Cross Country Flight Planning III

Question 1

What are all the special use airspace?

Answer 1

TTMCPRAWN

TFR = can’t fly

TRSA = Terminal Radar Service Area

MOA = cant fly, contact agency

Controlled Firing = not on sectional

Prohibited

Restricted = blue hash, need control agency permission

Alert area = hazards to aircraft

Warning area =

NSA- national security area

Wildlife/Marine Sanctuary

Question 2

What is a Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)?

Answer 2

(14 CFR Part 93) A region in which the normal regulations of flight do not apply in whole or in part, especially regulations concerning airspace classification, altitude, course, and speed restrictions, and the like. Examples include the Washington D.C. SFRA and the Grand Canyon SFRA.

Question 3

Where can information on special use airspace be found? (AIM 3‑4‑1) Show Answer

Answer 3

They are charted on IFR or visual charts and include the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency. (Additional information may be found at https://sua.faa.gov.)

Question 4

Where can a pilot find information on VFR flyways, VFR Corridors, and Class B airspace transition routes used to transition busy terminal airspace? (AIM 3‑5‑5)

Answer 4

Information will normally be depicted on the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts, commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts.

Question 5

What are “Military Training Routes”? (AIM 3‑5‑2)

Answer 5

For the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high speed training. The routes above 1,500 feet AGL under IFR and have a three digit identifier IR 004 The routes at 1,500 feet AGL and below are VFR have a 4 digit identifier VR 1008

Question 6

What is a “TRSA”? (AIM Glossary)

Answer 6

“Reject class C” it is airspace surrounding airports where ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft.

Question 7

What class of airspace is a “TRSA”? (AIM 3‑5‑6)

Answer 7

TRSAs do not fit into any of the U.S. airspace

Question 8

How are TRSAs depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3‑5‑6)

Answer 8

a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

Question 9

What are ADIZ and where are they located? (AIM Glossary)

Answer 9

An air defense identification zone is airspace over land or water in which the identification, location, and control of civil aircraft is performed in the interest of national security. ADIZ locations are: Domestic — located within U.S. along an international boundary. Coastal — located over coastal waters of the U.S. Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ) — located over coastal waters of the State of Alaska. Land-based ADIZ — located over U.S. metropolitan areas.

Question 10

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ? (AIM 5‑6‑1)

Answer 10

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows: Flight plan — DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility. Two-way radio — An operating two-way radio is required. Transponder —  Position reports —  For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry. Aircraft position tolerances — Over land, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Land-based ADIZ — pilots must report landing or leaving the land-based ADIZ if flying too low for radar coverage.

Question 11

Discuss “Class A” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 11

Vertical dimensions. 18,000 feet MSL up to and include FL600 Operations permitted IFR Entry prerequisites ATC Clearance Minimum pilot qualifications. Instrument rating Two-way radio communications. Yes VFR minimum visibility. N/A VFR minimum distance from clouds. N/A Aircraft separation. All Conflict resolution. N/A Traffic advisories. N/A Safety advisories. Yes

Question 12

Discuss “Class B” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 12

Vertical dimensions. Surface to 10,000 feet MSL Operations permitted. IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites. ATC clearance Minimum pilot qualifications. Private/Student Two-way radio communications. Yes VFR Minimum visibility. 3 statute miles VFR Minimum distance from clouds. Clear of clouds Aircraft separation. All Conflict resolution. Yes Traffic advisories. Yes Safety advisories. Yes

Question 13

Discuss “Class C” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 13

Vertical dimensions. Surface to 4,000 feet AGL (charted MSL) Operations permitted. IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites. ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all Minimum pilot qualifications. Student certificate Two-way radio communications. Yes VFR Minimum visibility. 3 statute miles VFR Minimum distance from clouds. 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal Aircraft separation. IFR, SVFR and runway operations Conflict resolution. Between IFR and VFR operations Traffic advisories. Yes Safety advisories. Yes

Question 14

Discuss “Class D” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 14

Vertical dimensions. Surface to 2,500 feet AGL (charted MSL)

