Fire Service Technical Search and Rescue Flashcards
1
Q
The consistent use of the ____ to coordinate the activities of rescuers increases the likelihood of a successful outcome for victims and decreases the likelihood of responder injury or death.
A
Incident Management System
2
Q
____: application of special knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely resolve unique and/or complex rescue situations.
A
Technical rescue
3
Q
_____: individual who has been trained to perform or direct a variety of unique and/or complex rescue situations.
A
Technical rescuer
4
Q
The NFPA establishes ____ levels of technical rescuer in each discipline
A
2
5
Q
All ____ should be fully documented with lessons learned to identify additional training needs.
A
training and operational responses
6
Q
All training evolutions should be well planned and organized, with ___ being the foremost consideration.
A
safety
7
Q
Staffing levels, equipment availability, and SOP’s determine when and to what extent the ____ will be implemented at any given incident.
A
IMS
8
Q
An ___ is useful for both large and small departments, but can be especially beneficial to smaller departments that are not accustomed to working large scale incidents.
A
IMS
9
Q
The first emergency services responder arriving on the scene should initiate the ___.
A
IMS
10
Q
____: written or unwritten plan for the disposition of an incident; contains the overall strategic goals, tactical objectives, and support requirements for a given operational period during an incident.
A
Incident action plan.
11
Q
____: in the incident command system, a shared command role in which all agencies with geographical or functional responsibility establish a common set of incident objectives and strategies.
A
United command
12
Q
_____: location at which the IC and command staff direct, order, and control resources at an incident.
A
Incident command post
13
Q
Having sufficient ___ at the scene will help ensure the safety of all involved.
A
resources
14
Q
Every rescue operation requires that the ____ function be carried out.
A
Incident safety officer.
15
Q
ON larger incidents, the IC should assign the ____ function to a qualified responder whose only responsibility is to observe the operation and make sure that it is conducted in the safest manner possible.
A
Safety officer
16
Q
_____: System of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes intended to limit the number of persons exposed to a hazard and to facilitate its mitigation.
A
Hazard control zone.
17
Q
_____ communication is preferred whenever the physical arrangement of the scene allows.
A
face-to-face
18
Q
Regardless of the system that is utilized by the agency, it is important that both primary and backup ____ and signal be known, recognized, and practiced by all team members.
A
communication systems
19
Q
All personnel at a rescue incident or training evolution should be familiar with the ____ before deployment into the hazard zone.
A
communications plan
20
Q
The success or failure of a rescue operations often depends on the ability of the rescue team to develop a clear idea of the _____.
A
exact nature of the problem .
21
Q
Even before the first due rescue unit arrives at the scene, the officer in charge and every other member of the crew should begin to _____.
A
size up the incident.
22
Q
_____ are not emergencies and rescuers should conduct these operations slowly, cautiously, and take less risk than they might in rescuing live victims.
A
Body recoveries
23
Q
The ____ must decide when and if he potential benefits justify the risks to rescue personnel.
A
IC
24
Q
The ___ first priority must be rescuer safety and the second priority victim safety
A
IC’s
25
Large scale rescue operations that are expected to last many operational periods may require the establishment of ____ to support operational personnel.
infrastructure
26
Few, if any, jurisdictions have the ability to manage every possible rescue scenario without the ____.
assistance of outside resources.
27
The technical rescue disciplines identified in NFPA 1006 can be separated into two general categories:
land based and water based rescues.
28
What are the 4 land based rescue disciplines?
Rope rescue, confined space rescue, trench rescue, and structural collapse rescue.
29
All helmets used in land based rescue incidents should conform to NFPA ___.
1951 or 1971.
30
Only ____ accessories should be mounted on helmets used in a potentially flammable or explosive environment.
intrinsically safe
31
To protect their eyes, rescuers should use goggles or safety glasses that meet the requirements of ____.
ANSI Z87.1
32
____ alone do not provide an adequate level of eye protection for most technical rescue operations.
helmet face shields.
33
Firefighters exposed to any noise in excess of ___ must be provided with appropriate hearing protection.
90 dB.
34
Hearing protection devices should have a noise reduction rating of at least ___.
20 dB
35
NFPA ____ lists specific requirements for the amount of reflective striping necessary on structural PPE.
1971
36
All structural PPE must conform to the requirements listed in NFPA ___.
1971
37
____ are the primary type of glove used for land based rescue work.
leather work gloves
38
Gloves used for technical rescue must conform to requirements established by NFPA ___.
1951
39
NFPA ____ identifies 3 categories of life safety harnesses.
1983
40
Only the Class ___ harness offers full security for rescuers in all environments.
III
41
Class ___ harness is intended for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 pounds.
I
42
Class ___ harness may be used in rescues with up to a 600 lb load.
II
43
Class ____ are not commonly used in rescue applications because they offer no upper body protection and require the user to remain in a relatively upright position.
I and II
44
Also known as a full body harness.
Class III harness
45
Harness designed to support a 600 lb load.
Class II and III
46
PPE used for water based rescues must conform to the standards identified in NFPA ___.
1952
47
____ for water rescue are designed to minimize drag when moving through the water.
helmets
48
___ are also available that protect rescuers from contaminants in water such as chemicals, sewage, or other harmful materials.
drysuits
49
Gloves worn during ____ operations should provide a measure of thermal insulation.
water-based rescue
50
______: any atmosphere containing less than 19.5% oxygen found in atmospheric air.
oxygen deficient atmosphere.
51
All personnel within ___ ft of the waters edge, entering the water, or riding in water borne craft must wear PFD approved by the US coast guard.
10
52
The standard outlined in NFPA 1952 calls for personnel engaged in water rescue operations to use a ____ vest with at least 22 lbs of buoyancy.
type V
53
_____ and SABA draw breathing air form the source of supply and discharge the exhaust air into the atmosphere.
Open circuit SCBA
54
_____ draw air from the source, contain the exhaust air within the unit, filter out the carbon dioxide, reoxygenate the air, and resupply it to the wearer.
Closed circuit SCBA
55
All SCBA must be of the ___ type and meet the requirements of NFPA 1981.
positive pressure
56
The ___ prevents the contaminated atmosphere from entering the facepiece in case the face piece leaks.
positive pressure
57
NFPA ___ prevents wearing facial hair that prevents a complete seal between the face piece and the wearers face.
1500
58
Any noted service times represent the ___ amount of working time to be expected from a full cylinder under controlled circumstances.
maximum
59
____ are intended to enable the rescuer to egress to a safe area in the event of a problem with the primary air supply.
Supplied air respirators.
60
Hoses up to ___ft may be used with supplied air respirators.
300ft
61
____ offers rescuers the ability to operate with a smaller profile which is particularly advantageous in confined space rescue and also allows the rescuer to remain in a potentially hazardous atmosphere for much longer than possible with an SCBA.
SAR
62
____ SCBA use a small cylinder containing pure oxygen instead of a larger cylinder containing compressed air.
closed circuit.
63
___ are designed to filter particulate matter or specific airborne contaminants.
APR
64
_____ must be at least 99.97% efficient at removing particles as small as 0.3 micrometers in diameter and are used to protect against airborne pathogens during medical responses.
HEPA filters (high efficiency particulate air)
65
____ should not be used in oxygen deficient atmospheres.
APR
66
____: the practice of preventing transmission of biological pathogen, when providing first aid or health care.
Universal precautions.
67
____ is the practice of containing blood and bodily fluids to minimize disease transmission.
BSI (body substance isolation)
68
____: the process of removing hazardous foreign substance from a person, clothing, or area.
decontamination
69
____ must occur at the incident site to prevent contaminants from being carried to the fire station.
primary decontamination
70
Fire stations should comply with the requirements in NFPA ____ for performing secondary decontamination at the station.
1500
71
Whenever possible, ____ should be used with short, quick strokes.
striking tools.
72
____: tools characterized by large weighted heads on handles.
striking tools
73
____: hand tools that use the principle of leverage to allow the rescuer to exert more force than would be possible without the tool.
Prying tools
74
____: action or mechanical power of a lever.
leverage
75
______: Advantage created when levers, pulleys, and tools are used to make work easier.
mechanical advantage.
76
____: support or point of support on which a lever pivots in raising or moving a load.
Fulcrum
77
___ tools are generally safer than striker tools.
prying
78
It is unsafe to use a ___ on a prying tool.
cheater bar
79
____: hand or power tool used to cut a specific kind of material.
cutting tool
80
____: chopping tool with a thin arched blade set at a right angle to the handle or a wedge shaped blade attached at right angles to the handle of the tool.
Adze
81
_____ are characterized by a heavy metal head with a cutting edge that is attached to a long handle.
chopping tools
82
____ are perhaps the most diversified of the tool group.
Cutting tools
83
Using ___ type tools is generally safer than using other types of cutting devices when working close to a victim.
snipping
84
____ generally work best when the distance between the surface and the object to be stabilized is less than 2 feet.
Jacks
85
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, ____ are becoming increasingly common for many shoring application.
screw jacks
86
For screw jacks, to maintain stability, the shaft should never be extended beyond ____ of its length.
2/3
87
____ should be used for stabilization only and should not be used for lifting.
screw jacks
88
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, ____ are sometimes used to replace wooden cross braces in trench rescue applications.
trench screw jacks
89
The only substantial difference between using jacks and wooden cribbing components is that when the distance between the uprights has been determined, the pipe for the jack should be cut ___ shorter than the measurement
8 inches
90
____ are sized for use with 4x4 or 6x6 lumber and do not have the 6 foot limitation of pipe based screw jacks.
ellis jacks
91
_____ jacks are most commonly used in structural collapse rescue shoring.
Bar screw
92
____ are classified as medium duty jacks
ratchet lever jack
93
____ are the least stable of all the various types of jacks.
ratchet lever jacks
94
____ receive their power from hydraulic fluid pumped through special high pressure hoses.
powered hydraulic tools
95
______ were the first powered hydraulic tools to become available to the fire/rescue service.
Powered hydraulic spreaders.
