finish materials.

A

not

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213
Q

Fire retardant coatings only affected the ____ and not the untreated portion of a material.

A

coated surface

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214
Q

Fire-retardant coatings cannot be substituted for _____.

A

structural fireproofing.

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215
Q

______: any substance, except plain water, that is applied to another material or substance to reduce the flammability of fuels or slow their rate of combustion by chemical or physical action.

A

Fire Retardant

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216
Q

The _____ test procedure to measure the surface burning characteristics or materials is useful because it provides reproducible results and is widely recognized standard.

A

ASTM E-84

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217
Q

Considerable effort has been made over the years to develop test procedures that incorporate the size and shape of real rooms. These methods are collectively known as _____.

A

Corner tests

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218
Q

_____ consists of equipment such as an automatic sprinkler system or fire alarm system that requires a power source for operation.

A

Active fire protection.

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219
Q

_____ relies on building construction and materials to contain fire or products of combustion.

A

Passive fire protection.

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220
Q

_____ fire protection extinguishes or controls fire while _____ fire protection limits the spread of fire.

A

Active fire; passive fire

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221
Q

The subdivision of a building or the floor levels of a building by fire rated walls or partitions is generally referred to as _____.

A

compartmentation

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222
Q

______: Series of barriers designed to keep flames, smoke, and heat from spreading from one room to another.

A

Compartmentation systems.

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223
Q

_____: assemblies of building components such as doors, walls, roofs, and other structural features that may be, because of the occupancy, required by code to have minimum fire resistance rating from an independent testing agency.

A

Rated assembly

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224
Q

_____: having occupants remaining in a structure or vehicle in order to provide protection from a rapidly approaching hazard. Opposite of evacuation.

A

Shelter in place.

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225
Q

____, or area separation walls, are erected to limit the maximum spread of the fire.

A

Fire walls

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226
Q

_____ can be constructed as either freestanding walls or as tied walls.

A

fire walls

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227
Q

______ walls are self supporting and are independent of the building frame.

A

freestanding

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228
Q

_____ walls are erected at a column line in a building of steel frame or concrete frame construction.

A

Tied fire walls

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229
Q

Fire walls must extend beyond walls and roofs to prevent the radiation heat of flames on one side of the fire wall from igniting adjacent surfaces. This is accomplished by continuing the fire wall through the roof with a ____.

A

parapet.

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230
Q

The parapet height above a combustible roof is determined by the building code and varies from __ to ____.

A

18 to 36 inches.

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231
Q

______ are interior walls used to subdivide a floor or area of a building that do not qualify as fire walls.

A

Fire partitions

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232
Q

_____ unlike fire walls, may not extend continuously through a building.

A

Fire partiitons

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233
Q

Stairwells in buildings ___ stories or less are required to have a 1 hour enclosure.

A

3

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234
Q

In buildings taller that 3 stories, stairwells are required to have __ hour enclosures.

A

2

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235
Q

____: glass or thermoplastic panel in a window that allows light to pass.

A

glazing.

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236
Q

____: nonbearing exterior wall attached to the outside of a building with a rigid steal frame. Usually the front exterior wall of a building intended to provide a certain appearance.

A

Curtain wall

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237
Q

Two aspects of ____ are significant to the firefighter, their degree of fire resistance and the extent to which they permit vertical communication of fire.

A

curtain walls

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238
Q

_____: Solid materials, such as wood blocks, used to prevent or limit the vertical and horizontal spread of fire and the products of combustion in hollow walls or floors, above false ceilings, in penetrations for plumbing or electrical installations, in penetrations of a fire rated assembly or in cocklofts and crawl spaces.

A

Fire Stop

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239
Q

For a fire wall or partition to be effective it must provide a ______.

A

continuous barrier to fire

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240
Q

____: A specially constructed, tested, and approved rated door assembly designed and installed to prevent fire spread by automatically closing and covering a doorway in a fire wall during a fire to block the spread of fire through the door opening.

A

Fire door

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241
Q

_____ are rated as 4 hours, 3 hours, 1.5 hours, 1 hour, 3/4 hour, 1/2 hour, and 20 minutes

A

Fire doors

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242
Q

Openings in fire walls. (Fire door classification)

A

Class A

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243
Q

Openings in vertical shafts and openings in 2 hours rated partitions. (Fire door classification)

A

Class B

244
Q

Openings between rooms and corridors having a fire resistance of 1 hour or less. (Fire door classification)

A

Class C

245
Q

Openings in exterior walls subject to moderate or light exposure from the outside of a building. (Fire door classification)

A

Class D

246
Q

Openings in exterior walls subject to moderate or light exposure from the outside. (Fire door classification)

A

Class E

247
Q

Fire doors are tested in accordance with the procedures contained in NFPA ____.

A

252

248
Q

For fire doors, the primary criterion for acceptability is that the fire door must _____.

A

remain in place during the test.

249
Q

For a fire door to effectively block the spread of fire, it must remain ____

A

closed and attached to the fire wall under fire conditions.

250
Q

A ___ is used for either sliding or swinging fire doors

A

fire door closer

251
Q

a ___ can be used with swinging, sliding, or rolling fire doors.

A

fire door holder

252
Q

A ____ is intended for used with sliding fire doors that are mounted on either a level or inclined track.

A

Door operator

253
Q

An ____ is often used to protect an opening in a fire wall in an industrial occupancy.

A

overhead rolling steel fire door.

254
Q

____ are often found in older industrial buildings. These doors are usually held open by a fusible link and slide into position along a track either by gravity or by the force of a counterweight.

A

Horizontal sliding doors.

255
Q

It is a very common design practice to use ___ fire doors for such applications as stairwell enclosures and corridors.

A

swinging

256
Q

_____ of fire rated doors are available for applications such as freight and passenger elevators, service counter openings, security, dumbwaiters, and chute openings.

A

Special types

257
Q

The function of the ____ is to transfer the structural load of a building to the ground.

