Cross Country Flight Planning I Flashcards

1
Q

What are three common ways to navigate?

A

a. Pilotage (by reference to visible landmarks);
b. Dead reckoning (by computing direction and distance from a known position); or
c. Radio navigation (by use of radio aids).

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2
Q

What type of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation? (AIM 9‑1‑4) Show Answer

A

a. Sectional Charts — designed for visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft. One inch equals 6.86 nautical miles. They are revised semiannually, except most Alaskan charts which are revised annually.
b. VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC) — TACs depict the Class B airspace. While similar to sectional charts, TACs have more detail because the scale is larger. One inch equals 3.43 nautical miles. Charts are revised semiannually,
c. VFR Flyway Planning Charts — This chart is printed on the reverse side of selected TAC charts. The coverage is the same as the associated TAC. They depict flight paths and altitudes recommended for use to bypass high traffic areas.

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3
Q

Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and Supplements, charts, etc.) in the cockpit? (AC 91-78)

A

Yes

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4
Q

What is an “isogonic line”? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation. Shown on most aeronautical charts as broken magenta lines.

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5
Q

What is “magnetic variation”? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north.

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6
Q

How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

note the variation shown by the nearest isogonic line. If variation is west, add; if east, subtract. Remember: East is Least (Subtract) West is Best (Add)

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7
Q

What are lines of latitude and longitude? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

Lines of latitude measure north-south position between the poles. Lines of latitude are all parallel to each other, thus they are often referred to as parallels.

Lines of longitude, or meridians, run between the North and South Poles. They measure east-west position

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8
Q

What is “magnetic deviation”? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)

A

Magnetic influences within the airplane itself causing compass needle to frequently deflected from its normal reading

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9
Q

Name several types of navigational aids. (AIM 1-1-2 through 1-1-7 and 1-1-17) Show Answer

A

a. VOR (Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range)
b. VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation)
c. DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) d. RNAV (Area Navigation) includes INS, VOR/DME-referenced, and GPS.

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10
Q

What is a “VOR” or “VORTAC”? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

VORs are VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360°) from the station, like spokes from the hub of a wheel.

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11
Q

Within what frequency range do VORs operate? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

108 and 117.95 MHz

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12
Q

What is a VOR “radial”? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25)

A

A “radial” is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (VOR).

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13
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified? (AIM 1‑1‑8) Show Answer

A

Terminal, Low, and High

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14
Q

What reception distances can be expected from the various class VORs? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

Answer Class Distance/Altitudes Miles

T 12,000’ and below - 25 miles

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15
Q

What limitations, if any, apply to VOR reception distances? (AIM 1‑1‑3)

A

VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.

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16
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment? (14 CFR 91.171) Show Answer

A

VOT (VOR Test Facilities) checkpoint — plus or minus 4°

Ground checkpoint — plus or minus 4°

Airborne checkpoint — plus or minus 6°

Dual VOR check — 4° between each other

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17
Q

What is “DME”? (AIM 1‑1‑7) Show Answer

A

used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid.

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18
Q

Give a brief explanation of GPS. (AIM 1-1-17)

A

Global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world.

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19
Q

What are the three functional elements of GPS? (FAA-H-8083-15) Show Answer

A

Space element — consists of 24 satellites.

Control element — consists of a network of ground-based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks.

User element — consists of antennas and receiver-processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user.

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20
Q

What are the different types of GPS receivers available for use? (AIM 1-1-17) Hide Answer

A

1) fully integrated IFR/VFR installations used to support VFR operations
2) handheld devices.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM? (FAA-H-8083-6)

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) ensures that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times.

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22
Q

Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information? (AIM 1-1-17)y

A

From an FSS during preflight briefings use the RAIM prediction tool

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23
Q

If RAIM capability is lost in-flight, can you continue to use GPS for navigation? (FAA-H-8083-25, AIM 1-1-17) Show Answer

A

Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.

