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HEMATOLOGY-PLE-EXAM BY MAAM TJ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Stress and anxiety can temporarily cause which of the
    following?

a. Affect the coagulation test
b. Activate the platelets
c. Elevate WBC counts
d. Hemolyze specimens

A

c. Elevate WBC counts

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2
Q
  1. N:C ratio is 6:1

a. Metarubricyte
b. Rubricyte
c. Rubriblast
d. Prorubricyte

A

d. Prorubricyte

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3
Q
  1. Presence of 1-2 nucleoli

a. Prorubricyte
b. Rubricyte
c. Metarubricyte
d. Rubriblast

A

d. Rubriblast

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4
Q
  1. All of the following tube stopper colors indicate the
    presence or absence and type of additive in the tube
    EXCEPT:

a. Light blue
b. Royal Blue.
c. Lavender
d. Green

A

b. Royal Blue.

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5
Q
  1. Portland Hemoglobin
    contains: 2 zeta/2 gamma

a. Mesoblatic phase
b. Hepatic phase
c. Yolksac phase.

A

c. Yolksac phase.

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5
Q
  1. Last stage capable of hemoglobin synthesis

a. Reticulocyte.
b. Metarubricyte
c. Rubricyte
d. Mature Erythrocyte

A

a. Reticulocyte.

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6
Q
  1. When is the best time to release the tourniquet during
    venipuncture?

a. As soon as the needle penetrates the skin
b. After the needle is withdrawn and covered
c. After the last tube has been filled completely.
d. As soon as the blood begins to flow into the tube

A

d. As soon as the blood begins to flow into the tube

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7
Q
  1. This gauge of needle is used primarily as a transfer
    needle rather than for blood donation

a. 23
b. 18
c. 21
d. 16

A

b. 18

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8
Q
  1. Has 120 days life span

a. Mature erythrocyte.
b. Rubricyte
c. Metarubricyte
d. Reticulocyte

A

a. Mature erythrocyte.

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9
Q
  1. What is the purpose of antiglycolytic agent?

a. Enhance the clotting process
b. Inhibit electrolyte breakdown
c. Preserves glucose.
d. Prevent clotting

A

c. Preserves glucose.

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10
Q
  1. Slides made in from EDTA specimens must be prepared within 1 hour of specimen collection for all the following reasons EXCEPT to:

a. Minimize RBC distortion on the smear
b. Preserves the integrity of the blood cells
c. Prevent artefact formation from additive
d. Ensure they are made before clots appear

A

d. Ensure they are made before clots appear

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11
Q
  1. The ratio of blood to anticoagulant is most critical for
    which of the following test?

a. Alkaline phosphatase
b. Glycohemoglobin
c. Prothrombin time.
d. Complete blood count

A

b. Glycohemoglobin

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12
Q
  1. Sitting upright with an extended arm gives a 10% higher value for RBC mass.

a. TRUE.
b. FALSE

A

a. TRUE.

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12
Q
  1. When selecting a venipuncture site, how can you tell a vein from an artery

a. An artery has a distinct pulse
b. A vein has more resilience
c. An artery is more superficial
d. A vein pulses and feels larger.

A

a. An artery has a distinct pulse

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13
Q
  1. According to the Clinical and Laboratory Standards
    Institute (CLSI), venipuncture should not be performed
    on leg, ankle, foot of the veins unless:

a. There are no acceptable antecubital or hand veins.
b. Both arms have intravenous lines or other vascular
devices.
c. The patient does not have any coagulation problems
d. Permission of the patient’s physician is obtained

A

d. Permission of the patient’s physician is obtained

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14
Q
  1. ESR determination on specimens held at room
    temperature must be made within:

a. 24hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 1 hour
d. 12 hrs

A

c. 1 hour

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15
Q
  1. Where is the best place to apply the tourniquet

a. Distal to the wrist bone if drawing a hand vein
b. 1 to 2 inches above the venipuncture site
c. 3 to 4 inches above the desired venipuncture site
d. Immediately above the venipuncture site

A

c. 3 to 4 inches above the desired venipuncture site

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16
Q
  1. Milking process is not allowed during skin puncture

a. False
b. True

A

b. True

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17
Q
  1. What is the best angle to use for insertion needle during routine phlebotomy?