96
____ are capable of cutting almost any metal object that can fit between their blades, although some cannot cut case hardened steel.
Hydraulic shears
97
To prevent damage to the blades on hydraulic cutters, cuts should be made at ___.
90 degrees
98
____ are designed primarily for straight pushing operations although they are effective at pulling as well.
extension rams
99
____: manually operated hydraulic tool that has been adapted from the auto body business to the rescue device.
Porta-power
100
The primary advantages of the ____ over the other hydraulic tools are its portability and accessories that allow it to be operated in narrow places in which jacks and other hydraulic tools either will not fit or cannot be operated.
manual hydraulic tools (Porta-Power)
101
Most ___ have a lifting capacity of up to 20 tons
hydraulic jacks
102
____ are good for cutting medium to heavy gauge sheet metal and for popping rivets and bolts.
Pneumatic air chisels.
103
_____: tool designed to operate at air pressures between 100 and 150 PSI and during periods of normal consumption it will use about 4-5 cubic feet of compressed air per minute.
Pneumatic chisels
104
____ this tool when operated at 90-100 PSI, will have the exit velocity of the air at the nozzle close to mach 2.
Air Knife
105
___ can almost instantly create a hole 1 foot in diameter and 1 foot deep.
Air knives
106
___ this tool is closely related to the air knife but operates at slightly less pressure.
Air vaccuum
107
___ are tools that can be used to vacuum loose soil from around victims buried in a trench collapse.
Air vaccuums
108
At about 2 lbs, the ___ weighs about 1/10 as much as a circular saw making it much more maneuverable.
whizzer saw
109
The largest ____ can lift lift approximately 75 tons one inch.
high pressure air bags
110
Plywood and other rigid material placed between an ___ and an object can be forcefully ejected if the bag distorts under pressure.
air bag
111
Avoid positioning air bags against materials that are hotter than ___.
220 degrees F
112
____ are considerably larger than high pressure bags and are most commonly used to lift or stabilize large vehicles or objects.
low and medium pressure air bags
113
A low or medium pressure lifting bag may be capable of lifting an object ___ above its original position.
6ft
114
____ generally operate on 7-10 PSI.
low pressure bags
115
_____ generally operate at 12-15 PSI
medium pressure bags
116
Pressurized air bags should never be stacked more than __ high.
2
117
Never use ___ to power pneumatic tools.
compressed oxygen.
118
Specifically, ___ refers to creating a base to stabilize an object in conjunction with a lifting that are in danger of collapse or secondary collapse
cribbing
119
____ is vitally important when either the victim or rescuers are in a potentially dangerous environment.
stabilization.
120
____ is one of the best resources for stabilizing horizontal objects because of its strength and ease of construction.
Wood cribbing
121
Another advantage of ____ is that it provides an audible indication as it reaches its failure point.
wood cribbing.
122
For maximum stability, cribbing should be built in a ____ configuration using three members per layer.
cross-tie
123
Cribbing can be effectively applied to vertical openings equal to a maximum of ____ times its length.
three
124
If rescuers must work under a heavy horizontal object, such as a collapsed wall, cribbing should be installed on both sides of the entry point and not more than ___ ft apart.
4
125
_____: angle cut piece of timber used to ensure close contact between shoring and loads, fill in voids, or change the angle of thrust.
shims
126
____: shims used in pairs to provide close contact between shoring system and the supported load.
wedge
127
____ material is similar to cribbing but is generally much longer and of larger cross-sectional dimensions, usually 6x6
wooden shoring.
128
Pneumatic or hydraulic shores have a minimum load capacity rating of ____.
10 tons
129
The operating range of most pneumatic shows is from ___ to ___ PSI.
100, 350
130
All pneumatic shores have some type of ___ device to keep the unit from retracting when the air pressure is released.
positive locking
131
The top and bottom shore are installed within ___ feet of the top and bottom of the trench.
2
132
A difference in ___ as compared to pneumatic shoring is that they do not typically have a wide variety of available configurations that allow use beyond the horizontal or vertical plane.
Hydraulic shores
133
____ often produce flying debris and sparks when cutting.
rotary saws
134
Putting water on a blade that is already hot from cutting may cause the blade to _____.
shatter and disintegrate
135
_____ blades are designed to cut wood and can be used to cut nails in wood.
Carbide tipped (tungsten carbide)
136
____ blades are designed for cutting steel and certain other metals.
Abrasive
137
___ blades are particularly susceptible to chipping, cracking, and shattering.
abrasive
138
Saws should never be transported with ___ blades attached.
abrasive
139
___ segmented blades are very useful for specific purposes such as cutting concrete.
diamond
140
___ are most often used to cut pieces of wooden cribbing or shoring.
circular saws
141
The major limitation of a circular saw is its ____.
cutting depth, usually 3-10 inches
142
____ are easily controlled and well suited for cutting wood, metal, or laminated glass in vehicles.
reciprocating saws
143
____ are usually more controllable, maneuverable, and safer to use than circular saws and they have less of a tendency to produce sparks and flying debris.
Reciprocating saws.
144
____ account for 40 percent of all chain saw injuries.
Leg injuries
145
____ are commonly used for rescue, forcible entry, and ventilation work.
chainsaws.
146
____: a sudden forceful recoil or violent jerk caused by a chainsaw binding in the material it is cutting.
kickback
147
A dull chain increases operator fatigue and increases the risk of ____.
kickback
148
___ occurs when the upper tip of the bar comes in contact with a solid object.
kickback
149
____ occurs when the chain on the bottom of the guid bar gets pinched and the saw is pulled into the work.
pull-in
150
____ occurs when the chain on top of the guid bar gets pinched, which suddenly stops the chain movement.
pushback
151
Before removing any air filter, always ____ in order to reduce the possibility of dirt getting into the engine and causing damage.
close the choke
152
____ filters should be cleaned at least once per operation and more often in dusty areas.
Mesh
153
____ type filters should be discarded when dirty and replaced.
paper type
154
The fuel tank on 2-cycle engines is usually _____ with a one way valve to let air in and prevent fuel from leaking when operated at different angles.
vented
155
If after starting, the engine of a 2 cycle motor stalls within 10-15 seconds, the ___ may have become clogged.
one way valve
156
The most common exothermic cutting device carried on vehicles is still the ____.
oxyacetylene cutting torch
157
When preheating metal, the flame temperature is approximately 4200 degrees F for a _____ cutting torch.
Oxyacetylene
158
When additional pure oxygen is added to a oxyacetylene cutting torch, a flame of over ___ is created.
5700 degrees F
159
____ should remain upright to prevent loss of acetone.
Acetylene cylinders
160
The oxygasoline cutting torch produces a cutting temperature of ___ with a higher heat release rate than oxyacetylene rustling in greater heat delivery during cutting.
5200 degrees F.
161
The flame in ____ systems cannot travel back through the supply hose.
oxygasoline
162
_____ are cutting devices that consume iron in the presence of oxygen to produce a high temperature jet.
Exothermic cutting rods (burning bars_
163
The torch in a exothermic cutting rod feeds oxygen though the rod to produce cutting temperatures in excess of ____.
7000 degrees F.
164
____ are considered faster to operate than oxyacetylene torches because of the instantaneous burning of the target material results in a lower level of heat transfer.
Cutting rods
165
____ are also ultrahigh-temperature metal-cutting devices that produce cutting temperatures as high as 25,000 degrees F.
Plasma arc cutters
166
_____: pulling tool that consists of a length of steel chain or cable wrapped around a motor driven drum.
winch
167
______ can usually be deployed faster than other lifting/pulling devices, generally have greater travel or pulling distance, and are often much stronger.
vehicle mounted winches
168
_____: an accessory mechanism attached to a vehicle engine, usually linked to the transmission, that supplies power to drive a nonvehiclular device.
PTO
169
Do not pull with the winch for more than ___ when operating at or near the rated load capacity of the winch/cable.
one minute
170
When using a winch, drape a blanket, coat, or tarp over the cable approximately ____ from the hook.
5-6 feet
171
Never operate the winch when there are less than ___ wraps of cable around the winch drum.
5
172
___: manually operated pulling tool that uses a ratchet/pulley arrangement to provide a mechanical advantage.
come-along
173
The best chain for rescue work is ____ also known as Grade T.
Grade 80.
174
The minimum chain size generally used for rescue operations ___inch.
3/8
175
___ should not be attached directly to loads, only the chain.
Chain hooks
176
____ are the most dangerous hazards that rescuers encounter at a trench or building collapse.
secondary collapses
177
Some of the devices that can be used to detect any movement are ____, ____, and ____.
plumb lines, builders transits, and carpenters levels.
178
____: device used to secure any power switches on a machine to prevent accidental or otherwise undesirable re-energization of the machine.
lockout/tagout device
179
Any atmosphere that exceeds ___ percent oxygen is considered to be an oxygen enriched atmosphere.
23.5%.
180
Any atmosphere that is lower than ___ percent oxygen is considered to be an oxygen deficient atmosphere.
19.5%
181
Normal oxygen concentration of the air is ___.
21.5%
182
An atmosphere contains a flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of ___ percent of its LFL is considered hazardous.
10%
183
The LFL of airborne combustible grain dust can be approximated when the dust obscures vision at a distance of ___ ft.
