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M2015/16 > Hemeonc p. 382-386 > Flashcards

Hemeonc p. 382-386 Flashcards

1
Q

Life span of RBC?

A

120 days

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2
Q

Life span of platelet?

A

8–10 days

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3
Q

Normally leukocyte count range?

A

4000–10,000 cells/mm3.

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4
Q

Membrane of RBC contains — antiporter,

A

Cl−/HCO3

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5
Q

Name the vWF receptor?

A

GpIb

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6
Q

Erythrocytosis = — = —- hematocrit

A

polycythemia

incr

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7
Q

Dense granules in Platelets contain —- and α granules contain —.

A

ADP, Ca2+

vWF, fibrinogen

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8
Q

Normal Basophils %?

A

(0–0.75%)

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9
Q

Poikilocytosis =

A

varying shapes

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10
Q

Name Fibrinogen receptor?

A

GpIIb/IIIa.

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11
Q

Neutrophyls specific granules contain 4 components: “CALL”

A

ALP
collagenase
lysozyme
lactoferrin (traps iron)

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12
Q

What are Azurophilic granules?

A

lysosomes

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13
Q

Anisocytosis =

A

varying sizes (seen in thalasemia, spherocytosis)

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14
Q

Azurophilic granules contain what 4 components?

A

proteinases
phosphatase
myeloperoxidase
β-glucuronidase (in liver)

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15
Q

Important neutrophil chemotactic agents:

A 
C5a,
IL-8, 
LTB4, 
kallikrein, 
platelet-activating factor
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16
Q

How does gram neg bacteria initiate septic shock?

A

Lipid A from bacterial LPS binds CD14 on macrophages

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17
Q

Incr in myeloid proliferation is observed by the incr of what cells during infection or CML?

A

band cells (immature neutrophils)

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18
Q

Macrophages are activated by

A

γ-interferon.

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19
Q

Which 2 cells are packed with basophylic granules?

A

Basophyls

Mast cell

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20
Q

Monocytes differentiates into —- in tissues.

A

macrophage

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21
Q

Macrophages are antigen-presenting cell via —.

A

MHC II.

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22
Q

Extensive “frosted glass” cytoplasm referrers to what type of cells?

A

Monocyte

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23
Q

Basophilia is uncommon, but can be a sign of what path?

A

myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML.

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24
Q

Which cells expresses MHC class II and Fc receptors on surface?

A

Dendritic cell, macrophage

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25
Q

Which kind of Leukocyte

produces histaminase and major basic protein?

A

Eosinophil

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26
Q

Round, densely staining nucleus with small amount of pale cytoplasm describes what type of cells?

A

Lymphocyte

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27
Q

Name the 5 causes of eosinophilia “A PAC A DNA”

A 
Drug: macrolides, NSAID
Neoplasia
Asthma
Aspergillus inf
Acute interstitual nephritis
Allergic processes
Chronic adrenal insufficiency, Collagen vascular dz
Parasites (invasive)
28
Q

— is a costimulatory signal necessary for T-cell activation.

A

CD28

29
Q

Which type of cells have abundant RER, and well developed Golgi apparatus?

A

Plasma cells

30
Q

Which Leukocyte contains Heparin?

A

Basophil, Mast cells

31
Q

Which type of blood is a Universal recipient of plasma?

A

O type

32
Q

“Clock-face” chromatin distribution refers to what type of cells?

A

Plasma cells

33
Q

If —- type pt receives type A or AB it will cause hemolytic reaction.

A

B type

34
Q

mothers exposed to fetal Rh+ blood (often during delivery) may make what type of Ab?

A

anti-D IgG.

35
Q

Which plasma type is a Universal donor of plasma?

A

AB type

36
Q

If —- type pt receives any non-O type it will cause hemolytic reaction.

A

O type

37
Q

—- administration to Rh− pregnant women during —–, which prevents maternal anti-Rh IgG production.

A

RhoGAM

third trimester

38
Q

Hemophilia C has a deficiency of what factor? And what is the genetic inheritance?

A

XI (AR)

39
Q

Name to LMWH?

A

dalteparin, enoxaparin, Fondaparinux

40
Q

—- activates bradykinin; — inactivates bradykinin

A

Kallikrein (HMWK)

ACE

41
Q

The LMWH have the greatest e€efficacy on which factor?

A

factor Xa

42
Q

Which 3 tissue factors require Ca2+ and phospholipid?

A

Thromboplastin (III) (produced from fetus during abortion)
Va
VIIIa

43
Q

Which 4 tissue factors are inhibited by vitamin K antagonist warfarin?

A

II
VII
IX
X

44
Q

Heparin has the greatest e€efficacy on which factor?

A

IIa (thrombin)

45
Q

Which 2 coagulation factors are cofactors?

A

Va

VIIIa

46
Q

T or F? Plasmin activates but is not part of coagulation cascade.

A

T

47
Q

Name 3 direct thrombin inhibitors? (DOC for HIT)

A

argatroban
bivalirudin
dabigatran

48
Q

Name 2 direct Xa inhibitors?

A

apixaban, rivaroxaban

49
Q

Fondaparinux inhibits which factor? (it causes HIT)

A

factor Xa

50
Q

Thrombin converts what to what?

A

Fibrinogen to Fibrin monomers

51
Q

phytomenadione or phylloquinone or phytonadione help mature which factors?

A

Vit K helps the maturation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S.

52
Q

Prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can cause what?

A

hemorrhagic disease due to vit K def

53
Q

Which complex activates protein C?

A

Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex

54
Q

—- stabilizes platelet plug.

A

Fibrin mesh

55
Q

Name the enzyme that produces reduced vit K?

A

Epoxide reductase

56
Q

—– cleaves and inactivates Va, VIIIa

A

Protein S

57
Q

Warfarin inhibits the enzyme vitamin K —-.

A

epoxide reductase.

58
Q

Describe the Factor V Leiden mutation?

A

it produces a factor V resistant to inhibition by activated protein C.

59
Q

Plasminogen —> plasmin

A

tPA

60
Q

Drug used for asthma prophylaxis? And MOA?

A

Cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell degranulation

61
Q

Basophils is incr in what path?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

polycythemia

62
Q

Eosonophis are incr in what infections?

A

Aspergillus infecetion

parasites

63
Q

Which T cells recruit eosonophils?

A

Th2 cell

64
Q

Eosinophylic infiltrate is see in what cardiac path?

A

Löffler syndrome
(endomyocardial fibrosis with a prominent
eosinophilic infiltrate),

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-
Strauss)

65
Q

Eosinophila in what 2 drugs?

A

Macrolides, NSAIDS

66
Q

What vit def. enhances vit k def. in bleeding?

A

vit E

67
Q

what blocks tPA?

A

Trunexemic, Aminocaproic acid

M2015/16 (27 decks)

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