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24
Q

Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made? (FAA-H-8083-16)j

A

Expiration of database

Notams

Operation Manual

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25
Q

How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for? (FAA-H-8083-6) Show Answer

A

Reference the POH/AFM and supplements

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26
Q

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS? (FAA-H-8083-6)

A

No. You must specifically request GPS/WAAS NOTAMs.

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27
Q

How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position? (FAA-H-8083-15) Show Answer

A

3 satellites — yields a latitude and longitude position only (2D)

4 satellites — yields latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D)

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28
Q

What is WAAS? (FAA-H-8083-6)

A

The wide area augmentation system (WAAS) provides extremely accurate lateral and vertical navigation signals to aircraft equipped with GPS/WAAS-enabled certified (TSO C-146) equipment.

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29
Q

What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel-mount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation? (AIM 1-1-17)y

A

RAD

RAIM capability — Many VFR GPS receivers and all hand-held units have no RAIM alerting capability.

Antenna location —Handheld GPS receiver antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin only and is rarely optimized to provide a clear view of available satellites.

Database currency — these databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.

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30
Q

Define the term “VFR waypoint.” (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

VFR waypoint is a predetermined geographical point depicted on a chart

31
Q

After takeoff, you attempt to activate you VFR flight plan but are unable to contact the FSS. What will happen to your filed flight plan? (FAA-H-8083-25) Show Answer

A

When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by the FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then is canceled.

32
Q

Diversion to Alternate/Lost Procedures: What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight (no GPS available)? Condition I: plenty of fuel and weather conditions good. Show Answer

A

Diversion has three steps:

1) What heading do I need to fly?
2) How long will it take me to get there?
3) Can I make it?

Lost procedures = 5 C’s

Climb

Circle

Conserve

Communicate

Calculate

33
Q

Condition II: low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning. Show Answer

A

Get it on the ground! Most accidents are the product of mistakes which have multiplied over a period of time and getting lost is no exception: don’t push your luck.

34
Q

If it becomes apparent that you cannot locate your position, what action is recommended at this point?

A

5 C’s and squawk 7700

35
Q

While en route on a cross-country flight, weather has deteriorated and it has become necessary to divert to an alternate airport. Assuming no GPS or DME capability, describe how you will navigate to the alternate. (FAA-H-8083-25) Show Answer

A
  • Mark your present position on the chart/ mark the current time
  • Consider the relative distance to all suitable alternatives, select most appropriate for emergency
  • Determine the magnetic course to alternate and deviate immediately (Using VOR radials) -Wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/ fuel can then be computed while enroute to alt.
36
Q

What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft? How many channels are available? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

In general aviation, the most common types of radios are VHF.

37
Q

What is the universal VHF “Emergency” frequency? (AIM 5-6-2 and 6-3-1) Show Answer

A

121.5 MHz;

38
Q

What frequencies are used for ground control? (AIM 4‑3‑14) Show Answer

A

The majority of ground control frequencies are 121.6 to 121.9 MHz.

39
Q

What is a “CTAF”? (AIM 4‑1‑9) Show Answer

A

A CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.

40
Q

What is “UNICOM,” and what frequencies are designated for its use? (AIM 4‑1‑9 and 4-1-11) Show Answer

A

UNICOM is a nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports.

41
Q

What does “ATIS” mean? (AIM 4‑1‑13)

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

42
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed? (AIM 4‑1‑9, Glossary)

A

Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures.

43
Q

What frequencies are monitored by most FSS’s other than 121.5? (AIM 4‑2‑14) Show Answer

A

If in doubt about what to use, 122.2 MHz is designated as a common enroute simplex frequency at most FSS’s.

44
Q

What is an RCO? (AIM Glossary)

A

Remote Communications Outlet

Provides ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports

A remote communications outlet (RCO) is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel

45
Q

How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne? Show Answer

A

a. Ask the FSS briefer during the preflight weather briefing.
b. In the Chart Supplement U.S.

46
Q

What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency? (Chart Legend)

A

Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0 and 255.4 are available.

