HEMATOLOGY-PLE-EXAM BY MAAM TJ Flashcards by Prince Mella

Stress and anxiety can temporarily cause which of the
following?

a. Affect the coagulation test
b. Activate the platelets
c. Elevate WBC counts
d. Hemolyze specimens

c. Elevate WBC counts

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N:C ratio is 6:1

a. Metarubricyte
b. Rubricyte
c. Rubriblast
d. Prorubricyte

d. Prorubricyte

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Presence of 1-2 nucleoli

a. Prorubricyte
b. Rubricyte
c. Metarubricyte
d. Rubriblast

d. Rubriblast

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All of the following tube stopper colors indicate the
presence or absence and type of additive in the tube
EXCEPT:

a. Light blue
b. Royal Blue.
c. Lavender
d. Green

b. Royal Blue.

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Portland Hemoglobin
contains: 2 zeta/2 gamma

a. Mesoblatic phase
b. Hepatic phase
c. Yolksac phase.

c. Yolksac phase.

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Last stage capable of hemoglobin synthesis

a. Reticulocyte.
b. Metarubricyte
c. Rubricyte
d. Mature Erythrocyte

a. Reticulocyte.

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When is the best time to release the tourniquet during
venipuncture?

a. As soon as the needle penetrates the skin
b. After the needle is withdrawn and covered
c. After the last tube has been filled completely.
d. As soon as the blood begins to flow into the tube

d. As soon as the blood begins to flow into the tube

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This gauge of needle is used primarily as a transfer
needle rather than for blood donation

a. 23
b. 18
c. 21
d. 16

b. 18

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Has 120 days life span

a. Mature erythrocyte.
b. Rubricyte
c. Metarubricyte
d. Reticulocyte

a. Mature erythrocyte.

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What is the purpose of antiglycolytic agent?

a. Enhance the clotting process
b. Inhibit electrolyte breakdown
c. Preserves glucose.
d. Prevent clotting

c. Preserves glucose.

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Slides made in from EDTA specimens must be prepared within 1 hour of specimen collection for all the following reasons EXCEPT to:

a. Minimize RBC distortion on the smear
b. Preserves the integrity of the blood cells
c. Prevent artefact formation from additive
d. Ensure they are made before clots appear

d. Ensure they are made before clots appear

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The ratio of blood to anticoagulant is most critical for
which of the following test?

a. Alkaline phosphatase
b. Glycohemoglobin
c. Prothrombin time.
d. Complete blood count

b. Glycohemoglobin

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Sitting upright with an extended arm gives a 10% higher value for RBC mass.

a. TRUE.
b. FALSE

a. TRUE.

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When selecting a venipuncture site, how can you tell a vein from an artery

a. An artery has a distinct pulse
b. A vein has more resilience
c. An artery is more superficial
d. A vein pulses and feels larger.

a. An artery has a distinct pulse

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According to the Clinical and Laboratory Standards
Institute (CLSI), venipuncture should not be performed
on leg, ankle, foot of the veins unless:

a. There are no acceptable antecubital or hand veins.
b. Both arms have intravenous lines or other vascular
devices.
c. The patient does not have any coagulation problems
d. Permission of the patient’s physician is obtained

d. Permission of the patient’s physician is obtained

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ESR determination on specimens held at room
temperature must be made within:

a. 24hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 1 hour
d. 12 hrs

c. 1 hour

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Where is the best place to apply the tourniquet

a. Distal to the wrist bone if drawing a hand vein
b. 1 to 2 inches above the venipuncture site
c. 3 to 4 inches above the desired venipuncture site
d. Immediately above the venipuncture site

c. 3 to 4 inches above the desired venipuncture site

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Milking process is not allowed during skin puncture

a. False
b. True

b. True

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What is the best angle to use for insertion needle during routine phlebotomy?

a. 35o to 45o
b. 45o to 60o
c. Less than 15o
d. 15o to 30o

d. 15o to 30o

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Too blue smear is caused by?

a. Too thick film
b. Acidic buffer
c. Too slow smearing
d. Low angle of spreading

a. Too thick film

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How may times do you mix non-additive tubes?

a. 2 or 3
b. 8 to 12
c. None
d. 5 to 10

c. None

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Hemoglobin F -> Hepatic phase

a. Hepatic phase 2 zeta
b. Mesoblastic phase 2 alpha
c. Yolk sac stage

a. Hepatic phase

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Main site: Red bone marrow

a. Yolk sac stage
b. Mesoblastic phase
c. Hepatic phase
d. Medullary or myeloid phase

d. Medullary or myeloid phase

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Which of the following areas does capillary specimen
collection differ from routine venipuncture when during
collecting a BUN and CBC?