5
184
Reading the ___ many indicate the presence of gases that monitoring equipment cannot identify.
oxygen levels
185
Using appropriate ___ is the hallmark of professionalism.
PPE
186
____ is required for both the management of personnel resources and the protection of responders and civilians.
Scene security
187
If bystanders were involved in, or witness the event, it may be appropriate to ____ in order to preserve the integrity of their statements.
separate them from eachother
188
While operating at a rescue incident resulting from a terrorist act, responders should anticipate ____.
the presence of one or more secondary explosive devices that are targeted specifically at emergency personnel.
189
_____: controlled process of leaving or being removed from a potentially hazardous location, typically involving relocating people form an area of danger or potential risk to a safer place.
evacuation
190
The most common method of organizing any emergency incident scene is to establish _____ as required by the hazards at the incident.
control or operating zones.
191
The ___ is the area where the rescue takes place. Only personnel who are directly treating or freeing the victims are allowed in this zone.
Hot zone
192
On larger incidents, the use of ____ allows supervisory personnel to ensure the operational readiness of personnel who are entering the hot zone.
designated access corridors
193
The _____ is located immediately outside of the hot zone and should be limited to personnel who are not needed in the hot zone but who are directly aiding rescuers in the hot zone.
warm zone
194
Treatment areas, if established at the incident, may be located in the _____.
warm zone
195
The ____ surrounds the other two zones and may include the ICP, the PIO's location, and staging areas for personnel and portable equipment.
cold zone
196
_____ should be used to mark and identify a no-entry zone.
red/white chevron tape
197
Most collapses usually involve ____ and may be structural components or veneer.
brick or masonry block
198
Regardless of the type of communications plan that is implemented, all responders must understand the procedure for notifying their supervisors of ____.
an emergency
199
____ must be kept for the documentation of the incident, the personnel involved, activities performed, and resources expended.
Accurate records
200
Every rescuer has the right and obligation to ____ for which he or she is not qualified for or lacks the necessary resources.
refuse an assignment
201
____: NIMS-ICS organizational subunit responsible for a number of individual units that are assigned to perform a particular specified function.
Group
202
Within the limits of span of control, the ____ is responsible for the actions and coordination of groups and divisions.
IC
203
On larger, more complex incidents, branches may be created and an _____ should be appointed to coordinate the operations of the various branches, groups, and divisions.
operations section chief
204
The ____ is also responsible for coordinating, through the chain of command, with the incident commander and with other functional groups.
group supervisor
205
_____: specialized unit of people and equipment dedicated to performing rescue and extrication operations at the scene of an emergency.
Rescue group
206
____: group within the incident command system responsible for triaged the initial treatment of patients.
Treatment group
207
_____: system used for sorting and classifying people with injuries to determine the priority for medical treatment and transportation.
Triage
208
The ____ is responsible for taking stabilized victims to the appropriate medical facilities.
transportation group.
209
The frequency with which rescuers will need to be rotated through ___ will depend on the atmospheric conditions, type of PPE that rescuers are wearing, and the types of activities in which they are engaged.
rehab
210
___ areas and the personnel who operate them should be independent of operational medical groups assigned to treat victims of the incident.
rehab
211
Ideally, rehab areas are established out of sight of ____.
incident operations and the public
212
Because of the potential for injury, at least _____ should be on standby for the rescuers at significant events.
one ambulance
213
_____ is an essential factor in the management of resources.
Resource availability
214
Units, such as engine companies, that do not need to be close to the rescue area should leave room for later arriving ____.
EMS and rescue vehicles.
215
Emergency vehicles parked out of traffic lanes should ____ so that passing motorists are not distracted.
shut down their emergency lights
216
The two types of power plants that are commonly used to provide power at incidents are ____ and ____.
vehicle mounted inverters and generators
217
_____ can be portable or fixed to the apparatus and they are among the most common power sources used for emergency services
Generators
218
_____ usually have a larger power-generating capacity than portable units and generally have 110 and 220 volt capacities.
vehicle mounted generators
219
Many rescue agencies incident reports as part of an ____ or _____ process that identifies aspects of the incident that worked well and those that need improvement.
after action review; post incident analysis
220
_____: learning tool used to evaluate a project or incident to identify and encourage organizational and operational strengths and to identify and correct weaknesses.
After Action Review
221
_____: general overview and critique of the incident by members of all responding agencies should take place within two weeks of the actual incident.
Post-incident analysis
222
____ is a multi-step process that involves evaluating the potential for specific types of responses that might occur in a jurisdiction, as well as the probability of such occurrences.
pre-incident planning.
223
Often the _____ evaluation process will identify a facility or location within a jurisdiction that represents an unusual hazard to responders due to the nature or frequency of possible incidents.
pre-incident planning
224
____: how often are rescues performed in the response area?
frequency
225
____: have rescue incidents occurred more often during any particular time of the day, day of the week, or time of the year?
Chronological distribution.
226
____: Have rescue incidents occurred more often in some parts of the response area than others? Have the identified areas included or involved natural hazard areas or fabricated areas?
Geographical distribution.
227
____: what types of rescue incidents have occurred in the response area?
Nature of incidents
228
_____: What types of resources, including mutual aid and contract resources, were used in these rescue incidents?
Responding resources
229
____: What types of resources were needed but unavailable?
unavailable resources.
230
In addition to the problems inherent to small, cramped spaces with limited access, the atmosphere in these spaces are often potentially ____, ____, and may contain ____.
explosive, oxygen-deficient, toxic gases
231
_____ influence the potential for cave-in incidents and responders should familiarize themselves with the types of soil in all parts of their jurisdiction.
soil conditions.
232
Aging buildings and buildings under construction are possible sites for ____.
structural collapse
233
Each pre-incident plan should include a brief description of the _____.
problem being addressed
234
Plans should include a list of the ____ that would be required to mitigate the most likely rescue scenarios.
major resources
235
____ contain information that the IC can use to develop an effective incident action plan and improve the ability of responders to respond in a safe and effective manner to any incident.
site surveys
236
Resources that may assist in the development of a site survey for a ___ include reports of previous incidents, flood insurance maps, tide tables, and meteorological data.
body of water
237
Most of the hazards associated with technical search and rescue operations fall into one or more of four categories:
physical hazards, environmental hazards, water hazards, and atmospheric hazards
238
Victims are often found in locations that require them to be moved ______ as some point in the rescue.
vertically, either up or down,
239
____: any weight near the trench lip that increases instability of a trenches wall or lip, or increases the likelihood of a secondary cave in; often imposed from the spoil pile or heavy equipment
surcharge load
240
____: excavated materials consisting of topsoil or subsoils that have been removed and temporarily stored during the digging of a trench.
spoil pile
241
Two factors that have a significant effect on the stability of trench walls are ___ and ___.
surcharge loads and vibration
242
Responders should never take chances with any ____.
debris
243
Storage facilities that contain large amounts of loose and free flowing material such as grain, gravel, sand, or other dry products, present the potential for _____.
engulfment
244
Before responders enter areas presenting engulfment hazards, all machinery and equipment that could produce movement or shifting of materials must be shut off and marked with a ____.
lockout-tagout device
245
Basements and subbasements often contain ___ in which occupants can survive the initial collapse.
void spaces
246
As time passes after the collapse of the structure, ____ can become less habitable for victims and more hazardous for responders because of accumulated contaminants
void spaces
247
The scene of a technical rescue should be ____ to ensure that hazards are not hidden.
illuminated as brightly as possible
248
_____: smooth, non turbulent flow of a fluid that occurs at low velocities.
laminar flow
249
____: combination of gravity acting on water and waters movement against the river bottom
laminar flow
250
_____: the corkscrew like flow of water
helical flow
251
____: effect of waters movement against the shore.
helical flow.
252
______: muddy, cloudy, or murky condition of water caused by the stirring up of sediment.
turbidity
253
An ____ is a segment of water that is moving opposite to the main flow of the current usually because of contact with a rock or other obstruction in the waterway.
eddy
254
_____ are stationary objects in the water such as rocks or old car bodies, which may or may not extend to the surface and may present an entrapment hazard to victims or responders.
obstructions
255
____: obstructions in a waterway within the water itself just below the waterline.
strainers
256
Also known as a diversion dam, the ____ is one of the more dangerous hazards a water rescuer may encounter.
low head dam
257
Commonly called the "drowning machine" the hydraulic action of the _____ is virtually impossible to escape.
low head dam
258
The atmosphere should be sampled at the top, middle, and bottom of the space, or at ___ intervals.
4 foot
259
Because atmospheric conditions can change after responders enter a confined space, some AHJ's require entry personnel to wear ___ whenever they are inside a confined space.
respiratory protection
260
____: reference materials that provide information on chemicals that are used, produces, or stored at a facility.
Safety data sheet
261
Phase I of the incident organizational response
Assessing the rescue incident
262
Phase II of the incident organizational response
Developing the incident action plan
263
Phase III of the incident organizational response
Implementing the IAP
264
Phase IV of the incident organizational response
Terminating the rescue incident
265
____: in a search and rescue incident, the two modes are rescue or recovery
mode of operation.
266
An inadequate or inaccurate understanding of an incident is a frequently cited cause of _____.
responder injury or death
267
The ____ process begins before the initial dispatch and continues during response and arrival.
initial assessment
268
Technical rescue activities generally begin with ___.
a search to locate trapped victims
269
_____: Process of examining an area to obtain information about the current specific situation, probable fire behavior, and other information related to fire-suppression.
reconnaissance
270
before committing resources to hazardous tactical activities the IC should conduct a ____.
risk-benefit analysis
271
For incidents that are expected to last for an extended period of time, an ____ should be requested.
updated weather forcast
272
A member of the responding agency should be assigned to ___ and to stay with them until such a time as they will no longer be called upon to provide information.
locate witnesses
273
____ use concurrent lines to show the elevation, slope, and other features of the land including peaks, ridges, and drainages.