47
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box? (Chart Legend) Hide Answer

A

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.

48
Q

What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency? (Chart Legend) Show Answer

A

A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. These NAVAIDs will have a “no voice” symbol (underline under frequency).

49
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box? (Chart Legend) Show Answer

A

These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site

They will normally be followed by an “R” which indicates that the FSS can receive only on that frequency (you transmit on that frequency). The pilot will listen for a response over the NAVAID frequency.

50
Q

How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR Sectional chart? (FAA‑H‑8083‑25) Show Answer

A

Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on sectional charts with an “H” in the upper right corner of the identification box.

51
Q

What meaning does the letter “T” in a solid blue circle appearing in the top right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have? (Chart Legend)

A

(Alaska only) A Transcribed Weather Broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.

52
Q

If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have? (14 CFR 91.3) Show Answer

A

a. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
b. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

53
Q

What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol? (14 CFR 91.17) Show Answer

A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:

a. within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
b. while under the influence of alcohol;
c. while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or
d. while having an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or more in a blood or breath specimen.

54
Q

Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.17) Show Answer

A

No. Except in an emergency

55
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

A

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft.

Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

56
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.15) Show Answer

A

If reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

57
Q

Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of? (14 CFR 91.103)

A

NWKRAFT

NOTAMs

Weather

Known ATC Delays

Runway lengths

Alternates

Fuel Requirements

Takeoff/Landing Distances

58
Q

Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information? (14 CFR 91.103) Show Answer

A

NWKRAFT

NOTAMs

Weather

Known ATC Delays

Runway lengths

Alternates

Fuel Requirements

Takeoff/Landing Distances

59
Q

Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when? (14 CFR 91.107) Show Answer

A
  1. 105 Seat Belts (Pilots/Crew) Seat Belt, and Shoulder Harness (if equipped): must be worn by all crew (“crew” includes pilot) during takeoff and landing. Seat belt must also be worn while en route.
  2. 107 Seat Belts (Passengers) Seat Belt, and Shoulder Harness (if equipped): must be worn by all passengers during taxi, takeoff and landing.
60
Q

What responsibility does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts? (14 CFR 91.107) Show Answer

A

ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed.

61
Q

When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened? (14 CFR 91.105) Show Answer

A

91.105 Seat Belts (Pilots/Crew) Seat Belt, and Shoulder Harness (if equipped): must be worn by all crew (“crew” includes pilot) during takeoff and landing. Seat belt must also be worn while en route.

62
Q

If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, such as formation flight, what regulations apply? (14 CFR 91.111) Show Answer

A

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation.
c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

63
Q

What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft? (14 CFR 91.113) Show Answer

A

Remember: BGAAR (BIG “R”)

B alloons

G liders

A irships

A irplanes

R otorcraft

Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.

64
Q

When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic? (14 CFR 91.113) Show Answer

A

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

65
Q

State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below. (14 CFR 91.113)

Converging

Approaching head-on

Overtaking

A

Converging — aircraft on right has the right-of-way.

Approaching head-on — both aircraft shall alter course to right.

Overtaking — aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right.

66
Q

What right-of-way rules apply when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing? (14 CFR 91.113)

A

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

67
Q

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? (14 CFR 91.117)

A

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH).

91.117 Speed Limits

Below 10,000’ 250 knots

Below 2,500’ Class C/D 200 knots

Underlying Class B 200 knots

68
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city? (14 CFR 91.119)

A

1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft - Except when necessary for takeoff or landing

69
Q

In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used? (14 CFR 91.119) Show Answer

A

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

70
Q

Define “minimum safe altitude.” (14 CFR 91.119) Show Answer

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

71
Q

What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or Forest Service Area? (AIM 7‑4‑6) Show Answer

A

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.

72
Q

When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure? (14 CFR 91.121) Show Answer

A

By reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft.

If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used.

73
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used? (14 CFR 91.121) Show Answer

A

The elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.