a. Antiseptic used
b. ID procedures
c. Additives used
d. Order of draw

d. Order of draw

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25. What additive in a blood sample can inhibit the metabolism of glucose by the cells? a. EDTA b. NaF Fluoride c. Heparin d. Oxalate

b. NaF Fluoride

26. According to CLSI depth of heel puncture should not exceed: a. 1.5 mm b. 4.9 mm c. 2.4 mm d. 2.0 mm

c. 2.4 mm

27. Never leave a tourniquet on for more than: a. 30 seconds b. 3 minutes c. 1 minutes d. 2 minutes

c. 1 minutes

29. Heparin is the first tube to be filled during venipuncture a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

28. Heparin is the anticoagulant of choice for EOFT a. TRUE b. FALSE

a. TRUE

30. When platelet satellitosis was seen in the PBS, the next course of action is to recollect sample using heparinized tube? a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

31. Last nucleated stage? a. Prorubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Rubricyte d. Rubriblast

b. Metarubricyte

32. EDTA induced Platelet clumping results to lower red blood cell count a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

33. There is a sign above the patient’s bed that reads, “No blood pressure or venipuncture, right arm”. The patient has an IV in the left forearm. You have a request to collect a complete blood on the patient. How should you proceed? A. Ask the patient’s nurse what to do when sign is posted B. Collect a CBC from the right arm without using tourniquet C. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture D. Ask the patient’s nurse to collect the specimen from the IV

C. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture

34. The purpose of tourniquet in the venipuncture procedure to: a. Obstruct blood flow to concentrate the analyte b. Redirect more blood flow to the venipuncture site c. Enlarges vein so the are easier to find and enter d. Block the flow of arterial blood into the area

c. Enlarges vein so the are easier to find and enter

35. Earliest recognizable cell in the light microscope a. Metarubricyte b. Prorubricyte c. Rubricyte d. Rubriblast

d. Rubriblast

36. Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts, and therefore prevent coagulation a. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate b. Sodium Fluoride, Sodium heparin, EDTA c. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin d. Sodium citrate EDTA, oxalate

d. Sodium citrate EDTA, oxalate

37. Oxalate is the anticoagulant of choice for platelets counts a. FALSE b. TRUE

a. FALSE

39. ESR test must be set – up within 10 hrs of collection if the specimen is refrigerated a. FALSE b. TRUE

a. FALSE

38. First drop of blood is wiped off during micro sampling in order to prevent platelet satellitosis a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

40. Hemoglobin A2 a. Yolk sac stage b. Hepatic stage c. Mesoblastic phase d. Medullary phase

d. Medullary phase

41. Poikilocyte due to trauma a. Elliptocyte b. Dacrocyte c. Codocyte d. Drepanocyte

b. Dacrocyte

42. RBC diluting fluid when one is expecting samples with roleaux formation a. Formol citrate b. NSS c. Gower’s d. Hayem’s

b. NSS

43. Has a normocytic red cell EXCEPT: a. Acute blood loss b. Aplastic anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Hemolytic anemia

c. Iron deficiency anemia

44. Hemoglobin with Ferrous iron and carbon monoxide a. Methemoglobin b. Hemiglobin c. Sulfhemoglobin d. Carboxyhemoglobin

d. Carboxyhemoglobin

45. 1 gram of hemoglobin approximately carries how many mL of oxygen? a. 1.34 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 2.00 mL d. 3.14 mL

a. 1.34 mL

46. Carboxyhemoglobinemia is reversible when given: a. Carbon oxygen b. Pure oxygen c. Citrate d. Heparin

b. Pure oxygen

47. Confirmatory to sickle cell disease a. Sodium dithionite b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis c. Sodium metabisulfite d. Autohemolysis

b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

48. Broze cell a. Acanthocyte b. Spherocyte c. Codocyte d. Echinocyte

b. Spherocyte

50. Aplastic anemia a. Macrocytic anemia b. Normocytic anemia c. Microcytic anemia

c. Microcytic anemia

49. Major iron storage form a. Ferritin b. Hepcidin c. Transferrin d. Hemosiderin

a. Ferritin

51. Positive to fuelgen reaction a. Basophilic stipplings b. Cabot rings c. Howell jolley bodies d. Pappenheimer bodies

c. Howell jolley bodies

52. Falsely elevated hematocrit reading may be due which of the following? a. Less centrifugation time b. Contamination with interstitial fluid c. Hemolysis d. Improper sealing of the capillary tube

a. Less centrifugation time

53. Composed of remnants of microtubules of mitotic spindles a. Basophilic stipplings b. Cabot rings c. Pappenheimer bodies d. Howell jolly bodies

b. Cabot rings

54. Last stage in the erythropoiesis cable of hemoglobin synthesis a. Rubricyte b. Erthrocyte c. Reticulocyte d. Prorubricyte

c. Reticulocyte

55. Thalassemia a. Normocytic red cell b. Microcytic red cell c. Macrocytic red cell

b. Microcytic red cell

56. Acute blood loss a. Normocytic red cell b. Microcytic red cell c. Macrocytic red cell

a. Normocytic red cell

57. All forms of hemoglobin is measured by the cyanmethemoglobin method EXCEPT: a. Carboxyhemoglobin b. Hemoglobin c. Sulfhemoglobin d. Methemoglobin

c. Sulfhemoglobin

58. Sulfhemoglobin is reported infections associated with: a. Escherichia coli b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Vibrio cholerae d. Clostridium perfringens