Topographic maps
274
Commercially produced maps of rivers that identify and describe significant features such as rapids, waterfalls, and access points may be available for rivers that are popular with ____.
recreational floaters
275
____ frequently include depth surroundings and names of significant features such as bays, inlets, points, and reefs.
Marine charts
276
_____: information related to the movement of currents and tides in bodies of water.
hydrologic data
277
_____: areas which, from their nature or location, are likely to provide evidence for victim movement.
Track Traps
278
Marine charts, especially for coastal areas, should be used in conjunction with ___ that provides information on currents and tides.
Hydrologic data
279
Additional, ____ can be identified on the charts that may allow shore based rescuers to determine if victims have come ashore on their own.
track traps
280
At the scene of structural collapses, ____ are invaluable for determining probable survivable spaces which will assist responders in developing a search plan.
Blueprints
281
During responses to industrial areas, ____ are essential in the planning process for determining access routes and identifying potential hazards.
site plans
282
_____ show the location of underground power and communication cables, water mains, sewer lines, and other infrastructure.
Infrastructure plans
283
IF the incident will last for an extended period of time, an IAP may be developed that recognizes the need for dividing the incident into specific time intervals, known as _______.
Operational periods
284
At a minimum, the IAP should reflect the possibility that rescuers may need _____.
to be rescued themselves.
285
Many states, provinces, and other governmental and private entities have _____ that are available to respond to a major incident within the state.
incident management teams
286
A rescue group may be created within the ICS/IMS structure to improve the ____ at the incident and clarify responder roles.
span of control
287
The ___ is responsible for supervising and directing the actions of the rescue group and should avoid direct involvement in the rescue activities.
rescue group supervisor
288
An ____ should be involved in all aspects of a rescue.
incident safety officer
289
When more than one rescuer is to be deployed, a _____ should be identified.
team leader
290
In addition to protective clothing and respirator protection, each entry and backup team member must be fitted with some form of _____ except in cases where an entangled line will increase the overall risk or if the line would not contribute to the rescue of the entrant.
retrieval system
291
Support for the entry team will often include ____ to provide safety for entry team members.
rope systems
292
Because of the difficulty of _____, team members should be rotated through the job positions and rehabilitation as often as needed and possible.
search activities
293
Incident ____ include personnel and equipment, and both are critically important to the success of an incident.
resources
294
Effective ____ often make the difference between success and failure.
communications
295
To accommodate failure of any single system, responders should have ______ of communication.
multiple methods of
296
Communications may take the form of any of the following:
direct voice, portable wireless, hard wired, and nonverbal signals
297
_____ are effective where other systems may fail and may be easily misunderstood.
Nonverbal signals.
298
Signals may be used to communicate commands such as:
cease operations/all quiet, resume operations, and evacuate the area.
299
During ___, prepare the environment to be entered and then actually enter the environment.
rescue phase III.
300
The purpose of the ____ is to ensure that only rescuers who are authorized and properly equipped are allowed to enter a rescue environment, and that both their location and their status are known as long as they remain in the rescue environment.
accountability system
301
If possible in the space, any ____ or issues should be addressed before packaging for removal.
critical injuries
302
The possibility for exposure to ___ exists at almost every technical search and rescue incident and equipment may become easily contaminated.
hazardous materials
303
____ must be assumed for any equipment that is exposed during the incident, and decontamination must be completed before that equipment is returned to service.
contamination.
304
Generally, ____ begins at the edge and then progresses away from the edge.
equipment retrieval
305
____ will coordinate the recovery of loaned items, such as portable radios, and the documentation of lost or damaged pieces of apparatus and equipment.
Demobilization unit
306
The ____ is a valuable tool for improving efficiency and pinpointing areas for improvement
PIA
307
Interviews and other research should be completed as soon as possible and the formal meeting should be scheduled to take place within ____ of the incident if possible.
2 weeks
308
_____: before leaving the scene, incident personnel should gather together to briefly discuss what went right and what could or should have been done better.
After action review.
309
The ____ is responsible for assigning someone to write the post incident report.
IC
310
If the scene is still to hazardous to leave unattended, the owner may be required to ____.
post a security guard, erect a security fence, or both.
311
Attendance of a ____ is mandatory but participation is optional.
Critical incident stress debriefing.
312
_____: counseling designed to minimize the effects of psychological emotional post-incident trauma on those at fire and rescue incidents who were directly involved with victims suffering from particularly gruesome or horrific injuries.
Critical Incident Stress Debriefing.
313
The ____ process should actually start before rescuers enter the scene if it is known that conditions exist that are likely to produce psychological or emotional stress for the rescuers involved.
CISD (critical incident stress debriefing)
314
Another name for a minor debriefing.
defusing
315
Rescuers should attend the full debriefing process within ___ hours of completing their work on the incident.
72 hours
316
Two overarching classifications of search are the ____, which uses searches senses to locate victims, and ____, which uses electronic equipment to assist in search.
physical search; technical search
317
The most logical starting point in a search is the _____.
last known location of any victims.
318
____ uses senses to locate and identify victims.
physical search
319
A ____ is a fast, initial response of well-trained, self-sufficient, and very mobile searchers who check areas most likely to shelter victims or provide clues of victim locations.
hasty search
320
____: calling out to victims and listening for responses during physical search.
Hailing
321
The success of the _____ type of search requires that the victims be able to respond to the call.
Hailing
322
Whenever possible, any "hit" by a search dog should be verified by ___.
using a second search dog.
323
____ search involves the use of motion detectors, listening devices, search cameras, and thermal imagers.
technical
324
_____ are available with either of two operating principles: seismic or radar.
Motion detectors
325
____ are electronic devices that are extremely sensitive to movement.
seismic detectors
326
Portable short distance ____ generate a signal that penetrates any nonmetallic building material.
radar units
327
Even with very sensitive search cameras, additional ___ may have to be provided to get acceptable results.
lighting.
328
The heat signature from bodies and other heat producing objects can be blocked by things as simple a barrier as a thick layer of dust when using a _____.
Thermal imaging camera.
329
One strategy that should be used is the assignment of a ___ who has the same or higher credentials as the entry team.
incident safety officer
330
Ambulance personnel will generally not accept ____ for transport.
contaminated patients.
331
____ provide an invaluable perspective in water rescue incidents and may also be used in high-angle rescue incidents.
aircraft.
332
While ____ are capable of searching a vast amount of territory in a very short time, their usefulness is typically limited to locating missing parties and relaying this information to responders on the ground or in the water.
airplanes
333
In addition to a dedicated frequency, a ___ should be assigned to handle all ground-to-air radio traffic.
single point of contact
334
One of the most challenging aspects of managing a technical search and rescue incident may be the _____.
handling of victims of the incident.
335
Victims who are injured but not trapped account for about ___ of all victims.
50%
336
If the victim has been trapped for an extended time, or the extrication will be prolonged, priority must be placed on providing ____.
medical care to the victim.
337
A victims ___ may threaten the safety of rescuers and other victims.
behavior
338
Rescuers who address victims in a calm and professional manner may be able to reduce the likelihood of ____ on the part of the victim.
irrational behavior.
339
Actual evaluation of the victims condition can begin as soon as _____.
visual or voice contact is established with the victim.
340
____ should begin once assigned responders can safely access victim location.
Medical care
341
____ is the process of rapidly evaluating a victims medical condition.
triage
342
The ____ process allows responders to quickly identify life threatening conditions and to prioritize the allocation of medical resources and personnel.
simple triage and rapid treatment (START)
343
___ tags should remain with the victim
triage
344
Rescuers should remember that victim condition can change from the ___.
initial assessment.
345
____: potentially fatal failure of the blood circulatory system.
shock
346
____: result of traumatic injury where the patients muscle tissue becomes swollen and tightly encased. At 4-6 hours the crushed tissue begins to die and the crushed tissue begins to release toxins.
Compartment syndrome.e
347
_____: potentially fatal condition that occurs as a result of crushing pressure on part of the body for four to six hours; the injured tissue begins to die and release toxins. A sudden release of pressure may allow the toxins to flow into the bloodstream and to damage or impair critical body organs.
Crush syndrome.
348
____ occurs as a result of a victim or rescuer remaining mobile for an extended period in an upright position.
Suspension syndrome
349
____: condition in which fluid escapes into the body tissues and causes local or generalized swelling.
edema.
350
Without proper environmental protection, rapid immersion in cold water can kill a strong swimmer in ____.
4-5 minutes.
351
_____: autonomous physiologic reaction to immersion in cold water, in which the blood and oxygen supply is shunted to the brain to maintain core functions, although outward appearances may suggest death.
Mammalian diving reflex
352
All ____ victims should be treated as recoverable.
drowning
353
Several people who have been submerged in water as warm as 70 degrees F have been revived after more than ___ minutes of submersion.
60
354
_____ is one of the leading causes of early death of trauma victims.
impact or blockage of the chest and/or upper airway
355
A ____ may be used to settle dust.
fine water
356
____ is an associated symptom of claustrophobia that may produce a sensation of oxygen deprivation.
hyperventilation.
357
When flushing an area with water, identify _____.
where contaminated runoff with go.
358
Rescuers should assume the presence of ___ even in the absence of victim complaints or typical symptoms if circumstances suggest the possibility based on the mechanism of injury.
neck or back injuries
359
____ are not typically rated to be used independently in vertical operations and, when necessary, should be used with another device, such asa stokes litter, to facilitate such movement.
backboards
360
Most modern basket litters are designed to accommodate a ____.
full backboard
361
____: lightweight compact device for patient packaging; shaped to accommodate a long backboard; may be used with a rope mechanical advantage system.
