Human Factors Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypoxia? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

A

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body which impairs functions of the brain and other organs.

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2
Q

Where does hypoxia usually occur, and what symptoms should one expect? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

Show Answer

A

From 12,000 feet to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being or belligerence occur. Effects are worse above 15,000 feet.

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3
Q

What factors can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

Show Answer

A
Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes
lowered hemoglobin (anemia)

certain medications

Small amounts of alcohol and low doses of certain drugs, such as antihistamines, tranquilizers, sedatives, and analgesics can, through their depressant action, render the brain much more susceptible to hypoxia.

Extreme heat and cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body’s demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia.

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4
Q

How can hypoxia be avoided? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

A

by enriching the inspired air with oxygen

By maintaining a comfortable, safe cabin pressure altitude.

For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental oxygen above 10,000 feet during the day, and above 5,000 feet at night.

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5
Q

What is hyperventilation? (AIM 8‑1‑3)

A

an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs

can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight.

This results in a significant decrease in the carbon dioxide content of the blood.

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6
Q

What symptoms can a pilot expect from hyperventilation? (AIM 8‑1‑3)

A

light-headedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness

Incapacitation can eventually result from uncoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur.

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7
Q

How can a hyperventilating condition be reversed? (AIM 8‑1‑3)

A

The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back to normal.
The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

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8
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning? (AIM 8‑1‑4)

A

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes.
When inhaled, even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur.

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9
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur, and what symptoms should a pilot be alert for? (AIM 8‑1‑4)

Show Answer

A

Use of heaters that have a faulty Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold.

If there’s a crack in the manifold, fumes escape resulting in carbon monoxide leaks

A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning.

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10
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot suspects carbon monoxide poisoning? (AIM 8‑1‑4)

A

A pilot who suspects this condition to exist should immediately shut off the heater and open all air vents and land.

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11
Q

What is the cause of motion sickness, and what are its symptoms? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)

A

Continued stimulation of the inner ear, which controls the sense of balance.

loss of appetite, saliva collecting in the mouth, perspiration, nausea, disorientation, headaches, and possible vomiting. The pilot may become incapacitated if it becomes severe enough.

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12
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot or his passenger suffers from motion sickness? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)

A

open up the air vents
loosen the clothing
use supplemental oxygen
keep the eyes on a point outside the airplane
Avoid unnecessary head movements
Terminate the flight and land as soon as possible.

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13
Q

What is “ear block”? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

A

When an upper respiratory infection, such as a cold or sore throat, or a nasal allergic condition produces congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult.

The eustachian tube may close and you might experience severe pain and loss of hearing

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14
Q

What action can be taken to prevent ear block from occurring in flight? (AIM 8‑1‑2)

Show Answer

A

swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the throat or,

combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose closed and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver).

It is also prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition.

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15
Q

What regulations apply and what common sense should prevail concerning the use of alcohol? (14 CFR 91.17, AIM 8-1-1)

A

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties:

within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage

while under the influence of alcohol

having .04 percent weight or more alcohol in the blood.

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16
Q

For a pilot who has been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) cold medication, how do the various environmental factors the pilot is exposed to inflight affect the drug’s physiological impact on the pilot? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Drugs that cause no apparent side effects on the ground can create serious problems at relatively low altitudes resulting in impaired judgment, decision-making, and performance.

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17
Q

What regulations apply and what common sense should prevail concerning the use of drugs and medication? (AIM 8‑1‑1)

A

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties:

While using any medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety.

The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA.

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18
Q

Discuss the effects of nitrogen excesses during scuba diving upon a pilot or passenger in flight. (AIM 8‑1‑2)

A

A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious inflight emergency. The recommended waiting times before flight are as follows:

Flight altitudes up to 8,000 feet:

  • Wait at least 12 hours after diving which has not required a controlled ascent.
  • Wait at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent.

Flight altitudes above 8,000 feet:

• Wait at least 24 hours after any scuba dive.

Note: The recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above mean sea level and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight.

