Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP > CHAPTER 27 > Flashcards

CHAPTER 27 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT one of the cellular abnormalities produced by oncogenes:

a. Constitutive activation of a growth
factor receptor
b. Constitutive activation of a signaling
protein
c. Acceleration of DNA catabolism
d. Dysregulation of apoptosis

A

c. Acceleration of DNA catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which one of the following is an example of a tumor sup-pressor gene?

a. ABL1
b. RARA
c. TP53
d. JAK2

A

c. TP53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. G-CSF is provided as supportive treatment during leuke-mia treatment regimens to:

a. Suppress GVHD
b. Overcome anorexia
c. Prevent anemia
d. Reduce the risk of infection

A

d. Reduce the risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Imatinib is an example of what type of
    leukemia treatment?

a. Supportive care
b. Chemotherapy
c. Bone marrow conditioning agent
d. Targeted therapy

A

d. Targeted therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which one of the following is FALSE about epigenetic mechanisms?

a. Epigenetic mechanisms control how
genes are expressed and silenced.
b. Micro RNAs can bind to specific
mRNAs and block their translation.
c. Hypermethylation of CpG islands
in gene promoters result in their
overactivation.
d. Histone deacetylases keep chromatin
of target genes in a closed inactive
state.

A

c. Hypermethylation of CpG islands
in gene promoters result in their
overactivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a source of hematopoi-etic stem cells for transplantation:

a. Spleen
b. Bone marrow
c. Peripheral blood
d. Umbilical cord blood

A

a. Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of CD45
    antigen?

a. It is present on every cell
subpopulation in the bone marrow.
b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and
late erythroid precursors.
c. It is not measured routinely in flow
cytometry.
d. It may be present on
nonhematopoietic cells.

A

b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and
late erythroid precursors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is the most common clinical application of flow cytometry?

a. Diagnosis of platelet disorders
b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage
c. Diagnosis of leukemias and
lymphomas
d. Differentiation of anemias

A

c. Diagnosis of leukemias and
lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Erythroid precursors are characterized by the expression of:

a. CD71
b. CD20
c. CD61
d. CD3

A

a. CD71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Antigens expressed by B-LL include:

a. CD3, CD4, and CD8
b. CD19, CD34, and CD10
c. There are no antigens specific for
B-LL.
d. Myeloperoxidase

A

b. CD19, CD34, and CD10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. In Figure 28.2A, the cell population colored in aqua represents:

a. Monocytes
b. Nonhematopoietic cells
c. Granulocytes
d. Lymphocytes

A

d. Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Collection of ungated events:

a. Facilitates comprehensive analysis
of all cells
b. Does not help in detection of
unexpected abnormal populations
c. Allows the collection of data on a
large number of rare cells
d. Is used for leukemia diagnosis only

A

a. Facilitates comprehensive analysis
of all cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of flow
    cytometric gating?

a. It is best defined as selection of a
target population for flow cytometric
analysis.
b. It can be done only at the time of data
acquisition.
c. It can be done only at the time of final
analysis and interpretation of flow
cytometric data.
d. It is accomplished by adjusting flow
rate.

A

a. It is best defined as selection of a
target population for flow cytometric
analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Mature granulocytes show the expression of:

a. CD15, CD33, and CD34
b. CD15, CD33, and CD41
c. CD15, CD33, and CD13
d. CD15, CD33, and CD7

A

c. CD15, CD33, and CD13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Mycosis fungoides is characterized by:

a. Loss of certain antigens compared
with the normal T cell population
b. Polyclonal T cell receptor
c. Immunophenotype indistinguishable
from that of normal T cells
d. Expression of CD3 and CD8 antigens

A

a. Loss of certain antigens compared
with the normal T cell population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. During the initial evaluation of flow
    cytometric data, cell size, cytoplasmic
    complexity, and expression of CD45 antigen are used to define cell subpopulations. Which of the following parameters defines cytoplasmic
    complexity/granularity?