Operations permitted. IFR and VFR

Entry prerequisites. ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all

Minimum pilot qualifications. Student certificate

Two-way radio communications. Yes

VFR Minimum visibility. 3 statute miles VFR Minimum distance from clouds. 500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal

Aircraft separation. IFR, SVFR and runway operations

Conflict resolution. No

Traffic advisories. Workload permitting

Safety advisories. Yes

Question 15

Discuss “Class E” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 15

Vertical dimensions: Except for 18,000 feet MSL, no defined vertical limit. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Operations permitted. IFR and VFR Entry prerequisites. ATC clearance for IFR Minimum pilot qualifications. Student certificate Two-way radio communications. Yes for IFR VFR minimum visibility. *3 statute miles VFR minimum distance from clouds. *500’ below, 1,000’ above, and 2,000’ horizontal Aircraft separation. IFR and SVFR Conflict resolution. No Traffic advisories. Workload permitting Safety advisories. Yes *Different visibility minima and distance cloud requirements exist for operations above 10,000 feet MSL and Special VFR.

Question 16

Discuss “Class G” airspace. Vertical dimensions Operations permitted Entry prerequisites Minimum pilot qualifications Two-way radio communications VFR Minimum visibility VFR Minimum distance from clouds Aircraft separation Conflict resolution Traffic advisories Safety advisories

Answer 16

Vertical dimensions Surface up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace,

not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL

Operations permitted. IFR and VFR

Entry prerequisites. None Minimum pilot qualifications. Student certificate

Two-way radio communications. No

VFR minimum visibility. *1 statute mile VFR

minimum distance from clouds. *500’ below, 1,000’ above and 2,000’ horizontal

Aircraft separation. None

Conflict resolution. No

Traffic advisories. Workload permitting

Safety advisories. Yes

*Different visibility minima and distance from cloud requirements exist for night operations, operations above 10,000 feet MSL, and operations below 1,200 feet AGL.

Question 17

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required? (NTSB Part 830.5)

Answer 17

FIDO-25-PCC Flight control system malfunction Inflight fire Display loss (cockpit display) Overdue aircraft (believed to be in accident) $25k property damage Propeller blade released from aircraft Crewmember unable to perform normal duties Collision in flight

Question 18

Define “aircraft incident.” (NTSB Part 830.2)

Answer 18

an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Question 19

Define “aircraft accident.” (NTSB Part 830.2)

Answer 19

BDSD:

Board,

Disembarked,

Suffers death,

Damage

an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight + all such persons have disembarked + person suffers death or serious injury or the aircraft receives substantial damage

Question 20

Define the term “serious injury.” (NTSB Part 830.2)

Answer 20

HIS2F Hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; Involves any internal organ; Severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage 2nd - or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface Fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose)

Question 21

Define the term “substantial damage.” (NTSB Part 830.2)

Answer 21

damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairings or cowling dented skin small punctured holes in the skin or fabric ground damage to rotor or propeller blades and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part.

Question 22

Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft “accident” even if there were no injuries? (NTSB Part 830)

Answer 22

An aircraft accident can involve substantial damage and/or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

Question 23

Where are accident or incident reports filed? (NTSB Part 830)

Answer 23

with the field office of the NTSB nearest the accident or incident.

Question 24

After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB? (NTSB Part 830)

Answer 24

a. Within 10 days after an accident;
b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing.

Note: A report on an “Incident” for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.

Question 25

Can the FAA use reports submitted to NASA for enforcement purposes? (14 CFR 91.25; AC 00-46)

Answer 25

No Except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program. By submitting a report within 10 days following an incident, the pilot is not protected from the FAA finding a violation of regulation, but may be providing himself some immunity from a civil penalty or possible suspension of certificate.