A

foundation

258
Q

The type of ___ required for a project depends on the type of building and the soil conditions at the site.

A

foundation

259
Q

The main factors that determine the type of foundation to be used for a building are the _____.

A

soil conditions and structural configuration.

260
Q

____: That part of the building that rests on the bearing soil and is wider than the foundation wall.

A

Footing.

261
Q

____ are divided into two types; shallow and deep.

A

Foundations

262
Q

A ____ is a widened base at the bottom of a column or foundation wall.

A

footing.

263
Q

A ____ is continuous strip of concrete that supports a wall.

A

wall footing.

264
Q

____: square pad of concrete that supports a column.

A

Column footing.

265
Q

____: footing consisting of layers of beams placed at right angles to each other and usually encased in concrete.

A

grillage footing.

266
Q

_____: thick slab beneath the entire area of a building. Differs from a simple floor slab in its thickness and amount of reinforcement.

A

Mat foundation.

267
Q

In some cases where soil strength is low, a type of foundations known as ____ may be used.

A

floating foundation

268
Q

_____: foundation for which the volume of earth excavated will approximately equal the weight of the building supported.

A

Floating foundation.

269
Q

_____ take the form of either piles or piers.

A

Deep foundations

270
Q

_____: used to support loads, are driven into the ground and develop their load carrying ability either through friction with the surrounding soil or by being driven into contact with track or a load bearing soil layer.

A

Piles

271
Q

_____: load supporting member contracted by drilling or digging a shaft, then filling the shaft with concrete.

A

Pier.

272
Q

A layer of _____ is sometimes placed on the outside of foundations walls for insulation.

A

Expanded polystyrene

273
Q

The ____ conserves heat in cold climates and reduces the energy needed for air conditioning in warmer climates.

A

Expanded polystyrene

274
Q

______: parts of a foundations settle at the same rate and misalignment between structural members is minor.

A

Uniform settlement.

275
Q

_____ takes place when different parts of the foundations settle by different amounts.

A

Differential settlement.

276
Q

____ can be the result of nonuniform soil conditions under the foundations, footings of different size, footings placed at different elevations, and/or unequal loads on footings.

A

differential settlement.

277
Q

Situations may arise where it is necessary to strengthen and stabilize an existing foundations. This process is known as ____.

A

underpinning.

278
Q

_____: general term used for lengths of timber, screw jacks, hydraulic and pneumatic jacks, and other devices that can be used as temporary support for formwork or structural components or used to hold sheeting against trench walls.

A

Shoring.

279
Q

____ refers to temporary supports, while underpinning refers to permanent supports.

A

shoring.

280
Q

Wood is stronger in a direction ___ to the grain.

A

parallel

281
Q

Most structural lumber has a moisture content of ___ percent or less.

A

19

282
Q

___ can be defined as lengths of squared wood (also known as dimensional wood) used for construction.

A

Lumber

283
Q

___ is graded for both structural strength and appearance.

A

Lumber

284
Q

____ have a nominal thickness of 2 inches or less.

A

Boards

285
Q

_____ has a nominal thickness of 2-4 inches.

A

Dimension lumber

286
Q

____ have nominal thickness of 5 inches or more.

A

Timbers

287
Q

____ is available in lengths from 8-18 feet.

A

Dimensional lumber

288
Q

Members for use as ___ can be supplied in lengths up to 24 feet.

A

rafters

289
Q

The actual dimension of the wood is ____ than the nominal dimension

A

smaller

290
Q

______ are produced by joining flat strips of wood with glue.

A

Laminated wood members

291
Q

Beams produced using laminated wood members are known as _____.

A

glulam beams.

292
Q

____ can be produced in depth ranging from 3 to 75 inches and lengths up to 100 feet.

A

Laminated members

293
Q

____: Surface layer of attractive material laid over a base of common material.

A

Vaneer

294
Q

____: Wood sheet product made from several thin veneer layers that are sliced from logs and glued together.

A

Plywood

295
Q

_____ includes laminated veneer lumber, parallel strand lumber, and laminated strand lumber.

A

Structural composite lumber.

296
Q

____ products include oriented strand board (OSB), particleboard, and waferboard.

A

Nonveneered

297
Q

_____ uses long, strand like wood particles that are compressed and glued into three to five layers.

A

OSB

298
Q

_____ is made form wood particles bonded with synthetic resins under heat and pressure.

A

Particleboard

299
Q

____ is similar to particleboard but uses wafter-like pieces of wood that are larger than those used in particleboard.

A

Waferboard.

300
Q

_____: produced with parallel external face veneers bonded to a core of reconstituted fibers.

A

Composite panels.

301
Q

_____ are prefabricated from components such as dimension lumber, panels, adhesives, and metal fasteners and shipped to the construction site for erection.

A

Manufactured members.

302
Q

____ trusses are made up of 2 inch nominal members that are all in the same plane.

A

light-frame

303
Q

____ trusses are made up of members up to 8 to 10 inches.

A

Heavy timber

304
Q

Ignition temperatures for wood are difficult to ____ because the ignition temperature of wood is effected by the density, size, moisture content, rate of heating, nature of the heating source, and air supply.

A

difficult to measure.

305
Q

_____ is the thermal decomposition of wood and begins at a temperature somewhere below approximately 392 degrees F.

A

Pyrolysis.

306
Q

The _____ of a fuel is the total amount of thermal energy that could be released if the fuel were completely burned.

A

heat of combustion.

307
Q

The combustion of wood is a ______.

A

surface phenomenon

308
Q

_______: The ratio of the surface area of the fuel to the mass of the fuel.

A

Surface to mass ratio.

309
Q

The two main methods of fire-retardant treatment of wood are ____.

A

pressure impregnation and surface coating.

310
Q

The ____ treatment of wood will reduce its strength.