SKED
362
_____: device used to assist with spinal immobilization and victim packaging for removal when the victim is in a sitting position and/or partially accessible.
KED (Kendrick Extrication Device)
363
______, such as the Life Support Products Half Back and the Spec Pac from Yates, provide spinal immobilization similar to that of the KED with additional advantages such as being able to attach to a rigging system.
extrication harnesses.
364
Removing victims from the area of operations and leaving them without a formal transfer of care to a medical provider could be construed as _____.
patient abondonment
365
In technical rescue applications, ___ refers to the connective materials that are used in conjunction with other equipment.
software
366
_____: in rope rescue, refers to nylon webbing, robe, and harnesses.
Software
367
_____: construction method that produces a continuous strand of fiber that runs the entire length of the ropes core.
Block Creel Contruction
368
The three general classifications of rope may be present at an incident scene are ___, ___, and ____.
lifeline, accessory cord, and utility rope.
369
Lifeline rope may be purchased in ___ to ____ ft lengths.
100-600
370
Much of the hardware today is designed to work with ____ rope.
1/2 inch
371
Only ____ construction using continuous filament virgin fiber for load bearing elements is suitable for life safety applications.
block creel construction
372
_____: rope that consists of a protective shield over the load bearing core strands.
Kernmantle rope
373
The core provides about ___ of the ropes strength and carries the majority of the working load.
75%
374
NFPA 1983 requires that lifeline used for a two person or rescue load, must be capable of supporting a load in excess of ____.
9000lbs (40 kilo newtons)
375
The maximum supporting load of a lifeline is a function of the maximum safe working load, which is characterized as ____ lbs for general use lifeline and the required ____ safety factor.
600, 15:1
376
According to NFPA 1983, all lifeline must elongate between a minimum of __ and a maximum of ___ when loaded at 10% of its rated breaking strength.
1; 10
377
____ helps to reduce the shock of impact on both rescuers and their anchor systems in falls.
Elongation.
378
____ is rope that is smaller in diameter than lifeline.
accessory cord
379
Typical uses for ___ include lashing for litters and raising equipment.
accessory cord
380
_____ is used for many function including hoisting equipment and securing objects in place.
Utility rope
381
_____ may be a downgraded lifeline.
Utility rope
382
When a piece of life safety rope is purchased, a ____ must be started and kept with the rope throughout its working life.
rope log
383
____ should be checked both visually and tactile before and after each use.
Life safety rope.
384
The three principal ways to clean synthetic rope are ___, ____, or a ____.
manual washing, rope washing device, or a clothes washing machine.
385
____ that have a plastic window are not recommended because the plastic can cause enough friction with the rope during the spin cycle to damage the rope.
Front loading washing machines
386
____ should not be stored in the same compartments as gasoline powered tools or fuel for these tools.
Life safety rope
387
____ is used extensively in the rescue field to construct anchor systems, to package and secure victims, and to lash rescue components together.
Webbing
388
The _____ width of webbing is most commonly used for lashing and has a 4000 lb breaking strength
1"
389
____ may be flat or tubular in construction.
webbing
390
___ webbing is stiffer and more difficult to tie in knots. For this reason it is mainly used in rescue work for straps and harnesses.
Flat
391
____ is more supple and easier to tie than flat webbing, and is the most commonly used webbing in rescue work.
tubular
392
____ tubular webbing is the type most preferred in rescue work.
Spiral weave
393
____; simple, open, U shaped fold in a rope.
Bight
394
_____: free end of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, or belaying.
Running part
395
____: middle of the rope, between the working end and the running part.
standing part.
396
____: end of the rope used to tie a knot. Also known as Bitter End or Loose End.
Working end.
397
___ are used to prevent another knot from failing.
Safety knots
398
___: makes an extremely secure connection between two pieces of rope.
Double Fishermans knot
399
____: the preferred knot for joining two pieces of webbing or the ends of the same piece of webbing if a loop is needed.
Water knot.
400
____: attaches a rope or piece of webbing to an object. Should always be secured with a safety knot. Consists of two half hitches
clove hitch.
401
____: attaches rope or webbing to an anchor point or other object.
girth hitch.
402
____ perform three important functions: pulling, braking, and ratcheting.
Prusik loops
403
____ create a movable connection point between two ropes.
Prusik knots
404
The ____ is highly useful in a technical rescue environment because it will hold securely when loaded, but it can slide easily along the rope to which is is attached when unloaded.
Prusik knot
405
_____: a simple knot that is easy to untie. Often used ion safety applications.
Figure eight knot
406
____: one of the most secure knots and one of the easiest to untie.
Figure eight bend
407
____: used to tie a loop in the middle of the end of a rope.
Figure eight on a bight
408
____: one of the easiest ways to form a loop in the end of a rod and the preferred knot used to tie a rope around or through an object.
Figure eight follow through.
409
______: used to tie a loop in the middle of the rope when the ends will be pulled from different directions.
In line figure eight
410
____: used to create two loops in a rope, can be used in constructing multiple anchor systems. This knot is relatively complex to tie.
double loop figure eight.
411
_____: tied to form a loop in the end of a piece of webbing. Often used as a safety.
Overhand loop.
412
____: useful knot in many applications. Can be quickly tied to form a single loop or tied around or through an object.
bowline knot.
413
This knot weakens the rope as much as 30% while the figure eight knot weakens the rope about 20%
bowline
414
_____: used to tie a loop in the middle of a rope that may be pulled from varying directions.
butterfly knot
415
In the context of rescue equipment, ____ refers to the mechanical devices needed to fully and safely construct mechanical advantage systems with rescue rope.
hardware
416
____ is used to protect rope from damage when it must be pulled over sharp or rough edges.
edge protection
417
____ are commercially produced mechanisms that are used to create artificial attachment points in order to improve operational effectiveness.
Lifting frames
418
_____ connect rope and or webbing together or to other objects and support the weight of rescuers, victims, and equipment.
Load bearing fasteners
419
All equipment used in rescue operations should be rated for a general use rating of ____.
600lbs
420
____ are versatile fastening devices with a gate that allows them to snap on to other components within a rescue system.
Carabiners.
421
Only steel or aluminum ____ with locking gates and a general use rating under NFPA 1983 should be used for rescue work.
carabiners
422
____ should never be connected to each other.
Carabiners
423
IF a carabiner has been dropped from ___ or higher onto a hard surface, it should not be used in a life safety application util it has been lab tested.
waist height.
424
____ are specifically designed to handle multidirectional loads.
Tri-links
425
____ are also designed to be used when a multidirectional load must be supported.
Rescue rings
426
____ are designed to prevent the twist that sometimes develops in mechanical advantage systems.
Swivels
427
____ are devices used to attach multiple anchors to a single point.
Anchor plates
428
____ create friction on a rope and allow a person to rappel down a fixed vertical rode at a safe and controlled rate.
descent devices.
429
____: forged metal device in the shape of an eight; used to help control the speedo f a person depending rope.
Figure eight plate
430
____: device used to create friction for rappelling and as a connection point. This style of descent device has extra protrusions to prevent the rope from slipping out of place while the device is in use.
Rescue eight
431
The position of the ears on a ____ allow a rescuer to secure the working end of the rope while under load more easily and safely than with conventional figure eight plates.
Q plate
432
____ consist of an elongated U shaped rod with an eye on one end, a nut threaded onto the other end, and six friction bars in between.
Rappel racks (brake bar racks)
433
____ allow the amount of friction applied to the rope to be adjusted during descent by carrying the number and spacing of the bars engaged.
Rappel racks
434
____ are static hardware used in conjunction with life safety rope that is used as a safety line redundant to the main rope system.
Belay devices
435
____ are designed to allow a person to climb a fixed vertical rope.
Ascending devices.
436
____ devices consist of a metal frame that surrounds the rope and is the base for the pivot pin of a lever having a serrated cam on one end of the loop on the other.
cam
437
Two basic types of ____ are free running and spring loaded.
cam devices
438
_____ also operate with a form of cam, but are significant different. Not designed to be used in hauling systems but intended to only support the weight of one person.
Handled ascenders
439
____ are used to change the direction and point of application of a rope in a way that protects the rope from damage and keeps friction to a minimum.
Pulleys
440
____ are most often used part of a mechanical advantage system for raising rescuers, victims, and equipment.
Pulleys
441
The diameter of the ___ on a pulley should be three to four times the diameter of the rope which they are applied.
sheaves
442
____ are the simplest pulleys used with rescue rope.
single sheave pulleys
443
____ have two sheaves instead of one.
double sheave pulleys
444
_____ have an internal cam that allows the rope to pass freely through in only one direction.
self tending pulleys
445
All ____ must fulfill the same function, to provide a safe and dependable means of securing the rescue rope to a bombproof anchor point.
anchors
446
A responder who did not rig the rescue system should perform the ___.
safety check
447
A concern when rigging any anchor system is to avoid creating ____ between the anchor legs in the system.
too wide an angle.
448
Responders should rig systems so that the angles remain less than ___.
90 degrees.
449
At ___ degrees, each leg of the anchor is subjected to a force equal to that of the weight of the working load.
120
450
At ____ degrees, the load at each anchor point is twice the weight of the working load.
150
451
The most common types of anchors and anchor systems used in rescue are ___.
single and multi point.
452
Living trees greater than ___ in diameter are generally considered to be strong enough to meet the bombproof criterion.