a. SS
b. FS
c. CD45
d. HLA-DR

A

a. SS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The most important feature of the mature neoplastic B cell population is:

a. The presence of a specific
immunophenotype with expres-sion of
CD19 antigen
b. A clonal light chain expression
(i.e., exclusively k- or l-positive
population)
c. A clonal T cell receptor expression d.
Aberrant expression of CD5 antigen on
CD191 cells

A

b. A clonal light chain expression
(i.e., exclusively k- or l-positive
population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. If the DNA nucleotide sequence is
    59-ATTAGC-39, then the mRNA sequence
    transcribed from this template is:

a. 59-GCUAAU-39
b. 59-AUUAGC-39
c. 59-TAATCG-39
d. 59-UAAUCG-39

A

a. 59-GCUAAU-39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Cells with damaged DNA and mutated or
    non functioning cell cycle regulatory proteins:

a. Are arrested in G1 and the DNA
is repaired
b. Continue to divide, which leads
to tumor progression
c. Divide normally, producing identical
daughter cells
d. Go through apoptosis

A

b. Continue to divide, which leads
to tumor progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. To start DNA replication, DNA polymerase requires an available 39 hydroxyl group found on the:

a. Leading strand
b. mRNA
c. Parent strand
d. Primer

A

d. Primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Ligase joins Okazaki fragments of the:

a. 59 to 39 template strand
b. Lagging strand
c. Leading strand
d. Primer fragments

A

b. Lagging strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A 40-year-old patient enters the hospital
    with a rare form of cancer caused by faulty
    cell division regulation. This cancer localized in the patient’s spleen. An ambitious laboratory developed a molecular test to verify the type of cancer present. This molecular test would require patient specimens taken from which two tissues?

a. Abnormal growths found on the
skin and in the bone marrow
b. Normal splenic tissue and
cancerous tissue
c. Cancerous tissue in spleen and
bone marrow
d. Peripheral blood and cancerous
tissue in the spleen

A

b. Normal splenic tissue and
cancerous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. One main difference between PCR and
    reverse transcriptase PCR is that:

a. PCR requires primers
b. PCR uses reverse transcriptase to
elongate the primers
c. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses
cDNA as a template
d. Reverse transcriptase PCR
requires ligase to amplify the target
DNA

A

c. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses
cDNA as a template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements
    about gel electrophoresis is FALSE?

a. The gel is oriented in the
chamber with the wells at the
positive terminal.
b. A buffer solution is required to
maintain the electrical current.
c. The matrix of a polyacrylamide gel
is tighter than that of an agarose gel.
d. The larger DNA fragments will be
closest to the wells of the gel.

A

a. The gel is oriented in the
chamber with the wells at the
positive terminal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. One major difference between endpoint
    PCR and real-time PCR is that:

a. End-point PCR requires
thermostable DNA polymerase,
deoxynucleotides, and primers
b. End-point PCR requires a
separate step to detect the
amplicons formed in the reaction
c. Real-time PCR uses capillary gel
electrophoresis to detect amplicons
during PCR cycling
d. Real-time PCR detects and
quantifies amplicons using
cleavage-based signal amplification

A

b. End-point PCR requires a
separate step to detect the
amplicons formed in the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. In which of the following applications
    would it be most appropriate to use NGS
    technology?

a. Testing for a point mutation in the
FV gene
b. Testing for the BCR-ABL1
translocation in CML
c. Sequencing a B cell lymphoma
genome
d. Determining the karyotype in AML

A

c. Sequencing a B cell lymphoma
genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about minimal residual disease is TRUE?

a. Clinical remission of hematologic
cancers is determined by molecular
techniques such as PCR and flow
cytometry.
b. Real-time quantitative
PCR-determined copy number of
BCR-ABL1 transcripts will always
be lower in molecular remission
than in clinical remission.
c. Qualitative PCR that uses a
known copy number of a target
sequence is of use in determining
minimal residual disease levels.
d. Minimal residual disease
assessment can aid physicians in
making treatment decisions but does
not yet offer insights into prognosis.