A

Fire retardant

311
Q

_______ is a wood like product produced from wood fiber and polyethylene or polyvinyl chloride (PVC).

A

Thermoplastic composite lumber

312
Q

Thermoplastic composite lumber is a combustible product with a flame spread rating of ___.

A

80

313
Q

Until the development of ____ approximately 200 years ago, the production of individual boards was a slow and laborious procedure.

A

water-powered sawmills

314
Q

In _______, the columns are not less than 8x8 inches and the beams are not less than 6x10 inches.

A

heavy timber framing.

315
Q

Because the are more massive and have lower surface area to mass ratio, _____ display greater structural endurance under fire conditions than members used in light-frame construction.

A

heavy timbers

316
Q

Older timber construction made use of a type of joint known as ____ joint.

A

mortise and tenon

317
Q

______ behave in the same manner under fire conditions as solid timbers.

A

Glulam beams

318
Q

____: notch, hole, or space cut into a piece of timber to receive the projecting part of another piece of timber.

A

Mortise

319
Q

______: projecting member in a piece of wood or other material for insertion into a mortise to make a joint.

A

Tenon

320
Q

______ framing is a form of wood Fram construction in which the columns and the beams are of dimensions less than those used in heavy timber framing but greater than those used in light frame construction. (posts generally 4x4 or 6x6)

A

Post and beam

321
Q

_____ framing makes use of 2 inch nominal lumber such as 2x4’s or 2x8’s.

A

Light wood

322
Q

The walls of light wood framing are formed by vertical members known as studs that are 2x4’s or 2x6’s spaced ____.

A

12, 16, or 24 inches on center

323
Q

In ____ construction, the exterior wall studs are continuous from the foundations to the roof.

A

balloon frame

324
Q

The joists that support the second floor are supported by ribbon boards that are recessed into the vertical stud in _______ construction.

A

balloon frame

325
Q

The vertical combustible spaces between the studs in _____ construction provide a channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor.

A

balloon frame

326
Q

______ has the advantage of minimizing the effects of lumber shrinkage that can occur over time as the lumber dries and loses its moisture content.

A

Balloon framing

327
Q

Balloon framing has not been widely used since the _____.

A

1920’s

328
Q

In ______, the exterior wall vertical studs are not continous to the second floor. The first floor is constructed was a platform upon which the exterior vertical studs are erected.

A

platform framing.

329
Q

____ can consist of various materials including 2 inch nominal lumber, gypsum board, cement fiber board, and batts or blankets of mineral wool, glass fiber, or other approved materials.

A

fire stopping

330
Q

_____ is installed on the outside of the studs to provide structural stability, insulation, and an underlay for the siding.

A

Sheathing

331
Q

A layer of ______ is provided between the sheathing and the siding to act as a vapor barrier.

A

building paper

332
Q

The extent to which the presence of a foam insulation in a wood frame wall will increase fire spread within the wall depends on the existence of an _____.

A

Air space

333
Q

_____ provides the exterior cladding of a wood frame building. Contributes to the appearance and provides weather protection.

A

Siding.

334
Q

One frequently used rule is that in a brick bearing wall every ____ course of brick is a header course with the ends of the brick facing out.

A

6th

335
Q

A ____ adds little to the structural support and must be tied to the wood frame wall at intervals of 16 inches.

A

brick veneer.

336
Q

____ is one of the oldest and simplest building materials.

A

Masonry

337
Q

_____: also known as concrete masonry units (CMU). The most commonly used block is the hollow concrete block.

A

Concrete block

338
Q

____ units have no significant tensile strength.

A

Masonry

339
Q

______ in their structural applications are used to support compressive loads.

A

Masonry

340
Q

____ is available in five basic types with strengths varying from as low to 75 PSI to as high as 2500 PSI.

A

Mortar

341
Q

Most ____ is produced from a mixture of Portland cement, hydrated lime, sand, and water.

A

Mortar

342
Q

_____: wall that supports itself and the weight of the roof and/or other internal structural framing components such as the floor and beams above it.

A

Bearing wall.

343
Q

Nonreinforced masonry walls are usually limited to a maximum height of around _____.

A

6 stories.

344
Q

When a building is to be more than _____ stories tall, the use of a steel or concrete structural frame is usually more economical than erecting a non reinforced masonry bearing wall.

A

3 or 4

345
Q

By using _____, it is possible to construct load bearing masonry walls to a height of ten stories or more having a wall thickness of only 12 inches.

A

reinforced masonry

346
Q

_____: horizontal layer of individual masonry units.

A

Course

347
Q

____: Single vertical row or multiple rows of masonry units in a wall, usually brick.

A

Wythe.

348
Q

In an ordinary non reinforced wall, the strength and stability of the wall are derived from the weight of the masonry and horizontal bonding between adjacent ____.

A

Wythes.

349
Q

When bricks are placed end-to-end, they create a _____.

A

stretcher course.

350
Q

If bricks are placed vertically on end, a ____ is created.

A

soldier course

351
Q

One means of providing a horizontal bond between the withers is to place a course of bricks across two wither with the ends of the bricks facing out. A course of bricks laid in this manner is known as a ____.

A

header course

352
Q

An exterior brick wall often is constructed with a vertical cavity between the exterior wythe and the interior Wythes known as a _____.

A

cavity wall

353
Q

______: support for masonry over an opening; usually made of steel angles or other rolled shapes singularly or in combination.

A

Lintel

354
Q

A ____ is a beam over an opening in a masonry wall.

A

lintel

355
Q

______ and, to a lesser extent arches, are the most common methods of supporting loads over openings in masonry walls.

A

Lintels

356
Q

A ____ is an extension of masonry or steel wall that projects above the roof.

A

parapet.

357
Q

_____ project from 1-3 feet or more above the roof, usually without lateral support.

A

Parapets

358
Q

The traditional and most basic _____ consists of exterior load bearing masonry walls that support the interior wood floors and roof that consists of wood joists and rafters.