6 inches
453
A vehicles ___ is a reliable anchor point.
frame
454
Anchor created by using either a carabiner or the end of the rope to attach the end of the rope to the standing part of the rope.
Tensionless anchor
455
When utilizing a tensionless anchor, the diameter of the anchor should be at least ___ times the rope diameter.
8
456
The 2 inch flat webbing ____ is a popular choice among rescue technicians looking for a combination of strength and speed.
rigging strap
457
A ____ is very useful for connecting to an anchor point because it is strong and requires no knots.
rigging strap
458
___ anchors work well as long as the direction of pull remains constant.
multi point
459
A pretensioned ___ is one option available when reinforcing a questionable anchor or to provide a backup anchor.
tie-back anchor
460
A picket used in an anchor system should be ___ long and 1 inch in diameter and is pointed on one end and flat on the other to facilitate driving the pickets into the ground .
4ft
461
____ can be configured in a multitude of ways but the most common are the 1-1-1, 2-1, and 3-2-1 configurations.
pickets
462
A single picket can hold up to ____ lbs.
700
463
Pickets are directional anchors and should be driven into the ground ___ of their length.
2/3
464
The ___ of the picket should separate each picket.
length
465
A ____ must be tended nay time a rope supports rescuer or victim.
belay line
466
The recommended ____ uses a lifeline attached to the rescue and a seperate anchor point.
belay tactic
467
____ rescues may occur either above or below grade where the angle of the slope is shallow enough to allow safe movement without a rope.
low angle
468
Hazards at ___ rescue include navigation of any irregularities in terrain and the possible presence of wildlife.
low angle rescues
469
____ rescues occur in environments where lifeline support is essential for safety.
High angle
470
It is acceptable for multiple rescuers and victims to be attached to the same main and belay lines so long as the established ___ for the rope is not exceeded.
safety factor
471
To determine the force required to lift or move a specific weight, divide the known or estimated weight by the ____ of the mechanical advantage system.
ratio (multiplier)
472
Pulleys that move within the mechanical advantage system are referred to as ____.
traveling pulleys
473
Each traveling pulley in a system will contribute a minimum of ___ advantage.
2:1
474
A ____ pulley does not contribute mechanical advantage, only changes the direction that the load travels in a rope system.
stationary
475
____ are essential in the creation of higher ratio mechanical advantage systems and in controlling the location and movement of a rope system.
Stationary pulleys
476
The higher the ratio of mechanical advantage, the more ___ is required to lift.
rope.
477
A ____ has one or more pulleys pulling in line of the direction of the load, rope, and anchor point.
simple mechanical advantage system.
478
One of the most commonly used simple systems is the ___ system, which is frequently referred to as a Z-rig because of the configuration.
3:1
479
The ___ MA system is considered a simple system even though it is technically a 2:1 pulling on a a 1:1
3:1
480
Another common simple system is a 4:1 ____ system which is created using two sets of double pulleys.
block and tackle
481
Rigging for simple MA systems with a ratio higher than ___ is relatively difficult to coordinate and may generate a large amount of friction which can significant reduce the actual mechanical advantage.
4:1
482
In a ____ all traveling pulleys move in the same direction, but at different rates of speed.
Compound mechanical advantage system.
483
A ____ may also be described as two simple systems working in concert.
compound system
484
In a compound mechanical advantage system, the pulley ___ from the load will move faster than the next pulley in line.
furthest
485
The joining of pulleys or simple systems to create a compound system has a ___ effect on the calculation of mechanical advantage.
multiplicative
486
In a _____, the additional pulleys are systems are added within the original system, and not on the haul side of the system.
complex mechanical advantage system
487
The joining of pulleys are systems to create a complex system has ____ effect on the calculation of mechanical advantage.
summative
488
A ___ system can be more efficient than a simple of compound system, allowing for a change of pull direction to be built into the system.
complex
489
____ refers to a system designed for a specific need, or to identify the features of a system that must be built.
Theoretical mechanical advantage
490
____ models for building mechanical advantage systems do not account for fracture and other variables that can significantly influence the system.
Theoretical
491
A ____ system is an excellent example of the difference between theoretical and actual mechanical advantage.
block and tackle
492
If the rope of a MA system is attached to the ___, the underlying simple system will have an odd MA ratio.
load
493
If the rope of a MA system is attached to the anchor point, the underlying simple system will have an ____ MA ratio.
even
494
In addition to the belayer, the three main components to a belay system are the ____
anchor, belay device, and belay line.
495
The ___ line must be 1/2 inch life safety rope rated to a minimum breaking strength of at least 9000 lbs.
belay
496
The ___ belay provides a very reliable means of stopping the fall of a responder should the primary line fail.
tandem prusik
497
Frictioning devices of all sorts can be used for belaying a single person load; however, ___ are designed specifically for this purpose and may work better than devices designed for other uses.
belay plates
498
Certain ___ are designed to double as belay devices.
self tending pulleys
499
____ is a tactic used during descending operations to move a person from a high place to a lower place along a vertical or high angle plane using a system of ropes and harnesses.
Rappelling.
500
____ use the weight of the load to pull rope through a descending device.
lowering systems
501
The primary difference from a rappelling system is that in a lowering system, a tender at the top of the operations controls the ____ with a descent device.
rate of descent
502
____ systems must overcome the effects of gravity to raise of lift a person or object vertically.
Raising
503
Because raising systems are often used in conjunction with lowering systems, raising systems should incorporate some method of securing the load in place when the system is ____.
being reset.
504
Although a MA system can be attached directly to the load, it is more common to ____ the haul system to the main line.
"piggyback"
505
Rescuers are reportedly ___ of all confined space victims in the United States.
60%
506
Each entry and backup team member must be fitted with some form of ___.
retrieval system
507
Retrieval systems consists of a retrieval line attached to either a ____ or to ____.
full body harness or wristlets
508
The mass or material of a confined space often impacts the ability to ____.
transmit and receive messages.
509
Some departments use the acronym ___ to communicate. (rope)
OATH
510
1 tug =
OK
511
2 tugs:
advance
512
3 tugs:
take up
513
4 tugs:
help
514
If a confined space ____ is available, it should be obtained and reviewed.
entry permit
515
_____ must meet criterion of other confined spaces with the addition of containing a hazardous atmosphere, having material with the potential for engulfment, contains inwardly converging walls, or contains any other recognized serious safety hazard.
Permit required confined spaces
516
The atmosphere within a confined space should be sampled from ______ before rescuers enter and should be continuously monitored while they remain in the space.
outside the space
517
____ should not be placed directly into a potentially hazardous material and should remain above the floor of any space that is monitored.
air monitoring tubing
518
____: A location or feature that attracts curious children or adults and is likely to require technical rescue if appropriate caution is not exercised.
Attractive nuisance
519
____ are similar to silos and grain elevators in that they normally contain dry products, but are usually smaller.
Storage bins and hoppers
520
____ may contain pumps or valves for controlling gases or liquids in pipelines, as well as high-voltage electrical equipment.
Utility vaults and pits
521
____ are watertight barriers installed or constructed to provide a relatively dry environment in which to work.
Coffer dams
522
___: penetration of one substance into the structure of another, such as the process of picking up a liquid contaminant with an absorbent material.
absorption.
523
____: adherence of a substance in a liquid or gas to a solid; this is a surface based process.
adsorption.
524
_____: release of a substance from or through a surface. `
Desorption.
525
_____ occurs when a container leaches a contaminant out of its containment and into the confined space where it is housed.
Desorption.
526
One of the most common forms of biological activity with which responders must be concerned is ____.
Fermentation.
527
The biological activity in raw sewage produces ____; in confined spaces such as pipelines and trucks, lethal concentrations are quite likely.
hydrogen sulfide gas
528
____ is the intention introduction of an inert gas such as argon or nitrogen to a confined space.
inerting.
529
____ is often done to clear the space of a confined space of flammable vapors or gases, but in doing so the level of oxygen within the space is also reduce below 19.5%
inerting.
530
In a confined space, even a slower form of the oxidation process, such as ___, can reduce the level of oxygen within the space as well as produce toxic by-products.
rusting
531
A structural engineer may be called to evaluate the space if there is any question about the ____ of a confined space.
structural integrity
532
Most confined spaces have little or no ____.
lighting inside.
533
_____ should be used to adequately and continuously ventilate the interior of the confined spaces to enhance the safety level for rescuers.
mechanical ventilation
534
A commonly accepted industry guideline is to implement ventilation that will result in at least ____ air exchanges per hour.
20
535
With negative pressure ventilation, the area of the exit not covered by the fan casing may be sealed with a salvage cover or similar material to prevent _____.
the contaminants from being drawn back into the space.
536
In the United States an average of ___ to ___ workers die each year in trench cave-ins.
60-100
537
The ____ should work closely with the rescue group supervisor and entry team to ensure that the shoring and cribbing operations are performed in a manner that supports the IAP.
shoring team
538
_____ is the team assigned to the function of building shoring and cribbing elements and other items as needed.
cutting team.
539
____ tools include short handled shovels with a blade that can be swiveled 90 degrees to form a hoe.
trenching tools
540
____ are used to remove dirt from trenches during rescue operations.
collapsible canvas buckets
541
One type of power equipment that has proven useful for trench rescue responses is the ____.
Vacuum truck
542
____ provide a means of quickly removing loose soil from the bottom of a trench.
Vacuum trucks
543
Another type of tool that is extremely useful is the ____ which uses pressurized air to quickly dig through the soil.
pneumatic shovel.
544
According to NFPA 1006, the skill set of a level ___ rescuer is limited to conducting trench rescue operations to a non-intersecting trench that is no deeper than 8 feet.