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19
Q

You recently experienced a bad cold and were treated by your personal physician. You continue to take the medications your physician prescribed, but feel much better. Can you resume flying on your current medical or must you first see an FAA Airman Medical Examiner?

Show Answer

A

(14 CFR 61.53)

Anytime you experience an illness or an injury that you feel may affect your ability to safely fly an aircraft, you must self-ground yourself until you feel better. 14 CFR 61.53 requires that all pilots voluntarily self-ground anytime—

a. They know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make them unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation.
b. They are taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in them being unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation.

If in doubt about your condition or the medications you are taking, consult with an AME before resuming your flying activities.

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20
Q

Can you operate an aircraft while taking an over-the-counter medication for an on-going condition (allergies, hay fever, etc.)? (FAA-P-8740-41)

A

Self-medication or taking medication in any form while you are flying can be extremely hazardous. Even simple home or over-the-counter remedies such as aspirin, laxatives, tranquilizers and appetite suppressors may seriously impair the judgment and coordination needed while flying. The safest rule is to take no medicine while flying, except with the advice of your AME.

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21
Q

Define the term “single-pilot resource management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is the art and science of managing all the resources (both on-board the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure that the successful outcome of the flight is never in doubt. SRM helps pilots learn to execute methods of gathering information, analyzing it, and making decisions.

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22
Q

What are examples of the skills necessary for effective SRM? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

SRM includes the concepts of aeronautical decision making (ADM), risk management (RM), task management (TM), automation management (AM), controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) awareness, and situational awareness (SA).

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23
Q

What practical application provides a pilot with an effective method to practice SRM? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A
The “Five P” checklist consists of 
the Plan
the Plane
the Pilot
the Passengers
the Programming

It is based on the idea that the pilot has essentially five variables that impact his or her environment and that can cause the pilot to make a single critical decision, or several less critical decisions, that when added together can create a critical outcome.

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24
Q

Explain the use of the “Five P” model to assess risk associated with each of the five factors. (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

At key decision points, application of the Five P checklist should be performed by reviewing each of the critical variables:

Plan — weather, route, publications, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel onboard/remaining

Plane — mechanical status, automation status, database currency, backup systems

Pilot — illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating

Passengers — pilots/non-pilots, nervous or quiet, experienced or new, business or pleasure

Programming — autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD; anticipate likely reroutes/clearances; questions to ask — What is it doing? Why is it doing it? Did I do it?

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25
Q

When is the use of the “Five P” checklist recommended? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

The “Five P” concept relies on the pilot to adopt a scheduled review of the critical variables at points in the flight where decisions are most likely to be effective. These key decision points include preflight, pre-takeoff, hourly or at the midpoint of the flight, pre-descent, and just prior to the final approach fix (or, for VFR operations, just prior to entering the traffic pattern). They also should be used anytime an emergency situation arises.

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26
Q

Define the term “aeronautical decision making.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

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27
Q

Explain the basic steps in the decision making process. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

a. Define the problem.
b. Choose a course of action.
c. Implement the decision.
d. Evaluate the outcome.

28
Q

What two models are commonly used when practicing aeronautical decision making? (FAA-H-8083-9)

Show Answer

A

The DECIDE model and the 3P model.

29
Q

The DECIDE model of decision making involves which elements? (FAA-H-8083-2)

Show Answer

A

D etect a change needing attention.

E stimate the need to counter or react to a change.

C hoose the most desirable outcome for the flight.

I dentify actions to successfully control the change.

D o something to adapt to the change.

E valuate the effect of the action countering the change.

30
Q

How is the 3P model different from the DECIDE model of ADM? (FAA-H-8083-2)

Show Answer

A

The 3P process is a continuous loop of the pilot’s handling of hazards. The DECIDE model and naturalistic decision making focus on particular problems requiring resolution. Therefore, pilots exercise the 3P process continuously, while the DECIDE model and naturalistic decision making result from the 3P process.