A

b. Real-time quantitative
PCR-determined copy number of
BCR-ABL1 transcripts will always
be lower in molecular remission
than in clinical remission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. G-banding refers to the technique of
    staining chromosomes:

a. To isolate those in the G group (i.e.,
chromosomes 21 and 22)
b. In the G0 or resting stage
c. Using Giemsa stain
d. To emphasize areas high in
guanine residues

A

c. Using Giemsa stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds is
    used to halt mitosis in metaphase for
    chromosome analyses?

a. Imatinib
b. Fluorescein
c. Trypsin
d. Colchicine

A

d. Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. One arm of a chromosome has 30
    bands. Which band would be nearest the
    centromere?

a. Band 1
b. Band 15
c. Band 30

A

a. Band 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an
    advantage of the use of FISH?

a. It can be used on nondividing
cells.
b. It can be used on paraffin-embedded tissue.
c. It can detect mutations that do
not result in abnormal banding
patterns.
d. It must be performed on
dividing cells.

A

d. It must be performed on
dividing cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which of the following types of mutations would likely not be detectable with cytogenetic banding techniques?

a. Point mutation resulting in a
single amino acid substitution
b. Transfer of genetic material from
one chromosome to another
c. Loss of genetic material from a
chromosome that does not appear on
any other chromosome
d. Duplication of a chromosome
resulting in 3n of that genetic
material

A

a. Point mutation resulting in a
single amino acid substitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which of the following describes a
    chromosomal deletion?

a. Point mutation resulting in a
single amino acid substitution
b. Transfer of genetic material from
one chromosome to another
c. Loss of genetic material from a
chromosome that does not appear
on any other chromosome
d. Duplication of a chromosome
resulting in 3n of that genetic
material The chromosome analysis
performed on a patient’s leukemic
cells is reported as 47,
XY,14,del(5)(q31)[20]. Answer
questions 7 to 9 based on this
description.

A

c. Loss of genetic material from a
chromosome that does not appear
on any other chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. This patient’s cells have which of the
    following mutations?

a. Loss of the entire number 31
chromosome
b. Loss of the entire number 5
chromosome
c. Loss of a portion of the short arm
of chromosome 4
d. Loss of a portion of the long
arm of chromosome 5

A

d. Loss of a portion of the long
arm of chromosome 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. What other mutation is present in this
    patient’s cells?

a. Polyploidy
b. Tetraploidy
c. An extra chromosome 4
d. Four copies of chromosome 5

A

c. An extra chromosome 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. This patient’s leukemic cells demonstrate:

a. Structural chromosomal defects
only
b. Numeric chromosomal defects only
c. Both structural and numeric
chromosomal defects

A

c. Both structural and numeric
chromosomal defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Aneuploidy describes the total
    chromosome number:

a. That is a multiple of the haploid
number
b. That reflects a loss or gain of
a single chromosome
c. That is diploid but has a balanced
deletion and duplication of whole
chromosomes
d. In gametes; diploid is the number
in somatic cells

A

b. That reflects a loss or gain of
a single chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is:

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%

A

b. 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations?

a. t(12;21)(p13;q22)
b. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2)
c. inv(16)(p13;q22)
d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

A

d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which of the following would be considered a sign of poten-tially favorable prognosis in children with ALL?

a. Hyperdiploidy
b. Presence of CD19 and CD20
c. Absence of trisomy 8
d. Presence of BCR/ABL gene

A

a. Hyperdiploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. A 20-year-old patient has an elevated WBC count with 70% blasts, 4% neutrophils, 5% lymphocytes, and 21% mono-cytes in the peripheral blood. Eosinophils with dysplastic changes are seen in the bone marrow. AML with which of the following karyotypes would be most
    likely to be seen?

a. AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22)
b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)
c. APL with PML-RARA
d. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

A

b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Signs and symptoms of cerebral infiltration with blasts are more commonly seen in:

a. AML with recurrent cytogenetic
abnormalities
b. Therapy-related myeloid neoplasms
c. AML with myelodysplasia-related
changes
d. ALL

A

d. ALL

39
Q
  1. An oncology patient exhibiting signs of renal failure with seizures after initial chemotherapy may potentially develop:

a. Hyperleukocytosis
b. Tumor lysis syndrome
c. Acute leukemia secondary to
chemotherapy
d. Myelodysplasia