1
545
Rescuers must consider the ____ in a trench rescue environment to be equivalent to a confined space rescue environment until all hazards have been mitigated.
atmosphere
546
Section 650 or 29 CFR 1926 defines the term ___ at the United States federal level as "a narrow excavation made below the ground"
trench
547
In general, a trench depth is greater than the width, but the width of a trench is not greater than____.
15ft
548
A registered professional engineer must design shoring plans for trenches deeper than ___.
20ft
549
While ___ is recognized as the most stable soil type, rescuers should not automatically assume it to be safe.
rock
550
____ are sometimes described as being hard as a rock and are often almost as stable.
cemented soils
551
____ get their strength through the friction and chemical bonding that occurs between particles.
Cohesive soils
552
____ are characteristically grainy and depending on the size of the particles, may be identified as gravel, sand, or silt.
Granular soils
553
_____ are mixtures of cohesive soils and granular soils.
Loams
554
Regulatory agencies in the United States classify soils into four general types _____ based on several criteria.
Stable rock, A, B, or C
555
Depending upon its composition and moisture content, a cubic yard of soil can easily weigh over ____.
1 ton.
556
The classification for soil should be based on at least ____ performed away from the excavation on freshly excavated samples.
one visual and one manual test
557
Soil composed primarily of fine grained material is considered to be ____.
cohesive.
558
Soil composted primary of coarse grained sand or gravel is considered to be ____.
granular.
559
____ can be rolled into thin threads without crumbling.
cohesive materials
560
A soil is considered to be ___ if a 1/8 inch piece of thread at least 2 inches in length can be held up by one end without breaking..
cohesive
561
If a soil sample is dry and crumbles into individual grains or a fine powder with little or no pressure, it is considered to be ___.
granular
562
_____: Manual test in which a responders thumb can be used to estimate the unconfined compressive strength of cohesive soils.
Thumb test
563
Squeezing a handful of soil from the top of the spoil pile may show the ___ of the soil.
cohesion.
564
In technical language, a ___ refers to the movement of soil or rock in large enough quantity to cause damage or entrapment to a person.
cave-in
565
____: excavated earth near the lip of the trench falling into the trench.
Spoil pile cave-in
566
_____: one or both lips of a trench cave-in, often due to excessive surcharge loads too close to the trench lip.
Lip cave-in
567
____: one or both walls slough-in at the bottom of the wall leaving an overhanging portion above.
Wall slough
568
____: one or both walls shear away and fall into the bottom of the trench.
Wall shear
569
In general, the ____ the excavation, the more likely it is to cave in.
deeper
570
When soil forms layers, especially layers that ____ into the excavation, the chances of trench wall failure greatly increase.
incline
571
Generally, the more ___ present in the soil, the more the soil will behave like a liquid.
water
572
____ can reduce cohesiveness and stability of soil to a dangerous point.
dehydration
573
Sometimes the only trigger needed for a cave-in is some amount of ___.
vibration.
574
____ is invariably present at the scene of a trench rescue incident and must be taken into consideration when developing an IAP.
Ground vibration.
575
Vehicular traffic and construction activities can seriously reduce ____.
trench wall stability.
576
___ include any additional weight in proximity to the lip of the trench that increases trench wall instability and may contribute to initial or secondary cave-ins.
surcharge loads.
577
The full are of the lip of the trench is considered to be a horizontal distance from the trench equal to ____.
the depth of the trench.
578
_____ in the trench or near the lip is prone to sudden and unexpected movement if disturbed.
Loose and unstable debris
579
Exposed utility conduits should be ____ to minimize the possibility of additional hazards being added to the trench.
support
580
Plywood that is used for lip protection should have a minimum thickness of ____.
3/4 inch
581
The industry standard in the US is for the spoil pile to be a minimum of ___ away from the lip of the trench.
2 feet
582
In a trench rescue, rescuers should not have to travel more than ___ to reach a ladder.
25
583
The tops of ladders in a trench should extend at least ___ above the lip of the trench.
3 feet
584
When rescuers and other employees must work in trenches deeper than ___, employers are required to protect workers from cave-ins.
4 feet
585
in ____, both sides. of the trench are inclined away from the bottom of the trench.
sloping.
586
____ is a protective strategy that is used with a trench no deeper than 12 feet.
Sloping.
587
____, also known as stepping, is a method of preventing cave-in by excavating one or a series of horizontal steps or benches, usually with vertical or near vertical surfaces between levels.
benching
588
Both _____ are rather costly options for stabilizing a trench and are also too time consuming to be practical in most rescue situations.
sloping and benching
589
The maximum depth for benching a trench is ___.
20ft
590
____ uses specialized equipment called trench boxes to protect workers in excavations.
Shielding.
591
____ is not designed to prevent cave-ins, rather it is designed to shield the workers from a cave-in should one occur.
shielding.
592
____ capable of telescoping as much as 30ft are sometimes used in deep excavations.
Trench boxes
593
____ is more cost effective than other methods and may be the most common method of protective workers in trenches, especially in pipeline construction.
shielding.
594
When protective strategies are insufficient or otherwise not chosen, a trench may be ____ to protect a space.
shored
595
____ components are frequently used because of their availability and low cost; however it is the most time consuming to install.
timber shoring
596
The type of ____ system most often used in trench rescue incidents consists of 2 x 12 inch planks, attached to 4 x 8 foot plywood sheets that are then set upright against opposite walls of the trench.
timber shoring
597
The planks used in timber shoring systems should be ___ to ___ ft.
10-12
598
The planks for timber shoring should be nailed, screwed, or bolted to the vertical centerline of the full sheet of plywood with _____ of the plank extending beyond each end of the plywood.
1-2 ft
599
A responder can descend a ladder into a trench, no farther than ____ , to measure the distance between the upright at the level of the top brace.
waist deep.
600
In the absence of plywood, the sheeting can be constructed of tightly butted planks placed vertically along both walls of the trench. Horizontal timbers called ____ hold planks in place.
wales
601
Horizontal supports, often called ____, hold the uprights firmly against the trench walls.
cross-braces or struts
602
____ must be installed no more than 4 feet apart, measured center to center, and there must be one within 2 feet of the trench floor and the top of the trench.
cross braces
603
Because the depth of the trench may not exactly fit the required spacing of the top and bottom cross braces, the ____ may be adjusted.
intermediate cross braces
604
If joist hangers are used, the should be placed on ____.
once side of the trench only.
605
Timber horizontal shores are placed from _____ in sequence.
top toward the bottom
606
Overtightening the first cross brace may cause one or both uprights to _____.
shift out of place at the bottom.
607
With vertical and horizontal supports in place, a trained rescuer may descend the ladder far enough to measure the distance for the ____.
second cross brace
608
Once the shoring is in place, ____ may enter the trench but they must stay within the shoring safe zone.
Level 1 rescuers.
609
Lacking vacuum trucks, pneumatic spades or similar equipment, members of the entry team should only use _____ to drag the soil back.
their hands or small tools.
610
When rescuers are inside a collapsed structure, an attendant must be staged ____ to monitor the personnel in the structure.
near the entrance
611
The majority of survivors of structural collapse incidents are ____.
surface victims
612
____ include those who have made or can make their own way out of the collapse, those who are only lightly buried under debris, and those who were not in the building during the collapse but were injured.
Surface victims.
613
Rescues of ____ can normally be accomplished using only the tools and equipment carried on most fire apparatus.
surface victims.
614
Structural collapse incidents are frequently the result of _____ and the cause and nature of the collapse may be investigated by a myriad of public or private agencies and organizations.
civil or criminal wrongdoing
615
____ refers to residential homes, commercial occupancies, and apartments of up to four stories that are principally constructed of wood and light weight steel framing.
Light frame construction.
616
The mane weakness of light frame buildings is the lack of _____ of the walls and connections.
lateral strength
617
Light frame structures are highly susceptible to ___ due to disrupted utilities and high surface to mass ratio of splintered wood and other light frame materials.
post collapse fire
618
According to NFPA 1006, the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to qualify as a level I rescuer for structural collapse are specifically focused on ____.
light frame construction.
619
The ____ of the structure involved can indicate some of the problems that must be dealt with.
type and age
620
Knowledge about the type of structure may also provide important clues about the ____.
number of likely victims.
621
While conducting the reconnaissance, responders should regularly ____.
pause to call out and listen for response from any victims.
622
Responser should attempt to determine the cause of the collapse ____ at the incident scene.
before arrival
623
The ____ may happen in any building, but it is most likely in high rise buildings, and buildings with wood or masonry load bearing walls supporting the floors and rof.
pancake collapse pattern.
624
The ____ is the least likely to contain voids in which live victims may be found.
pancake collapse
625
The ____ occurs when the floors and or roof structure fail in the middle while still connected to the intact outer walls.
V-type collapse pattern
626
The ____ occurs when one outer wall fails while the opposite wall remains intact.
lean-to collapse pattern.
627
The ____ develops when two lean-to collapses are supported by a common intact load bearing wall.
A-frame collapse pattern
628
The ____ occurs when one or two outside walls of a multistory building collapse, leaving the floors attached to and supported by the remaining walls.
cantilever collapse pattern.
629
____ is among the most complex of the technical rescue disciplines.
Structural collapse rescue
630
The probability of ___ of a damaged structure is high.
secondary collapse
631
____ that are downed on or near the rubble pile are some of the most common and most obvious utility hazards in structural collapse.
Live electrical wires.