31
Q

Name five hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and properly exercise authority. (FAA-H-8083-9)

Show Answer

A

Attitude Antidote
Anti-authority. Follow the rules — they are usually right.
Impulsivity. Think first — not so fast.
Invulnerability. It could happen to me.
Macho. Taking chances is foolish.
Resignation. I can make a difference, I am not helpless.

32
Q

What is the first step towards neutralizing a hazardous attitude? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Show Answer

A

Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step toward neutralizing them. After recognizing a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label it as hazardous, and then state the corresponding antidote. Antidotes should be memorized for each of the hazardous attitudes so they automatically come to mind when needed.

33
Q

Define the term “risk management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Risk management is a decision-making process designed to systematically identify hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action. It is a logical process of weighing the potential costs of risks against the possible benefits of allowing those risks to stand uncontrolled.

34
Q

What is the definition of a “hazard”? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

A hazard is a present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident.

35
Q

What are several examples of aviation hazards? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

a. A nick in the propeller blade
b. Improper refueling of an aircraft
c. Pilot fatigue
d. Use of unapproved hardware on aircraft
e. Weather

36
Q

What is the definition of “risk”? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

Risk is the future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated.

37
Q

How can the use of the “PAVE” checklist during flight planning help you to assess risk? (FAA-H-8083-9)

Show Answer

A

Use of the PAVE checklist provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning. The pilot divides the risks of flight into four categories:

Pilot-In-Command — general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency

Aircraft — airworthiness, equipment, performance capability

enVironment — weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions

External pressures — meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress someone, etc.

38
Q

Explain the use of a “personal minimums” checklist and how it can help a pilot control risk. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

One of the most important concepts that safe pilots understand is the difference between what is “legal” in terms of the regulations, and what is “smart” or “safe” in terms of pilot experience and proficiency. One way a pilot can control the risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot’s current level of experience and proficiency.

39
Q

What is one method you can use to control and manage risk? (FAA-H-8083-2)

Show Answer

A

One way a pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category, again using PAVE. These are limits unique to that individual pilot’s current level of experience and proficiency:

Pilot — experience/recency (takeoffs/landings, hours make/model), physical/mental condition (IMSAFE)

Aircraft — fuel reserves VFR day/night, aircraft performance (W&B, density altitude, etc.), aircraft equipment (avionics familiarity, charts, survival gear)

EnVironment — airport conditions (runway condition/length), weather (winds, ceilings, visibilities)

External pressures — allowance for delays, diversion, cancelation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans (phone numbers, credit cards, medications)

40
Q

Explain the use of a personal checklist such as“I’M SAFE” to determine personal risks. (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Personal, self-assessment checklists assist pilots in conducting preflight checks on themselves, reviewing their physical and emotional states that could have an effect on their performance. The “I’M SAFE” checklist reminds pilots to consider the following:

Illness — Do I have any symptoms?

Medication — Have I been taking prescription or over-the-counter drugs?

Stress — Am I under psychological pressure from my job? Do I have money, family or health problems?

Alcohol — Have I been drinking within 8 hours? Within 24 hours?

Fatigue — Am I tired and not adequately rested?

Emotions — Am I fully recovered from any extremely upsetting events?

41
Q

Describe how the 3P model can be used for practical risk management. (FAA-H-8083-2)

Show Answer

A

The Perceive, Process, Perform (3P) model for risk management offers a simple, practical, and systematic approach that can be used during all phases of flight. To use it, pilots will:

Perceive — the hazards for a flight, which are present events, objects, or circumstances that could contribute to an undesired future event, given set of circumstances for a flight; think through circumstances related to the PAVE risk categories. The fundamental question to ask is, “what could hurt me, my passengers, or my aircraft?”

Process — the hazards by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Think through the Consequences of each hazard, Alternatives available, Reality of the situation, and External pressures (CARE) that might influence their analysis.