a. 35o to 45o
b. 45o to 60o
c. Less than 15o
d. 15o to 30o

A

d. 15o to 30o

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18
Q
  1. Too blue smear is caused by?

a. Too thick film
b. Acidic buffer
c. Too slow smearing
d. Low angle of spreading

A

a. Too thick film

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19
Q
  1. How may times do you mix non-additive tubes?

a. 2 or 3
b. 8 to 12
c. None
d. 5 to 10

A

c. None

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20
Q
  1. Hemoglobin F -> Hepatic phase

a. Hepatic phase 2 zeta
b. Mesoblastic phase 2 alpha
c. Yolk sac stage

A

a. Hepatic phase

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21
Q
  1. Main site: Red bone marrow

a. Yolk sac stage
b. Mesoblastic phase
c. Hepatic phase
d. Medullary or myeloid phase

A

d. Medullary or myeloid phase

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following areas does capillary specimen
    collection differ from routine venipuncture when during
    collecting a BUN and CBC?

a. Antiseptic used
b. ID procedures
c. Additives used
d. Order of draw

A

d. Order of draw

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23
Q
  1. What additive in a blood sample can inhibit the
    metabolism of glucose by the cells?

a. EDTA
b. NaF Fluoride
c. Heparin
d. Oxalate

A

b. NaF Fluoride

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24
Q
  1. According to CLSI depth of heel puncture should not
    exceed:

a. 1.5 mm
b. 4.9 mm
c. 2.4 mm
d. 2.0 mm

A

c. 2.4 mm

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25
Q
  1. Never leave a tourniquet on for more than:

a. 30 seconds
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minutes
d. 2 minutes

A

c. 1 minutes

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26
Q
  1. Heparin is the first tube to be filled during venipuncture

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

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26
Q
  1. Heparin is the anticoagulant of choice for EOFT

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

a. TRUE

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27
Q
  1. When platelet satellitosis was seen in the PBS, the next course of action is to recollect sample using heparinized tube?

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

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28
Q
  1. Last nucleated stage?

a. Prorubricyte
b. Metarubricyte
c. Rubricyte
d. Rubriblast

A

b. Metarubricyte

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29
Q
  1. EDTA induced Platelet clumping results to lower red
    blood cell count

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

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30
Q
  1. There is a sign above the patient’s bed that reads, “No blood pressure or venipuncture, right arm”. The patient has an IV in the left forearm. You have a request to collect a complete blood on the patient. How should you proceed?

A. Ask the patient’s nurse what to do when sign is
posted
B. Collect a CBC from the right arm without using
tourniquet
C. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger
puncture
D. Ask the patient’s nurse to collect the specimen from
the IV

A

C. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger
puncture

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31
Q
  1. The purpose of tourniquet in the venipuncture procedure to:

a. Obstruct blood flow to concentrate the analyte
b. Redirect more blood flow to the venipuncture site
c. Enlarges vein so the are easier to find and enter
d. Block the flow of arterial blood into the area

A

c. Enlarges vein so the are easier to find and enter

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32
Q
  1. Earliest recognizable cell in the light microscope

a. Metarubricyte
b. Prorubricyte
c. Rubricyte
d. Rubriblast

A

d. Rubriblast

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts, and therefore prevent coagulation

a. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate
b. Sodium Fluoride, Sodium heparin, EDTA
c. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin
d. Sodium citrate EDTA, oxalate

A

d. Sodium citrate EDTA, oxalate

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34
Q
  1. Oxalate is the anticoagulant of choice for platelets counts

a. FALSE
b. TRUE

A

a. FALSE

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35
Q
  1. ESR test must be set – up within 10 hrs of collection if the specimen is refrigerated

a. FALSE
b. TRUE

A

a. FALSE

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35
Q
  1. First drop of blood is wiped off during micro sampling in order to prevent platelet satellitosis

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

b. FALSE

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36
Q
  1. Hemoglobin A2

a. Yolk sac stage
b. Hepatic stage
c. Mesoblastic phase
d. Medullary phase

A

d. Medullary phase

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37
Q
  1. Poikilocyte due to trauma

a. Elliptocyte
b. Dacrocyte
c. Codocyte
d. Drepanocyte

A

b. Dacrocyte

38
Q
  1. RBC diluting fluid when one is expecting samples with roleaux formation

a. Formol citrate
b. NSS
c. Gower’s
d. Hayem’s

39
Q
  1. Has a normocytic red cell EXCEPT:

a. Acute blood loss
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

A

c. Iron deficiency anemia

40
Q
  1. Hemoglobin with Ferrous iron and carbon monoxide

a. Methemoglobin
b. Hemiglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Carboxyhemoglobin