Question 26

What type of aeronautical lighting is “VASI”? (AIM 2‑1‑2)

Answer 26

Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to a runway. Red Over Red — below Glide Path Red Over White — on Glide Path White Over White — above Glide Path

Question 27

What is “PAPI”? (AIM 2‑1‑2)

Answer 27

The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) similar to the VASI These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. Four white lights High (More than 3.5 degrees) Three white one red. Slightly high (3.2 degrees) Two white two red. On glide path (3 degrees) One white three red. Slightly low (2.8 degrees) Four red lights. Low (Less than 2.5 degrees)

Question 28

What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of daylight indicate? (AIM 2-1-10)

Answer 28

Often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

Question 29

What are the six types of signs installed at airports? (AIM 2-3-8 through 2-3-13)

Answer 29

a. Mandatory instruction sign — red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area. b. Location sign — black background/yellow inscription/yellow border; do not have arrows; used to identify a taxiway or runway location, the boundary of the runway, or identify an ILS critical area. c. Direction sign — yellow background/black inscription; identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection that a pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of. d. Destination sign — yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides information on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas, etc. e. Information sign — yellow background/black inscription; used to provide the pilot with information on areas that can’t be seen from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures, etc. f. Runway distance remaining sign — black background/white numeral inscription; indicates the distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet.

Question 30

What color are runway markings? Taxiway markings? (AIM 2‑3‑1)

Answer 30

Markings for runways are white. Markings for taxiways, areas not intended for use by aircraft (closed and hazardous areas), and holding positions (even if they are on a runway) are yellow.

Question 31

What airport marking aids will be used to indicate the following? (AIM 2‑3‑3, 2-3-5, 2-3-6) Show Answer

Answer 31

Runway Threshold Markings — These come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing.

Displaced Threshold — A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. A displaced threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction. A ten-foot wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.

Runway Hold Position Markings — For taxiways, these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway. They are also installed on runways only if the runway is normally used by air traffic control for “land, hold short” operations. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway.

Temporarily closed runways and taxiways — Provides a visual indication to pilots that a runway/taxiway is temporarily closed. Yellow crosses are placed on the runway only at each end of the runway. Closed taxiways are blocked with barricades or may utilize a yellow cross at the entrance to the taxiway.

Permanently closed runways and taxiways — For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000-foot intervals.

Question 32

What are the different methods a pilot may use to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without an operating control tower? (AIM 4‑1‑9, 4‑3‑4)

Answer 32

Obtain an advisory from UNICOM, which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs, etc.

If these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information.

Question 33

What is the standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing? (AIM 4‑3‑3)

Answer 33

When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right.

Question 34

What is considered standard for traffic pattern altitude? (AIM 4‑3‑3)

Answer 34

Unless otherwise established, 1,000 feet AGL is the recommended traffic pattern altitude. At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller-driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1,500 feet AGL. Also, traffic pattern altitudes for military turbojet aircraft sometimes extend up to 2,500 feet AGL.

Question 35

What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4‑3‑3)

Answer 35

A pilot should plan to enter the traffic pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude.

When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

Question 36

If in doubt about the traffic pattern altitude for a particular airport, what publication can provide this information?

Answer 36

The Chart Supplement U.S.

Question 37

What is an “ARTCC,” and what useful service can it provide to VFR flights? (AIM Glossary)

Answer 37

An “Air Route Traffic Control Center” is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight.

Certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR aircraft (VFR Flight Following).

Frequencies may be obtained from FSS or the Chart Supplement U.S. Also, IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted. If departing from an airport with a control tower, you can request the appropriate frequency from them.

Question 38

What are the following transponder codes? (AIM 4‑1‑20, 6‑4‑2) 1200 7500 7600 7700

Answer 38

1200 — VFR operations

7500 — Hijack

7600 — Communications failure

7700 — Emergency

Question 39

When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4‑3‑2)

Answer 39

Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

Question 40

What communication procedures are recommended when departing a Class D airspace area? (AIM 4‑3‑2)

Answer 40

Remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information.

In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.

Question 41

How do you convert from standard time to coordinated universal time? (AIM 4‑2‑12) Show Answer

Answer 41

Pacific Standard Time add 8 hours or 7 during daylight savings (march through Nov)

Question 42

Arrange the radio facilities listed below in the order they would be used when operating into or out of a tower controlled airport within Class B, C, or D airspace.

Approach Control

ATIS

Ground Control

Control Tower

Clearance Delivery

Departure Control

Answer 42

Arriving Aircraft: ATIS, Approach Control, Control Tower, Ground Control

Departing Aircraft: ATIS, Clearance Delivery (if required for the surrounding airspace, i.e., Class B, C or D airspace), Ground Control, Control Tower, Departure Control.