A

masonry structure

359
Q

In many applications such as residential and small commercial buildings, wood joists or beams simply rest on the masonry wall in an indentation known as a _____.

A

beam pocket

360
Q

The purpose of a ____ is to allow the beam to fall away freely from a wall in the case of structural collapse without active as a lever to push against the masonry.

A

fire cut

361
Q

If a masonry wall begins to bulge or lean outward it will tend to ______ the interior framing.

A

pull away from

362
Q

The situation of greatest concern for firefighters is where the ____ have been used to repair a wall rather than where they are part of the original construction.

A

tie rods

363
Q

Masonry walls are frequently ____ due to forces exerted by collapsing interior components.

A

pushed out.

364
Q

No ____ are allowed in a masonry heavy timber building.

A

concealed spaces

365
Q

The development of _____ at the end of the 19t century permitted the construction of high-rise buildings in the 20th century.

A

steel structural framing

366
Q

Strongest of the building materials

A

Steel

367
Q

Non-rotting, resistant to aging, and dimensionally stable (building material)

A

steel

368
Q

building material of consistent quality due to controlled industrial process used in its manufacture.

A

Steel

369
Q

Building material that is relatively expensive but strength and variety of forms enable it to be used in smaller quantities than other materials.

A

steel

370
Q

The lower carbon content of steel compared to that of cad iron results in a material that is ____ rather than brittle.

A

ductile

371
Q

The ___ attribute of steel enables it to be rolled into a variety of shapes.

A

ductile

372
Q

_____ has a tendency to rust when exposed to air and moisture.

A

steel

373
Q

____ loses strength when exposed to the heat of a fire.

A

steel

374
Q

To the fire service, the deterioration of the strength of ____ at elevated temperatures is its most significant characteristic.

A

steel

375
Q

At a temperature of around _____, the yield point of the steel has dropped from 36,000 PSI to 18000 PSI.

A

1000 degrees F.

376
Q

Because temperatures in excess of ____ are regularly encountered in fires, failure of unprotected steel to a greater or lesser degree can be anticipated.

A

1200 degrees F.

377
Q

If an unrestrained steel beam 20ft long were heated from 70 degrees F to a uniform temperature of 1000 degrees F, it would expand ____.

A

1.4 inches

378
Q

The amount of expansion for slender steel members, such as beams and columns, can be determined through a property known as the ____.

A

linear coefficient of thermal expansion.

379
Q

Beams and columns in steel frame buildings are connected by one of two methods:

A

bolting or welding.

380
Q

The connection of a beam to a column not only transfers the loads between members but also determines the ___ of the basic structure.

A

rigidity

381
Q

______ steel frames can be classified as rigid, simple, or semi-rigid.

A

Beam and girder

382
Q

When a framing system is classified as a ____, the connections between the beams and the columns are designed to resist the bending forces resulting from the supported loads and lateral forces.

A

rigid frame

383
Q

In the case of a ____, the joints are designed primarily to support a vertical force.

A

simple frame

384
Q

In a ____ frame, the connections are not completely rigid but possess enough rigidity to provide some diagonal support to the structure.

A

semi-rigid

385
Q

____ provide a structural member that can carry loads across greater spans more economically than beams can.

A

steel trusses

386
Q

_____: open web truss, constructed entirely of steel with steel bars used as the web members.

A

Bar joist.

387
Q

When round bars are used for the diagonal members, the open web truss is known as a ____.

A

bar joist.

388
Q

____ are heavy steel trusses used to take the place of steel beams as part of the primary structural frame.

A

Joist girders

389
Q

____ are used to support roofs on buildings where large unobstructed floors are needed.

A

Steel arches.

390
Q

_____ can be constructed to span distances in excess of 300 ft.

A

steel arches

391
Q

_____ usually are used for spans from 40-200 ft and are fabricated by welding or bolting together steel shapes and plates.

A

steel rigid frames.

392
Q

A ____ is constructed as a solid arch that may be built up from angles and webs with a cross section similar to that of a beam.

A

girder arch

393
Q

_____ can provide large unobstructed areas similar to arches without the reduction in vertical clearance at the sides of a building that occurs with an arch.

A

Suspension roof systems

394
Q

Because of their slenderness, the possibility of buckling is higher with ___ than with columns made of other materials.

A

steel columns

395
Q

The ______ is a number that compares the unbraced length of a column to the shape and area of its cross section.

A

Slenderness ratio.

396
Q

The ____ the numerical value of the slenderness ratio, the more likely it is that buckling will occur.

A

higher

397
Q

The ___ the mass of a steel member, the less likely it is to fail in a fire.

A

greater

398
Q

____: metal or wooden plates used to connect and strengthen the intersections of metal or wooden truss components roof or floor components into a load bearing unit.

A

Gusset plates

399
Q

In gabled rigid frame structures, the ____ between the roof and the wall will be the strongest part of the frame and the last part to fail.

A

knee joints

400
Q

In contemporary practice, the most commonly used insulating materials are _____.

A

gypsum, spray applied materials, and intumescent coatings.

401
Q

____ can be used as an insulating material either in the form of flat boards or a plaster.

A

gypsum

402
Q

____ consists of approximately 21 percent entrapped water.

A

gypsum.

403
Q

______: containing or composed of cement. Has cemestlike characteristics.

A

cementitious

404
Q

An ____ coating will char, foam, and expand when heated.

A

intumescent

405
Q

When heated, the ____ coating material will expand to 15-30 times its original volume.

A

intumescent

406
Q

A ____ consists of a ceiling material suspended from the supports for the floor or ceiling above.

A

membrane ceiling.

407
Q

_____ is produced from Portland cement, coarse and fine aggregates, and water.

A

Concrete

408
Q

_____: gravel, stone, sand, or other inert materials used in concrete.

A

aggregate

409
Q

Hardening of concrete involved a chemical process known as ____.

A

hydration.

410
Q

In ____, water combines with the particles of cement to form a microscopic gel.