A

b. Tumor lysis syndrome

40
Q
  1. Which of the following leukemias affects
    primarily children, is characterized by an
    increase in monoblasts and monocytes, and often is associated with gingival and skin involvement?

a. Pre-B-lymphoblastic leukemia
b. Pure erythroid leukemia
c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)
d. APL with PML-RARA

A

c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

41
Q
  1. A 20-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, and swollen gums. Bone marrow examination reveals 82% cells with delicate chromatin and prominent nucleoli that are CD141, CD41, CD11b1, and CD361. Which of the following acute leukemias is likely?

a. Minimally differentiated leukemia
b. Leukemia of ambiguous lineage
c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic
leukemia
d. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

A

c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic
leukemia

42
Q
  1. Pure erythroid leukemia is a disorder
    involving:

a. Pronormoblasts only
b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic
normoblasts
c. All forms of developing RBC
precursors
d. Equal numbers of pronormoblasts
and myeloblasts

A

b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic
normoblasts

43
Q
  1. A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of 3.0 3 109/L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60% blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The most likely type of leukemia is:

a. Acute lymphoblastic
b. Acute megakaryoblastic
c. Acute monoblastic
d. APL with PML-RARA

A

b. Acute megakaryoblastic

44
Q
  1. SBB stains which of the following
    component of cells?

a. Glycogen
b. Lipids
c. Structural proteins
d. Enzymes

A

b. Lipids

45
Q
  1. The cytochemical stain a-naphthyl
    butyrate is a nonspecific esterase stain that
    shows diffuse positivity in cells of which
    lineage?

a. Erythroid
b. Monocytic
c. Granulocytic
d. Lymphoid

A

b. Monocytic

46
Q
  1. A peripheral blood film that shows
    increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:

a. AML
b. CML
c. MDS
d. Multiple myeloma

A

b. CML

47
Q
  1. Which of the following chromosome
    abnormalities is associated with CML?

a. t(15;17)
b. t(8;14)
c. t(9;22)
d. Monosomy 7

A

c. t(9;22)

48
Q
  1. A patient has a WBC count of 30 3 109 /L
    and the following WBC differential: Segmented neutrophils—38% Bands—17%
    Metamyelocytes—7% Myelocytes—20%
    Promyelocytes—10% Eosinophils—3%
    Basophils—5% Which of the following test
    results would be helpful in determining
    whether the patient has CML?

a. Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction
product increased
b. Myeloperoxidase increased
c. Periodic acid–Schiff staining
decreased
d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1
fusion

A

d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1
fusion

49
Q
  1. The most common mutation found in patients with primary PV is:

a. BCR-ABL1
b. Philadelphia chromosome
c. JAK2 V617F
d. t(15;17)

A

c. JAK2 V617F

50
Q
  1. A patient in whom CML has previously been diagnosed has circulating blasts and
    promyelocytes that total 30% of leuko-cytes. The disease is considered to be in what phase?

a. Chronic stable phase
b. Accelerated phase
c. Transformation to acute leukemia
d. Temporary remission

A

c. Transformation to acute leukemia

51
Q
  1. The peripheral blood in PV typically
    manifests:

a. Erythrocytosis only
b. Erythrocytosis and thrombocytopenia
c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis,
and granulocytosis
d. Anemia and thrombocytopenia

A

c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis,
and granulocytosis

52
Q
  1. A patient has a platelet count of 700 3 109 /L with abnor-malities in the size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a WBC count of 12 3 109/L; and hemoglobin of 11 g/dL. The Philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. PV
b. ET
c. CML
d. Leukemoid reaction

A

b. ET

53
Q
  1. Complications of ET include all of the
    following except:

a. Thrombosis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Seizures
d. Infections

A

d. Infections

53
Q
  1. Which of the following patterns is
    characteristic of the peripheral blood in patients with PMF?

a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes,
nucleated RBCs, immature
granulocytes
b. Abnormal platelets only
c. Hypochromic erythrocytes, immature
granulocytes, and normal platelets
d. Spherocytes, immature granulocytes,
and increased numbers of platelets

A

a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes,
nucleated RBCs, immature
granulocytes