Question 43

What are “NOTAMs”? (AIM 5‑1‑3)

Answer 43

is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS’s, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations. NOTAMs can be viewed via the PilotWeb site: https://pilotweb.nas.faa.gov/PilotWeb/

Notices To Airmen (NOTAM) — time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature, or not known sufficiently in advance

receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System.

Question 44

What are the five categories of NOTAMs? (AIM 5-1-3)

Answer 44

a. (D) NOTAMs — Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication and pertains to en route navigational aids, civil public-use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures.
b. FDC NOTAMs — Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage.
c. POINTER NOTAMs — issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; such as an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier.
d. SAA NOTAMs—are issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule.
e. MILITARY NOTAMs — pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS.

Question 45

All (D) NOTAMS will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords? (AIM 5-1-3) Show Answer

Answer 45

RWY, TWY, RAMP, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, (U) unverified, (O) other

Question 46

What is a “TFR”? (AC 91-63)

Answer 46

A temporary flight restriction (TFR) is a regulatory action issued via the U.S. NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from an AFSS or on the Internet at www.faa.gov. Exam Tip: On the day of your practical test, verify that a last minute TFR hasn’t been issued for your area or along your planned route of flight.

Question 47

Where can NOTAM information be obtained? (AIM 5‑1‑3) Show Answer

Answer 47

a. Flight Service Station b. Notice to Airman Publication (NTAP) — printed NOTAMs c. DUATs vendors d. Internet website — www.faa.gov/pilots/flt_plan/notams/ e. Broadcast Flight Information Services (FIS-B) — displayed in cockpit

Question 48

When are VFR flight plans required to be filed? (AIM 5‑1‑4)

Answer 48

Except for operations in or penetrating a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ, a flight plan is not required for VFR flight; however, it is strongly recommended that one be filed with an FAA FSS when making extended cross-country flights. This will ensure that you receive VFR Search and Rescue Protection.

Question 49

What is a DVFR flight plan? (AIM 5‑1‑6)

Answer 49

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ are required to file VFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

Question 50

When you land at an airport with an ATC tower in operation will the tower automatically close your flight plan? (AIM 5‑1‑14) Show Answer

Answer 50

NO. You should close your flight plan with the nearest FSS, or if one is not available, you may request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation.

Question 51

If your flight is behind schedule, and you do not report the delay, or you forget to close your flight plan, how much time from ETA does the FSS allow before search and rescue efforts are begun? (AIM 5‑1‑14) Show Answer

Answer 51

If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within one-half hour after your ETA, Search and Rescue procedures are started.

Question 52

What is wake turbulence? (AIM Glossary)

Answer 52

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash, both on the ground and in the air.

Question 53

Where are wake turbulence and wingtip vortices likely to occur? (AIM 7‑3‑3) Show Answer

Answer 53

All aircraft generate turbulence and associated wingtip vortices. In general, avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, especially at low altitudes. Also of concern is the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is HEAVY, CLEAN and SLOW.

Question 54

What operational procedures should be followed when wake vortices are suspected to exist? (AIM 7‑3‑6) Show Answer

Answer 54

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway — Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, when parallel runway is closer than 2,500 feet — Consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path, and note its touchdown point.
c. Landing behind a larger aircraft, crossing runway — Cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path.
d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway — Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well prior to rotation point.
e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft, crossing runway — Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flightpath. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.
f. Departing behind a large aircraft — Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point and rotate prior to the larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft’s wake. Avoid subsequent headings that will cross below and behind a larger aircraft.
g. Intersection takeoffs, same runway — Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, especially of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircraft’s path.
h. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing — Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach or a touch-and-go landing, particularly in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing.
i. En route VFR (thousand-foot altitude plus 500 feet) — Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind. Remember: Acceptance of instructions from ATC is an acknowledgment that the pilot will ensure safe takeoff and landing intervals and accept the responsibility for providing wake turbulence separation.