A

hydration.

411
Q

As the concrete hardens, it gives off heat, which is known as the ____.

A

heat of hydration.

412
Q

Theoretically, properly cured concrete continues to harden indefinitely at a gradual rate; however, normal design strength is reach after ____ days.

A

28

413
Q

____: ingredients or chemicals added to concrete mix to produce concrete with specific characteristics.

A

admixture

414
Q

With _____ of concrete, steel bars are placed in the formwork and the wet concrete is placed in the formwork around the bars.

A

ordinary reinforcing.

415
Q

The vertical reinforcing bars are known as ___ and are provided to resist the diagonal tension.

A

stirrups

416
Q

The primary function of placing reinforcing steel in concrete is to resist ____.

A

tensile forces.

417
Q

In ____ concrete, steel strands are stretched between anchors producing a tensile force in the steel. Concrete is then poured and allowed to harden. After it has hardened sufficiently, the steel strands are released.

A

pretensioned

418
Q

In ____ concrete, the reinforcing steel is not tensioned until after the concrete is hardened.

A

posttensioned

419
Q

Cutting through reinforcing steel with a saw or torch is particularly dangerous in _____ concrete because the steel is not bonded to the concrete.

A

posttensioned.

420
Q

_____: A common type of concrete construction. Refers to concrete that is poured into forms as a liquid and assumes the shape of the form in the position and location it will be used.

A

cast-in-place concrete.

421
Q

The ___ is used to check the moisture content of concrete by measuring the amount that a small, cone shaped sample of the concrete settles or slumps after it is removed from a standard sized test mold.

A

slump test.

422
Q

The ____ concrete frame is a simple system that consists of a concrete slab supported by concrete columns.

A

flat-slab

423
Q

A ____ consists of a concrete slab supported by concrete beams.

A

slab and beam.

424
Q

____ derives its name from the waffle like pattern of the bottom of the concrete slab. This design provides a thicker slab while eliminated the weight of unnecessary concrete in the bottom half of the slab.

A

waffle construction

425
Q

_____: method of building construction where the concrete building member is poured and set according to specification in a controlled environment and is then shipped to the construction site for use.

A

Precast Concrete

426
Q

In ___ reinforced wall panels are cast at the job site in horizontal casting beds. After the concrete has cured, the wall panels are tilted up into the vertical position by a crane.

A

tilt-up construction

427
Q

_____ concrete is not moved after it has hardened.

A

Cast-in-place

428
Q

In a _____ concrete structure, the connections between the individual components are a critical aspect of structural engineering.

A

precast

429
Q

A ____, also known as a bracket, is a ledge that projects from the column and supports the beam.

A

corbel

430
Q

When precast beams are to be supported by columns, the beams may be supported by ____ cast in to the column.

A

corbels

431
Q

_____ concrete systems may be somewhat more vulnerable to failure than ordinary reinforced concrete.

A

prestressed

432
Q

A very common application of ____ concrete is in parking garages.

A

precast concrete

433
Q

_____ concrete buildings have an advantage over precast buildings because of the continuity of the assembly provides an inherent restraint to movement of the intersecting members such as columns and beams.

A

Cast-in-place

434
Q

____ of concrete is caused by the expansion of the excess moisture within the concrete when it is either heated or when it freezes.

A

spalling.

435
Q

___ are usually not as strong as floors because they are typically designed to support lighter live loads.

A

roofs

436
Q

From a firefighter standpoint, the roofs of buildings can be classified into three styles: ______

A

flat, pitched, and curved.

437
Q

____ roofs are found on all types of buildings including large area warehouses, factories, shopping centers, schools and numerous other applications.

A

Flat roofs

438
Q

____ are the easiest roofs on which firefighters can work.

A

flat roofs

439
Q

___ roofs have inclined surfaces and may be categorized into low slope and medium/high slope.

A

Pitched

440
Q

____ slope roofs have a slope of up to 3/12

A

low

441
Q

_____ sloped roofs have slopes of 4/12 to 12/12.

A

medium-high

442
Q

Several commonly encountered pitched roof styles include:

A

gable, hip, gambrel, mansard, butterfly, monitor, and sawtooth.

443
Q

The simplest pitched roof is the ___ that slopes in only one direction.

A

shed roof

444
Q

____: very common roof style that consists of two inclined surfaces that meet at their high side to form a ridge.

A

Gable roof

445
Q

_____: Slopes in four directions and has a degree of slope similar to the gable roof.

A

hip roof

446
Q

_____: slope in two directions but there will be a break in the slope on each side.

A

gambrel

447
Q

______: has the break in the slope of the roof on all four sides. Can also be constructed with a flat deck.

A

A mansard roof

448
Q

____: a roof style that slopes in two direction, basically two shed roofs that meet at their low eaves.

A

the butterfly roof.

449
Q

A ______ roof is designed to provide light and ventilation.

A

monitor

450
Q

______ were also once commonly used on industrial buildings for light and ventilation. Roof style characterized by a series of alternating vertical walls and sloping roofs that resembles the teeth of a saw.

A

sawtooth roof

451
Q

____ roof surfaces take their form from the structural system used to support them. Most frequently supported by arches and bowstring trusses.

A

Curved.

452
Q

The ____ arch is a special form of arched roof constructed from short pieces of wood known as lamellas.

A

lamella

453
Q

_____ roofs have been used for occupancies such as gyms, exhibition halls, and auditoriums.

A

lamella.

454
Q

A ____ is created using spherical triangulation

A

geodesic dome

455
Q

A ___ is frequently provided in buildings with pitched roofs to increase the usable space in an attic by increasing the light and ventilation.

A

dormer

456
Q

The simplest ___ roof system uses ordinary wood joists supported at either end by a load bearing wall.

A

flat

457
Q

In type I construction, fireproofing can be omitted form roof supports when the roof is located more that___ above the floor in an assembly occupancy.

