Hemodynamics III & IV Flashcards

1
Q

What are the factors that coumadin affects?

A

8, 9, 10, 2 (1972), protein C and protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is INR?

A

PT pt / PT nl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What pathway does PT measure?

A

Extrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What pathway for PTT measure?

A

Intrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal range of INR?

A

0.8-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drugs prolongs the intrinsic pathway (and thus PTT)?

A

heparin, hemophilia, and antiphospholipid antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you distinguish if someone have a factor deficiency vs an inhibitor?

A

Mix patient’s sample with normal plasma. If clots, then patient has it. If no clot, then there is an inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two factors not measured by PT or PTT?

A

7 and 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Low dose heparin has what effect on PT/PTT?

A
PT = nl
PTT = prolonged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

High dose heparin has what effect on PT/PTT?

A
PT = Prolonged
PTT = Prolonged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Low dose warfarin has what effect on PT/PTT?

A
PT = Prolonged
PTT = Normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HIgh dose warfarin has what effect on PT/PTT?

A
PT = Prolonged
PTT = Prolonged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the sensitivity of pts to warfarin with age?

A

Increase sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the contraindications to Warfarin?

A

Pregnancy
If hemorrhage is a risk
EtOH abuse
Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs of warfarin overdose?

A

Hematochezia
Bruising
Epistaxis
Persistent bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Warfarin necrosis?

A

Warfarin causes low levels of protein C, causing excessive clotting (hypercoagulable state)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What strategy do we take to prevent Warfarin necrosis?

A

Give heparin first with Warfarin’s first dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Antibodies form against platelet factor 4 (which normally blocks heparin)

This induces a prothrombotic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is HIITS?

A

Heparin-induces thrombocytopenia with thrombosis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier disease?

A

AR disease where there is a defect of platelet adhesion d/t defect in Glycoprotein Ib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Glanzmann Thrombasthenia?

A

Defect of platelet aggregation d/t a defect in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.(Recall this links platelets together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

Antibodies directed against von Willebrand factor cleaving protease, ADAMTS-13,(this normally breaks up von Willebrand factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are PT/PTT affected in Bernard-Soulier or Glanzmann disease?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)? What is the treatment for recurrent?

A

Antibodies directly against platelets, leading to spleen destruction, resulting in thrombocytopenia