Perform — by implementing the best course of action. Transfer (can the risk decision be transferred to someone else? can you consult someone?); Eliminate (is there a way to eliminate the hazard?); Accept (do the benefits of accepting risk outweigh the costs?); Mitigate (what can you do to reduce the risk?) (TEAM)

42
Q

Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight. (FAA-H-8083-9)y

A

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action require analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing and performing.

43
Q

Define the term “task management.” (FAA-H-8083-9)

Show Answer

A

Task management is the process by which pilots manage the many, concurrent tasks that must be performed to safely and efficiently operate an aircraft.

44
Q

What are several factors that can reduce a pilot’s ability to manage workload effectively? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Environmental conditions — temperature and humidity extremes, noise, vibration, and lack of oxygen.

Physiological stress — fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals (leading to low blood sugar levels), and illness.

Psychological stress — social or emotional factors, such as a death in the family, a divorce, a sick child, or a demotion at work. This type of stress may also be related to mental workload, such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft, or making decisions.

45
Q

What are several options that a pilot can employ to decrease workload and avoid becoming overloaded? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Stop, think, slow down, and prioritize. Tasks such as locating an item on a chart or setting a radio frequency may be delegated to another pilot or passenger; an autopilot, if available, may be used; or ATC may be enlisted to provide assistance.

46
Q

What is one method of prioritizing tasks to avoid an overload situation? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Show Answer

A

During any situation, and especially in an emergency, remember the phrase “aviate, navigate, and communicate.”

47
Q

How can tasks be completed in a timely manner without causing a distraction from flying? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

By planning, prioritizing, and sequencing tasks, a potential work overload situation can be avoided. As experience is gained, a pilot learns to recognize future workload requirements and can prepare for high workload periods during times of low workload.

48
Q

Why are pilots encouraged to use checklists? (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

The checklist is an aid to the memory and helps to ensure that critical items necessary for the safe operation of aircraft are not overlooked or forgotten. They provide a standardized method for verifying aircraft configuration and a logical sequence for accomplishing tasks inside and outside the cockpit.

49
Q

What are two common methods of checklist usage? (Order 8900.1)

A

a. Do-Verify (DV) method — consists of the checklist being accomplished in a variable sequence without a preliminary challenge. After all of the action items on the checklist have been completed, the checklist is then read again while each item is verified. The DV method allows the pilot/flightcrew to use flow patterns from memory to accomplish a series of actions quickly and efficiently.
b. Challenge-Do-Verify (CDV) method — consists of a pilot/crewmember making a challenge before an action is initiated, taking the action, and then verifying that the action item has been accomplished. The CDV method is most effective in two-pilot crews where one crewmember issues the challenge and the second crewmember takes the action and responds to the first crewmember, verifying that the action was taken.

50
Q

What are several examples of common errors that can occur when using a checklist? (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

a. Checklist items are missed because of distraction or interruption (by passengers, ATC, etc.).
b. Checklist items are incorrectly performed (hurrying checklist; reading item but not verifying or setting).
c. Failure to use the appropriate checklist for a specific phase of flight.
d. Too much time spent with head down, reading the checklist and compromising safety.
e. Checklist is not readily accessible in cockpit.
f. Emergency/abnormal procedures checklist is not readily available.
g. Memory items accomplished but not confirmed with checklist.

51
Q

In what phases of flight should a prepared checklist be used? (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

a. Preflight inspection
b. Before engine start
c. Engine starting
d. Before taxiing
e. Before takeoff
f. After takeoff
g. Cruise
h. Descent
i. Before landing
j. After landing
k. Engine shutdown and securing

Chapter: Huma

52
Q

What are several recommended methods for managing checklist accomplishment? (Order 8900.1)

Show Answer

A

a. The pilot should touch/point at each control, display or switch.
b. Verbally state the desired status of the checklist item.
c. When complete, announce that “___ checklist is complete.”

53
Q

What are “immediate action” items? (Order 8900.1)

A

An immediate action item is an action that must be accomplished so expeditiously (in order to avoid or stabilize a hazardous situation) that time is not available for the pilot/crewmember to refer to a manual or checklist. Once the emergency has been brought under control, the pilot refers to the actual checklist to verify that all action items were accomplished. Only after this is done should the remainder of the checklist be completed.