Question 55

What are several examples of illusions that may lead to landing errors? (AIM 8‑1‑5) Show Answer

Answer 55

WTF-A

runway width illusion, Terreain slopes illusion, Featureless terrain illusion, Atmospheric illusion

Runway width illusion — A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is.

Runway and terrain slopes illusion — An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is

Featureless terrain illusion — An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is.

Atmospheric illusions — Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway.

Question 56

The acronym “LAHSO” refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4‑3‑11) Show Answer

Answer 56

LAHSO is an acronym for “land and hold short operations.” At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway.

Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety or if weather is below basic VFR conditions (a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 SM visibility).

Question 57

Where can available landing distance (ALD) data be found? (AIM 4‑3‑11)

Answer 57

ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement U.S. and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.

Question 58

Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations. (AIM 4-4-15)

before takeoff

climbs and descents

straight and level

traffic patterns

traffic at VOR sites

Trainign operations

Answer 58

a. Before takeoff — Prior to taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas.
b. Climbs and descents — During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
c. Straight and level — During sustained periods of straight-and-level flight, a pilot should execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals.
d. Traffic patterns — Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided.
e. Traffic at VOR sites — Due to converging traffic, sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity of VORs and intersections.
f. Training operations — Vigilance should be maintained and clearing turns should be made prior to a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear “left, right, above, and below”). High-wing and low-wing aircraft have their respective blind spots. High-wing aircraft should momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn. Low-wing aircraft should momentarily lower the wing.

Question 59

Where should you look for drones in your area? Show Answer

Answer 59

Drones must fly below 400 feet AGL, can only operate in daylight hours, and must stay clear of clouds. (14 CFR Part 107, AIM 7-5-5)

Question 60

What are three major areas that contribute to runway incursions? (FAA-H-8083-3) Show Answer

Answer 60

a. Communications — misunderstanding the given clearance; failure to communicate effectively b. Airport knowledge — failure to navigate the airport correctly; unable to interpret airport signage c. Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation — failure to maintain situational awareness

Question 61

Preflight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot’s flight planning process. What information should this include? (AC 91-73) Show Answer

Answer 61

a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting.
b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any “hot spots.”
c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS (if available) for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc.
d. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport.
e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.).
f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.

Question 62

What is an airport “hot spot”? (FAA-H-8083-16)

Answer 62

A “hot spot” is a runway safety-related problem area or intersection on an airport. Typically, hot spots are complex or confusing taxiway–taxiway or taxiway–runway intersections. A lack of visibility may exist at certain points and/or the tower may be unable to see those particular intersections. Pilots should be increasingly vigilant when approaching and taxiing through these intersections.

Question 63

Why is use of “sterile cockpit” procedures important when conducting taxi operations? (AC 91-73)

Answer 63

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non-flight-related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft.

Refraining from nonessential activities during ground operations is essential.

Passengers should be briefed on the importance of minimizing conversations and questions during taxi as well as on arrival, from the time landing preparations begin until the aircraft is safely parked.

Question 64

When should a pilot request “progressive” taxi instructions? (AIM 4-3-18)

Answer 64

If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions, which include step-by-step routing directions.

Question 65

After completing your pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing of the taxi route you “expect” to receive, ATC calls and gives you a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation? (AC 91-73)

Answer 65

A common pitfall of pre-taxi and pre-landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC. Pilots need to follow the instructions that they actually receive, and not the ones they expect to receive. Short term memory is of limited duration.

Question 66

Why is it a good idea to write down taxi instructions, especially at larger or unfamiliar airports? (AC 91-73) Show Answer

Answer 66

Can reduce a pilot’s vulnerability to forgetting part of the instructions and provides a reference for read-back of instructions to ATC.

It can also be used as a means of reconfirming the taxi route and any restrictions at any time during taxi operations.

Question 67

When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route? (AIM 4-3-18)

Answer 67

No; Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses.

Question 68

When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information? (AIM 4-3-18)

Answer 68

a. The runway assignment.
b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway.
c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait.

Question 69

What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations? (AC 91-73)

Answer 69

a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi. b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the “big picture.” c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing. d. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route. e. Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you’re on the assigned taxi route. f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize “clear left, clear right.” g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency. h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt — Ask!