Treatment = splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is aplastic anemia?
Pancytopenia, marrow's is fibrosed, no more blood cells
26
What is von Willebrand's disease?
Deficiency of von Willebrands antigen, causing coagulopathies
27
What are the clinical symptoms of von Willebrand disease?
Easily bruised Epistaxis Gingival bleeding Menorrhagia
28
What is hemophilia A the result of? How is this passed on?
Factor 8 deficiency | XR
29
What is hemophilia B the result of?
Factor 9 deficiency | XR
30
What is hemophilia C the result of? How is this passed on?
Factor 11 deficiency | AR
31
How do you treat hemophiliacs?
Recombinant factor, or plasma
32
What are the major complications with hemophilia?
Deep, internal bleeding | Joint damage
33
What are the problems with transfusions for hemophiliacs?
Risk for infx | Adverse immune rxn
34
Deficiencies with which factors are particularly problematic?
5, 7, 8, 9, 11
35
How do we monitor factor deficiencies?
PTT/PT
36
What are the factor deficiencies that are usually not clinically significant?
Factor 12
37
How do platelet deficiencies appear clinically?
Purpura, petechiae, or ecchymosis
38
What is DIC? What does this lead to?
Systemic problem of coagulation where tiny fibrin thrombi form throughout the body. Leads to thrombocytopenia
39
What is meant by the term consumptive coagulopathy?
All of the platelets are used up
40
What causes DIC? What two things does this cause?
Activation of thrombin systemically, causing fibrin formation and consumption of platelets
41
Why does DIC result in organ failure?
Clots form in organs, leading to cut off blood supply
42
Why does DIC result in bleeding?
All the platelets are used up
43
What are schistocytes? What causes these?
Sheared RBCs, caused by strands of fibrin in capillaries cutting them. (this is seen in DIC)
44
What does a D-dimer measure?
Measures plasma cleaved insoluble cross-linked fibrin
45
What is the treatment for DIC?
Treat underlying cause | Use blood products
46
What are the components of Virchow's triad?
Hypercoagulable state Endothelial injury Circulatory stasis
47
What is the dominant influence on thrombosis?
Endothelial injury
48
What happens to fibrinogen to fibrin conversion during thrombus formation?
Increased markedly
49
What causes endothelial injury?
LDL cholesterol buildup Smoking HTN DM
50
What is the most common hypercoagulable state?
Factor 5 leiden
51
What does prothrombin mutations lead to?
Hypercoagulable state
52
What are the rare deficiencies that result in a hypercoagulable state?
Antithrombin III Protein C Protein S
53
What are pts with Factor 5 leiden susceptible to?
DVTs
54
What is the problems with factor V leiden?
Resistance of factor V to Protein C
55
What is the amino acid change involved with factor V leiden?
Q substitutes for R at 506 position
56
What is the primary risk for thrombosis?
Bedrest or long periods of immobility
57
What are the two heart problems that pose a risk for thrombosis?
A fib and MI
58
What is antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?
Serum antibody against anionic phospholipids, causing a hypercoagulable state
59
What pts have antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?
SLE pts
60
What is turbulence?
Disruption of the normal, laminar flow of blood
61
Why is blood turbulence problematic?
Forms countercurrents of blood, causing local pockets of stasis, and prevents dilution of clotting factors
62
What can cause turbulence?
Ulcerated atherosclerotic plaques MI Afib
63
What is hyperviscosity syndrome?
Polycythemia
64
What does turbulent flow cause to endothelial cells to secrete (3)?
Secreted angiotensin II Endothelin 1 PDGF
65
What does turbulent flow cause to the amount of migration of immune cells?
Increases
66
venous thrombi usually occur as a consequence of what?
Stasis
67
Arterial thrombi occur where?
At sites of endothelial injury
68
What are the two major problems with arterial thrombosis?
Occlusion | Emboli
69
Where do clots form that cause strokes?
Carotid bifurcation
70
What are arterial thrombi composed of?
Platelets Fibrin RBCs Leukocytes
71
What is gruel?
The foam cells in the endothelium
72
Stenting is indicated for AAA when they are how big?
5 cm or greater
73
What are lines of Zahn?
Lines in a thrombus, indicating alternating layering of platelets, fibrin, and erythrocytes
74
What cells do venous thrombi contain more of?
Erythrocytes
75
Where do venous thrombi usually occur?
Deep veins in the leg
76
Where is the turbulence found in veins?
Behind the valves
77
What is a phlebothrombosis?
Venous thrombosis
78
What are the problems with superficial thrombi in the legs?
Varicose veins--NOT PEs
79
What percent of pts with DVTs have symptoms in their leg?
50%
80
What are the risk factors for venous thrombosis?
CHF Trauma Surgery Pregnancy
81
What is trousseau syndrome?
Thrombi form in larger veins in different parts of the body d/t S proteases released by tumors, that activates factor 10. Also membrane vesicles released that are prothrombotic
82
What are the five fates of a thrombus?
``` Emboli Resolution Propagate Recanalized Incorporated into the wall ```
83
What do emboli usually occur from?
Dislodged thrombus
84
What are the common causes of arterial emboli?
A fib Mitral stenosis Endocarditis
85
What is the most common type of thrombus?
Intracardiac mural thrombi
86
Where do arterial emboli usually go?
``` Lower extremities (75%) Brain (10%) ```
87
What are paradoxical emboli?
Rare condition in which an embolus originating from the venous circulation passes through an interatrial or interventricular defect to gain access to the systemic circulation
88
What percent of PEs are caused by DVTs?
95%
89
What is a saddle embolus?
Lodge across the pulmonary vessel bifurcation
90
Where do medium emboli usually end up?
Medium sized branches
91
Where do small emboli end up?
Peripheral vessels, usually silent
92
What do recurrent emboli cause?
Cor pulmonale
93
Wedge like infarcts are caused by what sized emboli?
Medium
94
What is a V/Q mismatch?
Different between ventilation and circulation
95
What are fat emboli? What do they usually come from?
Fat, usually from fractures of large bones or burns
96
What do fat emboli look like microscopically?
Clear vacuoles w/in the vessels
97
True or false: fat emboli usually have no effect
True (90% no effect)
98
What is the stain used to identify fat emboli?
Oil red O stain
99
What are the symptoms of a fat emboli? (3)
Tachypnea/dyspnea Diffuse petechial rash CNS symptoms if fat there
100
What are air embolisms caused by?
Obstetric procedures | Vascular procedures
101
How much air is needed to cause air embolisms?
>100 cc
102
What is decompression sickness?
Sudden changes in atmospheric pressure causes N gas embolize
103
What is the bends?
Decompression sickness in skeletal muscles and around joints
104
What are the chokes?
Gas emboli in the lungs d/t decompression
105
What is the treatment for decompression sickness?
Slow decrompression
106
What is an amniotic fluid embolism?
If amniotic fluid gets into the maternal blood, causes severe clots
107
What does amniotic fluid emboli consist of?
Epithelial cells from fetus | Lanugo hair
108
What are four causes the infarction, besides thrombus?
Vasospasm (cocaine) Hemorrhage Compression of vessel Twisting of vessel
109
venous causes of infarct are more likely in organs with what?
Single venous outflow
110
Venous thrombosis usually induces only congestion, not infarction. Why?
Usually have more than one venous outflow
111
What is the most critical factor in determining if an infarct will develop?
Anastomoses
112
Why are the spleen and kidney particularly susceptible to infarction?
End arterial system
113
What is a red infarct? Shape?
Infarct with a hemorrhage in them Usually wedge shaped
114
What causes a red infarct?
venous occlusions Loose tissues Tissues with dual circulation
115
What causes a white infarct?
Type of arterial occlusions in solid organs with limitations of blood flow into areas of ischemic necrosis
116
What is a septic infarct?
Infarct where the origin of the embolus is an infected tissue
117
What is the major source of septic infarcts?
Vegetations from bacteria on heart valves