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ID Flashcards

1
Q

Late onset GBS begins between

A

3-4 weeks

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2
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis is associated with what virus

A

Adenovirus

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3
Q

What pathogens are concerns for breast feeding?

A

HIV, HTLV-1, HTLV-2 and untreated TB
HTLV = human T-Lymphotropic Virus

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4
Q

What cancer can HTLV lead to.

A

adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma (ATL)

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5
Q

What is lymphogranuloma vereneum caused by?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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6
Q

What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma vereneum?

A

doxycycline 100mg PO x21 days

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7
Q

What are characteristics of lymphogranuloma vereneum?

A

asymptomatic genetical ulcer, spontaneously heals in a few days, followed by fever, chills, myalgias, and malaise with inflammatory reaction in inguinal lymph nodes

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8
Q

swollen, tender lymph node with violaceous discoloration, no improvement from antibiotics. What organism?

A

mycobacterium avium-intracellular

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9
Q

What is appropriate antimicrobial coverage for a neonate with bacterial meningitis?

A

Ampicillin and cefotax - cover for GBC, E. coli, and listeria

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10
Q

Why do you not use gentamicin for neonatal meningitis?

A

Gentamicin does not have good blood brain barrier penetration

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11
Q

What benign skin rash can be seen with viral and bacterial infections, described as symmetric distribution of firm erythematous papules of similar size on upper and lower extremities and face, sparing trunk/hands/feet?

A

Papular acrodermatitis of childhood

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12
Q

What is the most common manifestation of early disseminated Lyme disease?

A

Facial nerve palsy 7 and multiple erythema migrans lesions

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13
Q

Patients with IgA deficiency are at risk for what type of infection?

A

sinopulmonary and GI infections –> intestinal giardiasis is common!
Thinks IgA –> mucosal surfaces

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14
Q

What are symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

malaise, GI sx, myalgias, headache, erythematous blanching macules and papules

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15
Q

What lab findings are associated with RMSF?

A

leukopenia followed by left-shift leukocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia, elevated serum transaminases, hyponatremia (early finding)

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16
Q

findings on potassium hydroxide wet mount - spaghetti and meatball pattern

A

tinea versicolor, malassezia globosa

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17
Q

What is responsible for chronic rhinosinusitis?

A

staph aureus

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of mumps

A

parotid enlargement, fever, malaise, headache, myalgias, orchitis, epididymitis

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19
Q

What is the most frequent complication of mumps?

A

meningoencephalomyelitis

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20
Q

What are signs of congenital varicella-zoster?

A

microcephaly, hydrocephaly, microphthalmia, cataracts, extremity atrophy/malformations, skin scaring

21
Q

What are signs of congenital CMV?

A

IUGR, jaundice, purpura, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications

22
Q

What are findings of congenital syphilis?

A

fever, hepatomegaly, generalized lymphadenopathy, syphilitic rhinitis, maculopapular rash, jaundice

23
Q

What are findings of congenital rubella

A

cataracts, purpura, hepatomegaly, IUGR, PDA

24
Q

What is craniotabes and what infection is it associated with?

A

softened, thinned, flexible area of parietal or occipital bones, “ping-pong ball” effect –> syphilis

25
Q

What infection is associated with porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

hepatitis C

26
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis in the US?

A

non-polio enteroviruses

27
Q

What are the MAJOR criteria of rheumatic fever?

A

Carditis (valve w/wo myocarditis/pericarditis), erythema marginatum (serpiginous), subcutaneous nodules, polyarthritis, chorea

28
Q

When does the rash arise in RMSF?

A

2nd-5th day
blanching erythematous macules –> petechiae
palms and soles if characteristic

29
Q

fever + rash + retroauricular/posterior cervical/posterior occipital lymphadenopathy +/- arthralgia =

A

rubella!!

30
Q

Treatment for RMSF

A

doxycycline

31
Q

What are findings of congenital varicella syndrome?

A

cutaneous scarring in dermatomal pattern, limb hypoplasia, blindness/microphthalmia

32
Q

What virus is associated with DRESS syndrome?

A

HHV-6

33
Q

What is a common cause of papular acrodermatitis of childhood?

A

hepatitis B

34
Q

The rash in Rubella typically starts where

A

face

35
Q

What are the difference in oral rashes between measles and rubella?

A

measles –> white macular lesions “Koplik spots”
Rubella –> soft palate petechiae and/or larger reddish spots

36
Q

What is appropriate treatment for neonatal listeriosis?

A

IV ampicillin and gentamicin –> synergy from gentamicin

37
Q

fine, reddish-pink, pappular rash on face, trunk, upper extremities and thighs, spares palms and soles

A

“sandpaper-like rash” –> scarlet fever

38
Q

Doxycycline can be safely used in patients >/= what age?

A

8 years old

39
Q

In infants, what type of N. meningitidis is more common? A or B?

A

serotype B

40
Q

Spiral-shaped gram-negative bacteria

A

campy

41
Q

Patients with __ deficiency have increased susceptibility to severe infx w strep pneumo, N. men, H. flu…

A

C2 complement

42
Q

What infection typical precedes erythema multiforme?

A

HSV

43
Q

What viruses are the most common cause of myocarditis?

A

coxsackie and adeno

44
Q

Arthritis, macular/utricarial rash, and thrombocytopenia are more common in what type of infectious hepatitis?

A

Hep B

45
Q

What is miliary tuberculosis?

A

disseminated disease due to hematogenous spread of bacteria to lungs and other organs

46
Q

What is the best antibody titer to prove APSGN

A

anti-DNase B

47
Q

ASO titers are elevated following

A

pharyngeal strep infection, NOT skin infection

48
Q

Define EBV titer testing:
IgM-viral capsid
IgG-VCA
IgG-nuclear antigen
IgG-early antigen

A

acute EBV infection
1-2 weeks after acute infection
convalescence from EBV
not much help - goes away in convalescence or after EBV infection

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