A

20ft

458
Q

deflection and vibration are an indication of _____ roof construction.

A

lightweight

459
Q

The design of the ____ roof creates a concealed space that may be several feet in height between the ceiling and the roof deck.

A

inverted roof

460
Q

_____ are the inclined joists used to support some types of pitched roofs.

A

rafters.

461
Q

___ are the standard supports used in shed, gable, hip, gambrel, and mansard style roofs, although trusses can be used for these roof types.

A

rafters

462
Q

If the architect desire to leave the underside of the roof exposed without joists, a structural ridge beam must be used to support the ____.

A

rafters

463
Q

____, which used a curved top chord, were once commonly used for roofs and many remain in use.

A

bowstring trusses.

464
Q

____ use split ring connectors at all joints except the heel plates located at the end of the truss.

A

bowstring trusses

465
Q

Failure of the ___ in arch supported roofs will permit the arches to spread outward and the roof will collapse.

A

tie rods

466
Q

The ____ provides the water resistant barrier for the roof system.

A

roof covering.

467
Q

The ____ is designed to reduce the diffusion of interior moisture into the insulation layer.

A

vapor barrier.

468
Q

The ___ of a roof consists of waterproof material that keeps out rain and snow from the interior of the building.

A

membrane

469
Q

_____ use several overlapping layers of roofing felt saturated with bituminous material that may be either tar or asphalt.

A

Built up membranes

470
Q

The number of layers of roofing felt used varies, but ____ layers is a common design.

A

4

471
Q

A ____ consists of a single membrane laid in sheets on the roof deck.

A

single-ply membrane

472
Q

____ applied membranes are useful for buildings with curved roof surfaces such as domes that would be difficult to cover with other materials.

A

Fluid

473
Q

The ___ permits the free movement of water to the roof drains.

A

drainage layer.

474
Q

The ____ protects the roof from mechanical abrasion. Example includes tar and gravel roofs.

A

wear course.

475
Q

Roof coverings used on ___ are generally one of two broad categories, shingle/tile or metal roofs.

A

pitched roofs

476
Q

A major advantage of concrete tiles over wood tiles is their greater ____.

A

longevity

477
Q

Wood shingles are installed in an overlapping manner so that only about ____ of the length of the shingle is actually exposed to weather.

A

1/3

478
Q

______ shingles are fundamentally combustible.

A

Asphalt

479
Q

____ roofing sheets are generally strong enough to be installed without decking.

A

Corrugated

480
Q

One problem with metal roofing is the potential for ___ when dissimilar metals are in contact.

A

galvanic action.

481
Q

____: a second roof constructed over an existing roof.

A

Rain roof

482
Q

The fire hazards for roof coverings are evaluated by test procedures contained in NFPA ____ which tests several fire exposure conditions for fire originating outside the building.

A

256

483
Q

The existence of two separate roofs can impede rapid and effective ____.

A

ventilation.

484
Q

A ____ roof involves the use of a roof surface of a building for a rooftop garden.

A

green

485
Q

It is not safe to break photovoltaic cells or skylights that are actually ____.

A

solar powered.

486
Q

_____ is curved and will not support the weight of fire fighters. (roofs)

A

Air supported roofs.

487
Q

____ are small structure erected on the main roof of a building.

A

penthouses

488
Q

___ provide natural lighting to the interior of a building.

A

skylights

489
Q

____ provide a rapid means of ventilating heat and smoke but they usually do not have provision for automatic venting.

A

Skylights.

490
Q

From a fire protection standpoint, a high rise building is any building that is _____.

A

beyond the effective reach of fire equipment located at the street level.

491
Q

Modern building codes define a high-rise building as a building more than ___ ft in height.

A

75ft

492
Q

As building heigh increases, occupant safety and fire fighting become increasingly dependent on the features of the _____.

A

building itself.

493
Q

Building constructed 75 or 80 years ago did not have the ____ systems routinely provided today.

A

HVAC

494
Q

The first model building codes for high-rise buildings were introduced in the 1920’s and 30’s and required ____.

A

stair and elevators to be enclosed.

495
Q

The ____ fire remains the most deadly fire in US history.

A

Winecoff Hotel

496
Q

Automatic sprinklers and communications systems were not commonly provided until ____.

A

the last quarter of the 20th century.

497
Q

On modern high-rise buildings, ___ may be accomplished through the fire departments control of the HVAC system.

A

ventilation.

498
Q

Often a high-rise building will be constructed of a combination of ____.

A

reinforced concrete and protected steel frame.

499
Q

Typically, model building codes require 2 or 3 hour fire resistance of the ____ of a high rise building depending on the number of stories and occupancy, and 2 hour fire resistance for ____.

A

structural frame; floor construction

500
Q

Significant ____ in high-rise buildings is extremely rare.

A

structural failure

501
Q

Since the ____, building codes have routinely required that high-rise buildings be equipped with automatic sprinkler systems as well as standpipe systems.

A

mid 1970’s

502
Q

In _____, a secondary on-site water supply is required, usually in the form of a storage tank. (high rise)

A

seismic zones

503
Q

The ____ in a high-rise building will be provided with individual floor control valves.

A

sprinkler system

504
Q

In buildings up to _____, it might be possible to advance hoselines manually up stairwells.

A

9-10 stories

505
Q

One unavoidable problem with ____ is the variation of pressure with building height.

A

standpipes.

506
Q

NFPA 14 requires pressure regulating devices to be installed at hose connections when the static pressure at a 1 1/2 inch hose connection exceeds ___ or when the static pressure exceeds ___ at larger outlets.

A

100 PSI; 175 PSI

507
Q

The voice evacuation systems in high rises are often ____.

A

zoned by floor

508
Q

Another unique fire alarm feature in high rises is the requirement for a two way ____.

A

fire department communication system.

509
Q

Prior to the 1970’s, few, if any, high rise buildings had any provision for ____.

A

mechanical smoke control.