d. Clostridium perfringens

59. WBC diluting fluid should: a. Be able to make the nucleus visible b. Be able to make the granules c. Be able to lyse the red blood cells d. Be able to prevent the cell’s aggregation

c. Be able to lyse the red blood cells

60. Normal MCV value a. Normocytic red cell b. Microcytic red cell c. Macrocytic red cell

a. Normocytic red cell

61. Hemoglobin form seen in the venous circulation a. Deoxyhemoglobin b. Oxyhemoglobin

a. Deoxyhemoglobin

62. Increased surface to volume ratio: a. Acanthocyte b. Spherocyte c. Echinocyte d. Codocyte

d. Codocyte

64. Cyanmethemoglobin method requires reading of the sample at what wavelength? a. 500 nm b. 540 nm c. 310 nm d. 250 nm

b. 540 nm

63. Best diluting fluid for manual RBC count a. NSS b. Formol citrate c. Hayem’s d. Gower's

b. Formol citrate

65. Non-specific indicator of inflammation a. Reticulocyte count b. EOFT c. Hematocrit d. ESR

d. ESR

66. Microcytic hypochromic red cells a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Acute blood loss d. Aplastic anemia

a. Iron deficiency anemia

67. Decreased surface to volume ratio: a. Spherocyte b. Acanthocyte c. Codocyte d. Echinocyte

a. Spherocyte

68. Described as having a holly leaf like appearance a. Crenated cell b. Sickle cell c. Target cell d. Mouth cell

b. Sickle cell

69. Caused by cation imbalance a. Mouth cell b. Sickle cell c. Crenated cell d. Target cell

a. Mouth cell

70. Abetalipoproteinemia a. Codocyte b. Spherocyte c. Echinocyte d. Acanthocyte

d. Acanthocyte

71. Hemoglobin F is made up: a. 2 beta and 2 alpha globin chains b. 2 alpha and 2 gamma globin chains c. 2 delta and 2 beta globin chains d. 2 epsilon and 2 delta globin chains

b. 2 alpha and 2 gamma globin chains

72. Absolute eosinophil count is diagnostic to: a. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Allergic reactions

c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Allergic reactions

73. Globin synthesis occurs in the: a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondria c. Ribosomes d. Golgi apparatus

c. Ribosomes

74. From of hemoglobin which imparts a mauve discoloration of the blood: a. Methemoglobin b. Carboxyhemoglobin c. Hemoglobin d. Sulfhemoglobin

d. Sulfhemoglobin

75. In the chemical method for hemoglobin measurement, 1 gram of hemoglobin has a constant iron content of: a. 2.45 mg b. 1.21 mg c. 3.47 mg d. 5.18 mg

c. 3.47 mg

76. Preferred confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis a. Sodium Dithionite b. Sodium Metabisulfite c. EOFT d. Autohemolysis

c. EOFT

77. ESR is read after how many hour/s a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1

d. 1

78. Megaloblastic anemia a. Normocytic red cell b. Microcytic red cell c. Macrocytic red cell

c. Macrocytic red cell

79. Variation in the sizes of the red blood cells a. Poikilocytosis b. Anisocytosis c. Polychromasia d. Normochromasia

b. Anisocytosis

80. Form of hemoglobin which imparts a chocolate brown discoloration to the blood? a. Sulfhemoglobin b. Methemoglobin c. Carboxyhemoglobin d. Oxyhemoglobin

b. Methemoglobin

81. In the cyanmethemoglobin method, what component of the reagent converts the methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin a. Potassium cyanide b. Dihydrogen potassium phosphate c. Non-ionic detergent d. Potassium ferricyanide

a. Potassium cyanide

82. Anemia of chronic disorders a. Normochromic red cell b. Hypochromic red cell c. Hyperchromic red cell

b. Hypochromic red cell

83. Sideroblastic anemia a. Normochromic red cell b. Hypochromic red cell c. Hyperchromic red cell

b. Hypochromic red cell

84. Colorimetric method for the measurement of hemoglobin EXCEPT: a. Sahli’s method b. Cyanmethemoglobin c. Copper sulfate method d. Acid hematic

c. Copper sulfate method

85. Alpha globin chains has how many amino acids? a. 135 b. 121 c. 146 d. 141

d. 141

86. Hereditary spherocytosis a. Normochromic red cell b. Hypochromic red cell c. Hyperchromic red cell

c. Hyperchromic red cell

87. Falsely decreased hematocrit reading may be due to which of the following? a. Dehydration b. Less centrifugation time c. Reading above the buffy coat d. Contamination with interstitial fluid

d. Contamination with interstitial fluid

88. An artifact caused by improper drying a. Sickle cell b. Mouth cell c. Target cell d. Crenated cell

d. Crenated cell

89. Hemoglobin form that exists in relaxed state a. Deoxyhemoglobin b. Oxyhemoglobin

b. Oxyhemoglobin

90. Adult hemoglobin: a. Portland b. Gowers c. Hemoglobin A d. Hemoglobin H

c. Hemoglobin A