632
If ventilation equipment is used at the scene of a structural collapse, care should be taken to minimize the amount of ___ that is added to the air.
dust
633
As responders assess the condition of a collapsed structure, it should be ____ to indicate its status.
marked
634
The FEMA search marking system includes the following steps:
Draw a 2 x 2 foot square next to the entry point
To the right of the square, note date, time of entry, and unit ID
After completing survey, add information regarding any hazmat
If significantly damaged, a slash should be added across the box.
If not safe for search and rescue operations, two slashes should be added.
635
Search markings include:
single slash upon entry
second slash upon exit
date and time at the top, hazards on the right, total victims on the bottom, and search team name on the left.
636
Operations in collapsed structures may use the following best practice adopted form the woodland fire fighting community. The acronym LCES stands for:
Lookouts
communications
escape routes
and safety zones.
637
___ search involves entering accessible spaces, hailing possible victims, and waiting for a reply.
void
638
During _____, minimal shoring is placed because it is intended to be a quick primary search to locate victims and to rescue those who can be removed with little difficulty.
void access and search
639
____ removal operations are hazardous and should only be undertaken in order to reach a known live victim in a known location in a structural collapse.
Debris
640
After surface victims have been removed and all known and accessible voids have been searched, the IC may authorize ____ in order to reach a specific location.
selective debris removal.
641
Once all live victims have been removed from the structure, ____ removal can begin.
general debris
642
General debris removal should be conducted as a _____ exposing rescuers to as little risk as possible.
recovery operation
643
Constructing a system of _____ may be the most appropriate and safest way to stabilize heavy horizontal or vertical objects.
wooden shores
644
All struts or braces should be as ____ as possible.
short
645
____ are the simplest form of shoring system and the easiest to construct.
Vertical shores
646
___ consist of a soleplate, vertical struts, a header, and wedges or metal clamps or jacks.
Vertical shores
647
____ are supports installed above the ground or other stable horizontal surface.
horizontal shores
648
____ shores are most often installed to stabilize two opposing walls.
horizontal shores
649
____ consist of a vertical wall plate, diagonal post, and a soleplate.
raker shores
650
____ shores are most often used to brace freestanding walls that are unstable because of deformation or misalignment.
raker
651
____ shores are always installed as a part of a system of 2 or more supports.
raker
652
These shores are the strongest when the ___ is installed at an angle of 45 degrees or less to the horizontal, but can be installed at any angle up to 60 degrees.
raker
653
If a raker must be installed at an angle greater than ____, the wall plate may have to be attached to the wall to prevent it from slipping upward when tension is applied.
45 degrees
654
The ____ of a raker should be embedded in the horizontal surface at about 90 degrees to the angle at which the raker will be installed.
soleplate
655
____: any device that changes the direction or magnitude of a force. Includes levers, wedges, pulleys ect.
Simple machines
656
_____: a simple machine that uses a flat, slanted surface to raise or lower objects.
inclined plane
657
_____ - load is applied at one end of the lever and the force is applied at the other end with a fulcrum in the middle.
class I
658
_____: fulcrum is at one end and the force is applied at the other end with the load in the middle.
Class II.
659
_____: load is at one end and a fulcrum at the opposite end, with the force in the middle.
class III.
660
An ___ is a simple device that uses a slanted surface to raise objects.
inclined plane.
661
An objects ____ is the point where the whole weight of an object is acting vertically downward.
center of gravity
662
When using a sling, the eye of the sling should be positioned to create an angle between the sling and the load of at least ___ degrees.
45
663
Once a load is placed on rollers, it may move rapidly and with little effort; therefore, a ____ needs to be in place before lowering the load onto rollers.
brake system
664
The effects on the ___ of surrounding debris must be considered before any large pieces are breached, cut, or moved.
stability
665
Any piece of ___ that resists being moved should be left in place until it can be reinforced.
debris
666
Making ____ through existing cavities or through walls in light Fram buildings is the best method for reaching victims.
horizontal entry
667
A maximum of ___ adjacent floor joints may be cut to make an access hole provided the joists supports appear undamaged.
2
668
When cutting brick or a block wall that may be incorporated into a light frame structure, an ____ should be employed that may maintain the integrity of the remainder of the wall above and around the opening.
inverted triangle.
669
No more than ___ stud may be cut to permit passage of personnel unless shoring is provided.
1
670
___ is the leading cause of accidental traumatic death.
Drowning
671
According to NFPA 1006, ____ assume a flow rate of less than 1 knot (approximately 1.15 mph)
surface water rescue operations
672
Direct entry into the surface water environment with the intention to rescue victims should be limited to personnel qualified as ____.
level II rescuers.
673
Searchers at water rescue events should be equipped with ____ and should have a pre-established method of communication.
binoculars
674
The minimum initial ratio of tenders to rescuers in a water rescue is ____.
one rope tender for one rescuer.
675
One whistle blast
stop/attention
676
2 whistle blasts
look upstream
677
3 whistle blasts
look downstream
678
three long or repeated whistle blasts
emergency
679
The ____ of the water will have an effect on the survivability profile for any victims in the water.
temperature
680
____ will have an effect on the ability to see victims and may prevent or delay the use of watercraft.
wave height
681
____ can result in hazardous water conditions that negatively affect the safety of rescue operations and change the survivability profile for victims.
sudden weather changes
682
Any ____ that are in line with the victims last location should be noted and marked on a chart, map, or sketch.
landmarks
683
Operating during ___ may prevent or delay the identification of hazardous water conditions.
nighttime
684
____ should be attached to the PFDs and PPE of all responders in order to maximize the likelihood that an individual in trouble will be spotted.
lights
685
In order to minimize time in the water, rescuers should use ____ that they are comfortable with and should aim directly for the nearest point of safety while accounting and compensating for the effects of waves, wind, and current.
the fastest swim stroke
686
Never attempt to go under a ____.
strainer
687
First step on a water rescue is to attempt to ____ a victim by extending their arms or legs while maintaining a secure position on a stable surface.
reach
688
The ____ technique is most useful when combined with the use of watercraft (row rescue)
reach
689
The ____ of water rescue is to throw a floating rope from a throw bag or flotation device attached to a rope to a conscious victim who is within range.
second method
690
____ should be deployed to a victim only after gaining the victims attention.
throw bags
691
A ___ usefulness is limited by the length of the rope and the capability of the person throwing it.
throw bags
692
____ rescue operations use powered or non powered watercraft to approach victims in the water.
Row
693
___ is considered to be a level I skill because rescuers do not bodily enter the water to perform the rescue.
Row rescue
694
To reduce the hazard created by the presence of flammable vapors in an engine compartment, the engine compartment exhaust fan should be operated for at least ____ before starting the engine of a watercraft.
4 minutes
695
Watercraft that approaches a naval or coast guard vessel without communicating intent and receiving authorization may be subject to ___.
deadly force
696
In the US and Canada, _____ is an emergency channel monitored by naval and coast guard personnel.
Marine Radio Channel 16
697
The safest method to conduct a controlled approach to a victim is _____, as this method minimized the likelihood of overshooting the approach and striking the victim.
into the wind and waves.
698
____: the use of nets or cables to roll an item. In water rescue, this method is used to roll victims into a watercraft.
Parbuckling.
699
When rescuing an incapacitated victim, the rescuer should assume the victim has a ___ and treat according to local protocols.
head/neck injury
700
___ rescues involve a rescuer entering the water and approaching a victim by swimming.
Go
701
Go rescues are a level ___ skill
II
702
When a victim is located during a swift water rescue, or level II rescuers are conducting entry operations, one or more ____ should be assigned to an area upstream of the operation to monitor the activity.
spotters.
703
In addition to spotters, personnel equiped with communication devices should be assigned to serve as ____ during operations.
downstream safeties.
704
____ watch for victims or rescuers that may be swept downstream.
downstream safeties.
705
At least ___ personnel should be assigned to serve as downstream safeties, on each side of the waterway in order to increase the likelihood of success.
2
706
____ rescues occur in water that is moving in excess of 1 knot (1.15 mph)
swift water
707
The area of operations in a swift water rescue should extend to the ____ that a victim is likely to be found based on the speed of the water flow and the length of time that the victim has been in the water.
furthest point downstream
708
The determination of ___ should be taken into account when establishing or modifying the area of operations.
water speed
709
The calculation of stream flow requires determining the width and average depth at a given point and the water speed to determine the ____.
flow rate
710
Timing a floating object in the water over a known distance can be used to roughly calculate the _____.
velocity of water in a stream
711
Underestimating the ____ present at the scene of a swift water rescue event can have deadly consequences.
hydrodynamic forces
712
As a general rule, decreases in ___ increase the speed with which an unprotected victim is incapacitated.
water temperature
713
Victims who drown in ___ are more likely to be resuscitated, assuming that their bodies can be recovered in a timely manner.
cold water
714
The priority of a level I rescuer who is in water is to ___.
return to shore as soon as possible.
715
No attempt should be made to stand up in the stream until reaching ____.
the more mild currently at the shore
716
When a throw bag is deployed to the swimmer, the rope should be held ______ until the shoreline is reached.
across the chest with head held out of the water
717
Tactical operations for conducting a rescue in the ____ can be organized into reach, throw, row, and go operations.
swift water environment.
718
The ___ constructed is downstream of the other rescue operations, as a safety system in case rescuers fall in the water.
first rope system
719
The rope system in a swift water rescue is often placed at an ____ to the currently to allow the victims to effectively slid over to shore.
angle
720
Shore based rescues often require the ____.
participation of the victim.
721
Given the limited reach of a throw bag, personnel should be deployed on ____
both shorelines of a larger stream.
722
_____ should be spread out along the shoreline to maximize the probability of a successful throw rescue.
multiple teams
723
Operating a boat or watercraft in ___ is an advanced skill beyond the scope of the level 1 rescuer.
a swift water environment