510
Q

Model building codes currently do not require special mechanical smoke removal provision for the ____.

A

floor of origin.

511
Q

All model building codes require smoke proof exit enclosures in all stairs serving floors ___ or higher.

A

75ft

512
Q

Entrance into stairways in high-rises must be made through an ____ or _____.

A

open balcony or pressurized vestibule.

513
Q

Typically, ____ is located on the first floor or level of. fire department access in a high-rise.

A

a fire command center

514
Q

The fire command center is often an enclosed room separated from the remainder of the building by ____ fire rated construction is required.

A

1 hour

515
Q

Many high-rise buildings, especially office buildings and hotels, are designed with a ____ floor plan.

A

central core

516
Q

In a ___ configuration such building services as elevators, stairwells, and service shafts are grouped in the center of the floor.

A

central core

517
Q

___ systems in high-rise buildings are designed to provide for the management of products of combustion.

A

HVAC

518
Q

The elevator code requires a ____ when the elevator hoist way or elevator room is protected by automatic sprinklers.

A

shunt trip

519
Q

The ____ will shut down power to the elevator before a sprinkler discharges water on the elevator equipment.

A

Shunt Trip

520
Q

____: Emergency operating mode for elevators. Recalls the car to a certain floor and opens the doors.

A

Phase I operation

521
Q

Codes contain mandatory provisions for the recall of all passenger elevators with vertical travel greater than ___ in the event of fire.

A

25ft

522
Q

____ operation is designed to prevent the deaths of civilians who may find themselves in an elevator that is called to the fire floor.

A

Phase I

523
Q

_____: emergency elevator operating mode that allows emergency use of the elevator with certain safeguards and special functions.

A

Phase II operation

524
Q

____ operation is designed to permit firefighters to use the elevators after they arrive on scene by overriding the recall feature.

A

Phase II.

525
Q

The ____, which prevents the doors from closing if there is a person or smoke in the doorway is disables during Phase II operations.

A

electric eye safety

526
Q

The _____ that was inoperable in Phase I should be operable during phase II.

A

emergency stop button

527
Q

Because the car controls are operable only from within a car, it is important that ____.

A

a firefighter remain in the car.

528
Q

The classification as an ______ usually applies to belowgrade buildings or portions of buildings that are deeper than some ordinary basements.

A

underground building

529
Q

An ____ is defined by some codes as one in which the lowest level used for human occupancy is 30ft below the main exit that serves that level.

A

underground building

530
Q

___ locations have the advantage of security, relatively constant temperatures, and smaller visual impact.

A

Underground

531
Q

The difficulty in ____ is probably the greatest single challenge in controlling fires in underground buildings.

A

venting heat and smoke.

532
Q

_______ from underground locations is more difficult than in high-rise buildings because of the greater physical exertion required for occupants going up stairs and the greater potential for a stairwell being filled with smoke from the fire below.

A

Evacuation of occupants

533
Q

____ are now required for buildings with levels more than 30ft below the level of the exit discharge.

A

Smokeproof enclosures.

534
Q

One typical requirement is that the underground portion of the building be of ____ construction.

A

fire resistive

535
Q

Codes require ____ for underground buildings even if a portion of the building extends above ground and the aboveground portion does not require it.

A

automatic sprinkler protection

536
Q

Because of difficulty to quickly and efficient ventilate windowless buildings, codes generally require that these buildings be ____.

A

fully protected with automatic sprinklers

537
Q

A ____ structure is a building having its exterior skin consist of a thin waterproof fabric.

A

membrane

538
Q

The major advantage of ___ structures is that they can be used to provide a large, unobstructed interior space.

A

membrane.

539
Q

In an ______, the structure is held up by an air machine that keeps a constant supply of air in the structure.

A

air supported structure

540
Q

The pressure required to keep an air-supported structure inflated is a fraction of the atmospheric pressure on the order of ____.

A

0.35 PSI

541
Q

In air supported structure, because the interior pressure is greater than the exterior pressure, ___ are frequently used to anchor the roof to the ground or substructure.

A

cables

542
Q

For an air-supported structure, when exterior winds increase, the ____.

A

interior pressure is increased.

543
Q

A ____ uses a system of masts and cables to provide the support for the membrane covering.

A

membrane covered cable structure

544
Q

_____ are more commonly used than air inflated or air supported structures.

A

Membrane covered cable structures

545
Q

Technically, the ____ is defined as the mall.

A

covered pedestrian way

546
Q

The ____ can be described as comparable to the business district of a medium sized city under one roof.

A

shopping mall

547
Q

Building codes require that the mall be a minimum of ___ in width.

A

20ft

548
Q

In recent years, major developers of covered malls have preferred _____ protection.

A

unprotected noncombustible

549
Q

Current codes require malls to be ____.

A

fully sprinklered

550
Q

Current codes have eliminated the requirement of a ____ in one story malls.

A

smoke control system

551
Q

In detention and correctional facilities where evacuation is a lot resort, it is necessary to apply the concept of ___ similar to the approach used for hospitals.

A

defend-in-place

552
Q

Correctional facilities make use of ___ sprinklers because of the possibility of inmates committing suicide by hanging themselves from sprinklers.

A

break away

553
Q

Another key element of the _____ concept is the creation of one or more compartments on each floor, separated by a fire rated smoke barrier.

A

defend-in-place

554
Q

An ___ is a large vertical opening extending through two or more floors of a building that is not used for building services such as enclosed stairs, elevators, or building utilities.

A

atrium

555
Q

A ____ is required to vent the products of combustion to the outside whether floors are enclosed or not.

A

smoke control system

556
Q

Current codes base the exhaust capacity to maintain the smoke layer at a specified height above the ______.

A

highest walking level serving the exit system.

557
Q

When sprinklers are installed at an atrium ceiling ____ or more feet above the floor, they will be less effective because of the longer time it takes for them to operate.