A

d. Carboxyhemoglobin

41
Q
  1. 1 gram of hemoglobin approximately carries how many mL of oxygen?

a. 1.34 mL
b. 2.5 mL
c. 2.00 mL
d. 3.14 mL

A

a. 1.34 mL

42
Q
  1. Carboxyhemoglobinemia is reversible when given:

a. Carbon oxygen
b. Pure oxygen
c. Citrate
d. Heparin

A

b. Pure oxygen

43
Q
  1. Confirmatory to sickle cell disease

a. Sodium dithionite
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Sodium metabisulfite
d. Autohemolysis

A

b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

44
Q
  1. Broze cell

a. Acanthocyte
b. Spherocyte
c. Codocyte
d. Echinocyte

A

b. Spherocyte

45
Q
  1. Aplastic anemia

a. Macrocytic anemia
b. Normocytic anemia
c. Microcytic anemia

A

c. Microcytic anemia

45
Q
  1. Major iron storage form

a. Ferritin
b. Hepcidin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemosiderin

A

a. Ferritin

46
Q
  1. Positive to fuelgen reaction

a. Basophilic stipplings
b. Cabot rings
c. Howell jolley bodies
d. Pappenheimer bodies

A

c. Howell jolley bodies

47
Q
  1. Falsely elevated hematocrit reading may be due which of the following?

a. Less centrifugation time
b. Contamination with interstitial fluid
c. Hemolysis
d. Improper sealing of the capillary tube

A

a. Less centrifugation time

48
Q
  1. Composed of remnants of microtubules of mitotic
    spindles

a. Basophilic stipplings
b. Cabot rings
c. Pappenheimer bodies
d. Howell jolly bodies

A

b. Cabot rings

49
Q
  1. Last stage in the erythropoiesis cable of hemoglobin
    synthesis

a. Rubricyte
b. Erthrocyte
c. Reticulocyte
d. Prorubricyte

A

c. Reticulocyte

50
Q
  1. Thalassemia

a. Normocytic red cell
b. Microcytic red cell
c. Macrocytic red cell

A

b. Microcytic red cell

51
Q
  1. Acute blood loss

a. Normocytic red cell
b. Microcytic red cell
c. Macrocytic red cell

A

a. Normocytic red cell

52
Q
  1. All forms of hemoglobin is measured by the
    cyanmethemoglobin method EXCEPT:

a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Methemoglobin

A

c. Sulfhemoglobin

53
Q
  1. Sulfhemoglobin is reported infections associated with:

a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Clostridium perfringens

A

d. Clostridium perfringens

54
Q
  1. WBC diluting fluid should:

a. Be able to make the nucleus visible
b. Be able to make the granules
c. Be able to lyse the red blood cells
d. Be able to prevent the cell’s aggregation

A

c. Be able to lyse the red blood cells

55
Q
  1. Normal MCV value

a. Normocytic red cell
b. Microcytic red cell
c. Macrocytic red cell

A

a. Normocytic red cell

56
Q
  1. Hemoglobin form seen in the venous circulation

a. Deoxyhemoglobin
b. Oxyhemoglobin

A

a. Deoxyhemoglobin

57
Q
  1. Increased surface to volume ratio:

a. Acanthocyte
b. Spherocyte
c. Echinocyte
d. Codocyte

A

d. Codocyte

58
Q
  1. Cyanmethemoglobin method requires reading of the
    sample at what wavelength?

a. 500 nm
b. 540 nm
c. 310 nm
d. 250 nm

58
Q
  1. Best diluting fluid for manual RBC count

a. NSS
b. Formol citrate
c. Hayem’s
d. Gower’s

A

b. Formol citrate

59
Q
  1. Non-specific indicator of inflammation

a. Reticulocyte count
b. EOFT
c. Hematocrit
d. ESR

60
Q
  1. Microcytic hypochromic red cells

a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Acute blood loss
d. Aplastic anemia