Question 70

How can a pilot use aircraft exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface operations? (AC 91-73; SAFO) Show Answer

Answer 70

a. Engines running — Turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running.
b. Taxiing — Prior to commencing taxi, turn on navigation/position lights and anti-collision lights.
c. Crossing a runway — All exterior lights should be illuminated when crossing a runway.
d. Entering the departure runway for takeoff — All exterior lights (except landing lights) should be on to make your aircraft more conspicuous to aircraft on final and ATC.
e. Cleared for takeoff — All exterior lights, including takeoff/landing lights should be on. Note: If you see an aircraft in takeoff position on a runway with landing lights ON, that aircraft has most likely received its takeoff clearance and will be departing immediately.

Question 71

During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an operating control tower, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations? (AC 91-73)

Answer 71

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport.

Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in use for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

Question 72

You have just landed at a tower-controlled airport and missed your assigned taxiway for exiting the runway. Is it permissible for you to turn around on the runway and return to the exit taxiway? (AIM 4-3-20)

Answer 72

No; At airports with an operating control tower, pilots should never stop or reverse course on the runway without first obtaining ATC approval.

Question 73

When taxiing at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures you should take prior to entering or crossing a runway? (AC 91-73) Show Answer

Answer 73

Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio-equipped.

Question 74

ATC has instructed you to line up and wait on the departure runway due to crossing traffic on an intersecting taxiway. What is considered a reasonable amount of time to wait for a takeoff clearance before calling ATC? (AIM 5-2-4; SAFO 11004)

Answer 74

Two minutes or more elapsed between the time the instruction was issued to line up and wait and the resulting event (for example, land-over or go-around). If you have been holding in position on the runway for more than 90 seconds, or you see or hear a potential conflict, contact ATC immediately.

Question 75

What are several actions you can take to enhance aircraft security? (TSA)

Answer 75

a. Always lock your aircraft. b. Keep track of door/ignition keys and don’t leave keys in unattended aircraft. c. Use secondary locks (prop, tie down, throttle, and wheel locks) or aircraft disabler if available. d. Lock hangar when unattended.

Question 76

What type of airport security procedures should you review regularly to prevent unauthorized access to aircraft at your airport? (FSSAT) Show Answer

Answer 76

a. Limitations on ramp access to people other than instructors and students
b. Standards for securing aircraft on the ramp
c. Securing access to aircraft keys at all times
d. New auxiliary security items for aircraft (prop locks, throttle locks, locking tie downs)
e. After-hours or weekend access procedures

Question 77

Give some examples of what you would consider suspicious activity at an airport. (TSA)

Answer 77

a. Aircraft with unusual modifications (such as modified N-numbers) or activity b. Unfamiliar persons loitering for extended periods in the vicinity of parked aircraft c. Anyone making threats d. Events or circumstances that do not fit the pattern of lawful, normal activity at an airport e. Pilots appearing to be under the control of others

Question 78

When witnessing suspicious or criminal activity, what are three basic ways for reporting the suspected activity? (TSA)

Answer 78

If you determine that it’s safe, question the individual. If their response is unsatisfactory and they continue to act suspiciously: a. Alert airport or FBO management. b. Contact local law enforcement if the activity poses an immediate threat to persons or property. c. Contact the 866-GA-SECURE hotline to document the reported event.

Question 79

What is the purpose of the 866-GA-SECURE phone number? (TSA)

Answer 79

866-GA-SECURE TSA personnel will document the reported activity, collect your personal contact numbers, and pass the information on to the appropriate regulatory office within the TSA. Note: Calling 866-GA-SECURE will not dispatch local law enforcement. In the event of an immediate emergency, 911 or local law enforcement should be contacted first.

Question 80

What are several sources of information available to pilots interested in additional guidance on aviation security? (TSA; FSSAT)

Answer 80

Security Guidelines for General Aviation Airports is a set of federally endorsed guidelines that offers an extensive list of options, ideas, and suggestions for the airport operator, sponsor, tenant and/or user to choose from when considering security enhancements for GA facilities. Flight School Security Awareness Training for Aircraft and Simulators is an online training course designed to raise the general security awareness levels of employees working in the flight training industry.