54
Q

Define the term “situational awareness.” (FAA-H-8083-25)

Show Answer

A

Situational awareness (SA) is the accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the five fundamental risk elements (flight, pilot, aircraft, environment, external pressures) that affect safety before, during, and after the flight.

55
Q

What are some of the elements inside and outside the aircraft that a pilot must consider to maintain situational awareness? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Inside the aircraft — the status of aircraft systems, pilot, and passengers

Outside the aircraft — awareness of where the aircraft is in relation to terrain, traffic, weather, and airspace

56
Q

What are several factors that reduce situational awareness? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A

Factors that reduce SA include fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and inoperative equipment.

57
Q

When flying a technically advanced aircraft (TAA), what are several procedures that help ensure that situational awareness is enhanced, not diminished, by the automation? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Two basic procedures are to always double-check the system and to use verbal callouts. At a minimum, ensure the presentation makes sense. Was the correct destination fed into the navigation system? Callouts, even for single-pilot operations, are an excellent way to maintain situational awareness as well as manage information.

58
Q

What additional procedures can be used for maintaining situational awareness in technically advanced aircraft? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. Perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure.
b. Check the flight routing — ensure all routing matches the planned route of flight.
c. Always verify waypoints.
d. Make use of all onboard navigation equipment — use VOR to backup GPS, and vice versa.
e. Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency —stay within personal limitations.
f. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness —ATC doesn’t always give you direct routing.
g. Be ready to verify computer data entries — incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of situational awareness.

59
Q

A majority of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents have been attributed to what factors? (AC 61-134)

A

a. Lack of pilot currency
b. Loss of situational awareness
c. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM
d. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitudes
e. Breakdown in effective ADM
f. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments

60
Q

A pilot can decrease the likelihood of a CFIT accident at the destination by identifying what risk factors prior to flight? (AC 61-134)

Show Answer

A

Factors such as airport location, runway lighting, weather/daylight conditions, approach specifications, ATC capabilities and limitations, type of operation, departure procedures, controller/pilot phraseology, and crew configuration should all be considered prior to flight.

61
Q

Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident. (AC 61-134)

Show Answer

A

a. Maintain situational awareness at all times.
b. Adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures.
c. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles.
d. Adhere to published routes and minimum altitudes.
e. Fly a stabilized approach.
f. Understand ATC clearances and instructions.
g. Don’t become complacent.

62
Q

What does the term “automation management” refer to? (FAA-H-8083-9)

A

Automation management is the demonstrated ability to control and navigate an aircraft by means of the automated systems installed in the aircraft.

63
Q

In what three areas must a pilot be proficient when using advanced avionics or any automated system? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The pilot must know what to expect, how to monitor the system for proper operation, and be prepared to promptly take appropriate action if the system does not perform as expected.

64
Q

What is the most important aspect of managing an autopilot/FMS? (FAA-H-8083-9)

Show Answer

A

Knowing at all times which modes are engaged, which modes are armed to engage, and being capable of verifying that armed functions (e.g. navigation tracking or altitude capture) engage at the appropriate time.

65
Q

At a minimum, the pilot flying with advanced avionics must know how to manage what three primary items? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot.

66
Q

Automation management is a good place to practice the standard callout technique. What are standard callouts? (FAA-H-8083-16)

A

To assist in maintaining situational awareness, professional flight crews often use standard callouts. For example, the non-flying pilot may call 2,000 and 1,000 feet prior to reaching an assigned altitude. The callout may be, “two to go” and “one to go.” Single pilot operations can also benefit from this practice by adopting standard set callouts that can be used in the different segments of a flight. Examples of standard callouts are: “Power Set”, “Airspeed Alive”, “Rotate”, “Positive Rate — Gear Up”, “Localizer Alive”, “Glideslope Alive”, “Nav Source Verified”, “Approach Mode Armed”, “Approach Mode Active”, “Final Approach Fix”, etc.