A

a. Iron deficiency anemia

61
Q
  1. Decreased surface to volume ratio:

a. Spherocyte
b. Acanthocyte
c. Codocyte
d. Echinocyte

A

a. Spherocyte

62
Q
  1. Described as having a holly leaf like appearance

a. Crenated cell
b. Sickle cell
c. Target cell
d. Mouth cell

A

b. Sickle cell

63
Q
  1. Caused by cation imbalance

a. Mouth cell
b. Sickle cell
c. Crenated cell
d. Target cell

A

a. Mouth cell

64
Q
  1. Abetalipoproteinemia

a. Codocyte
b. Spherocyte
c. Echinocyte
d. Acanthocyte

A

d. Acanthocyte

65
Q
  1. Hemoglobin F is made up:

a. 2 beta and 2 alpha globin chains
b. 2 alpha and 2 gamma globin chains
c. 2 delta and 2 beta globin chains
d. 2 epsilon and 2 delta globin chains

A

b. 2 alpha and 2 gamma globin chains

66
Q
  1. Absolute eosinophil count is diagnostic to:

a. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Allergic reactions

A

c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Allergic reactions

67
Q
  1. Globin synthesis occurs in the:

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mitochondria
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi apparatus

A

c. Ribosomes

68
Q
  1. From of hemoglobin which imparts a mauve
    discoloration of the blood:

a. Methemoglobin
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Sulfhemoglobin

A

d. Sulfhemoglobin

69
Q
  1. In the chemical method for hemoglobin measurement, 1 gram of hemoglobin has a constant iron content of:

a. 2.45 mg
b. 1.21 mg
c. 3.47 mg
d. 5.18 mg

A

c. 3.47 mg

70
Q
  1. Preferred confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis

a. Sodium Dithionite
b. Sodium Metabisulfite
c. EOFT
d. Autohemolysis

71
Q
  1. ESR is read after how many hour/s

a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1

72
Q
  1. Megaloblastic anemia

a. Normocytic red cell
b. Microcytic red cell
c. Macrocytic red cell

A

c. Macrocytic red cell

73
Q
  1. Variation in the sizes of the red blood cells

a. Poikilocytosis
b. Anisocytosis
c. Polychromasia
d. Normochromasia

A

b. Anisocytosis

74
Q
  1. Form of hemoglobin which imparts a chocolate brown discoloration to the blood?

a. Sulfhemoglobin
b. Methemoglobin
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Oxyhemoglobin

A

b. Methemoglobin

75
Q
  1. In the cyanmethemoglobin method, what component of the reagent converts the methemoglobin to
    cyanmethemoglobin

a. Potassium cyanide
b. Dihydrogen potassium phosphate
c. Non-ionic detergent
d. Potassium ferricyanide

A

a. Potassium cyanide

76
Q
  1. Anemia of chronic disorders

a. Normochromic red cell
b. Hypochromic red cell
c. Hyperchromic red cell

A

b. Hypochromic red cell

77
Q
  1. Sideroblastic anemia

a. Normochromic red cell
b. Hypochromic red cell
c. Hyperchromic red cell

A

b. Hypochromic red cell

78
Q
  1. Colorimetric method for the measurement of
    hemoglobin EXCEPT:

a. Sahli’s method
b. Cyanmethemoglobin
c. Copper sulfate method
d. Acid hematic

A

c. Copper sulfate method

79
Q
  1. Alpha globin chains has how many amino acids?

a. 135
b. 121
c. 146
d. 141

80
Q
  1. Hereditary spherocytosis

a. Normochromic red cell
b. Hypochromic red cell
c. Hyperchromic red cell

A

c. Hyperchromic red cell

81
Q
  1. Falsely decreased hematocrit reading may be due to
    which of the following?

a. Dehydration
b. Less centrifugation time
c. Reading above the buffy coat
d. Contamination with interstitial fluid

A

d. Contamination with interstitial fluid

82
Q
  1. An artifact caused by improper drying

a. Sickle cell
b. Mouth cell
c. Target cell
d. Crenated cell

A

d. Crenated cell

83
Q
  1. Hemoglobin form that exists in relaxed state

a. Deoxyhemoglobin
b. Oxyhemoglobin

A

b. Oxyhemoglobin

84
Q
  1. Adult hemoglobin:

a. Portland
b. Gowers
c. Hemoglobin A
d. Hemoglobin H

A

c. Hemoglobin A

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

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