A

50ft

558
Q

An ____ can be defined as an event that produces a rapid release of energy.

A

explosion

559
Q

The damage an ___ may inflict on the structure depends on the maximum pressure developed, the rate of pressure rise, the duration of the peak pressure, and the resistance of the confining structure.

A

explosion

560
Q

In ____, the building enclosure is constructed with adequate reinforcement to contain the pressure resulting from an explosion without failure.

A

containment

561
Q

Explosion ___ is designed to quickly relieve the pressure produced by a explosion before it causes excessive damage.

A

venting

562
Q

_____ may include louvered openings, hangar type doors, wall panels, windows, or roof vents.

A

Explosion vents

563
Q

Ideally, explosion vent panels should not weigh more than ___ per square foot.

A

3 pounds

564
Q

____ does not provide for the protection of personnel within a building. The pressure wave developed within the space may be great enough to cause death or injury.

A

explosion venting

565
Q

As a result of the adoption of the _____ or 1990, there has been a significant effort to provide buildings that are readily accessible and usable for individuals with disabilities.

A

ADA (Americans with Disabilities act)

566
Q

Generally, the area of refuge is designed to accommodate ____ wheelchairs depending on the occupant load served.

A

one or two

567
Q

____ are often used for areas of refuge to utilize an elevator as an accessible means of egress.

A

Elevator lobbies

568
Q

_____ must be provided with some type of two way communication system connected to a constantly attended location.

A

Areas of refuge

569
Q

_____ in warehouses can obstruct the penetration of water from overhead sprinklers and also create flue spaces that permit vertical communication of fire.

A

Rack storage

570
Q

Newer sprinkler technology has led to the development of control mode and suppression mode sprinklers used to control or suppress fires in ___.

A

rack storage.

571
Q

Fire codes have requirements for providing adequate access road, either temporary or permanent, before _____.

A

construction begins

572
Q

Reaching the construction site can involve ____ from existing hydrants located on adjacent streets.

A

long hose lays

573
Q

In ____, it can be for more difficult and dangerous to go up to the upper floors for fire suppression.

A

uncompleted structures

574
Q

Newer building codes require that a minimum of one ____ be provided when building construction reaches a height above 4 stories or 50ft.

A

lighted stairwell

575
Q

_____ may be provided by several means including natural gas, kerosene, and propane.

A

temporary heat

576
Q

Fire prevention codes usually require that a ____ be provided during and after welding or cutting with torches.

A

fire watch

577
Q

Although a building may be designed as a fire-resistive building, it does not necessarily have the ______ of a fire resistive building while under construction.

A

structural integrity.

578
Q

If the _____ is destroyed, freshly placed concrete will collapse to the floors below making it imperative that firefighters not be position under during concrete formwork.

A

formwork.

579
Q

On large, long duration construction projects, some level of temporary _____ must be provided.

A

fire protection

580
Q

The installation of interim fire protection is especially critical on ____ projects.

A

high-rise

581
Q

The most common temporary fire protection measure is the installation of _____.

A

standpipes without outlets.

582
Q

Building and fire codes typically require that standpipes be extended before the construction reaches ____ above the lowest level of fire department access.

A

40 ft

583
Q

In some respects, the remodeling of a building can be more hazardous than new construction operations because it often takes place while the building continues to be ____.

A

occupied

584
Q

In newer buildings with sprinkler systems, building and fire codes require valves controlling the water supply for sprinkler systems with more than ____ sprinklers to be monitored at a constantly attended location.

A

20

585
Q

____ tactics from a safe distance are the best course of action for fighting fire in building actively being demolished.

A

exterior fire fighting

586
Q

Ironically, _____ frequently become victims of their own activities and need to be rescued from a building.

A

scavengers pilfering materials

587
Q

The causes of ____ building collapse can be put into two broad categories, nature caused and human caused.

A

non-fire

588
Q

_____ construction is highly susceptible to seismic events.

A

unreinforced masonry

589
Q

Buildings constructed prior to the ____ are generally more at risk than newer building when it comes to structural collapse from seismic events.

A

1930’s

590
Q

Even with severely collapsed buildings, ____ may cause rubble to shift and threaten firefighters engaged in search and rescue operations.

A

aftershocks

591
Q

____ are defined as the movement of rock, earth, or debris down a slope.

A

Landslides

592
Q

____ has increased the potential for landslides because there are more cuts into hillsides to accommodate building development.

A

Urban development

593
Q

Examples of early warning signs for ____ include damage to underground utilities, cracking in roads, and minor slides in the area.

A

landslides

594
Q

_____: sinking or settling of land due to various natural d human caused factors such as removal of underground water or oil.

A

Subsidence

595
Q

_____: a natural depression in a land surface formed by the collapse of a cavern roof.

A

sinkhole

596
Q

____ is usually gradual and more or less uniform when the cause is the removal of an underground liquid.

A

Subsidence

597
Q

Like landslides, ___ are sudden events and represent an extreme form of subsidence.

A

sinkholes

598
Q

One resource available to fire departments to assist them in monitoring weather conditions is by contacting the ______.

A

national Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration.

599
Q

_____ can occur due to the force associated with accumulated snow, water, or a combination of both.

A

Building collapse

600
Q

___ can be described as water flowing were is is not normally expected.

A

floods

601
Q

US mode building codes base their requirements for flood loads on maps of flood hazard areas prepared by ____.

A

FEMA (federal emergency management agency)

602
Q

Collapse can result when ____ on the structural members exceed final design loads due to careless stockpiling of heaving building materials on upper floors.

A

Temporary loads.

603
Q

Another cause of collapse is improper _____ of the construction process.

A

sequencing.

604
Q

Until the final members of the structural frame are in place, the frame is vulnerable to ______.

A

vertical (gravity) and horizontal loads.

605
Q

With ____ demolition, an unexpected collapse will likely involve rescue because it is likely to occur when the building is occupied by workers involved in the actual demolition.

A

piecemeal