54
Q
  1. The myelofibrosis associated with PMF is a result of:

a. Apoptosis resistance in the fibroblasts
of the bone marrow
b. Impaired production of normal
collagenase by the mutated cells
c. Enhanced activity of fibroblasts as
a result of increased stimulatory
cytokines
d. Increased numbers of fibroblasts as a
result of cytokine stimulation of the
pluripotential stem cells

A

c. Enhanced activity of fibroblasts as
a result of increased stimulatory
cytokines

55
Q
  1. What is a major indication of MDS in the
    peripheral blood and bone marrow?

a. Dyspoiesis
b. Leukocytosis with left shift
c. Normal bone marrow with abnormal
peripheral blood features
d. Thrombocytosis

A

a. Dyspoiesis

56
Q
  1. MDS are most common in which age group?

a. 2 to 10 years
b. 15 to 20 years
c. 25 to 40 years
d. Older than 50 years

A

d. Older than 50 years

57
Q
  1. An alert hematologist should recognize all of the following peripheral blood abnormalities as diagnostic clues in MDS EXCEPT:

a. Oval macrocytes
b. Target cells
c. Agranular neutrophils
d. Circulating micromegakaryocytes

A

b. Target cells

58
Q
  1. For an erythroid precursor to be considered a ring sidero-blast, the iron-laden mitochondria must encircle how much of the nucleus?

a. One-quarter
b. One-third
c. Two-thirds
d. Entire nucleus

A

b. One-third

58
Q
  1. According to the WHO classification of MDS, what percent-age of blasts would constitute transformation to an acute leukemia?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 30%

A

c. 20%

59
Q
  1. A patient has anemia, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following tests would be most efficient in differential diagnosis of this disorder?

a. Serum iron and ferritin levels
b. Erythropoietin level
c. Vitamin B12 and folate levels
d. Chromosome analysis

A

c. Vitamin B12 and folate levels

59
Q
  1. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can be best
    differentiated from reactive disorders by:

a. Genetic testing
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Absolute lymphocyte count
d. Blood film review

A

d. Blood film review

60
Q
  1. Into what other hematologic disease does MDS often convert?

a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. AML
d. Myeloproliferative disease

A

c. AML

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
    contribute to the death of patients with MDS?

a. Neutropenia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Organ failure
d. Neuropathy

A

d. Neuropathy

60
Q
  1. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia is
    classified in the WHO system as:

a. A myeloproliferative neoplasm
b. Myelodysplastic syndrome,
unclassified
c. MDS/MPN
d. Acute leukemia

A

c. MDS/MPN

60
Q
  1. A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician with fatigue and malaise. Her hemoglobin is 8 g/dL, hematocrit is 25%, RBC count is 2.00 3 1012/L, platelet count is 550 3 109/L, and WBC count is 3.8 3 109/L. Her WBC differential is unremarkable. Bone marrow shows erythroid hypoplasia and hypolobulated megakaryocytes; granulopoiesis ap-pears normal. Ring
    sideroblasts are rare. Chromosome analysis reveals the deletion of 5q only. Based on the clas-sification of this disorder, what therapy would be most appropriate?

a. Supportive therapy; lenalidomide if
the disease progresses
b. Aggressive chemotherapy
c. Bone marrow transplantation
d. Low-dose cytosine arabinoside,
accompanied by cis-retinoic acid

A

a. Supportive therapy; lenalidomide if
the disease progresses

61
Q
  1. What is the best test or method for
    determining if a clonal population of T cells is present in a specimen?

a. Molecular diagnostic testing
b. Flow cytometry for CD3, CD5, and
CD7
c. Immunohistochemical stain
d. Karyotyping

A

d. Karyotyping

61
Q
  1. If not treated, which of the following would generally be associated with the best outcome?

a. Peripheral T cell lymphoma
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma
d. Sézary syndrome

A

b. Burkitt lymphoma

62
Q
  1. Which laboratory test is most suggestive of autoimmune hemolytic anemia in a patient with CLL?

a. Direct antiglobulin test
b. Hemoglobin
c. Lymphocyte count
d. Platelet count

A

c. Lymphocyte count

63
Q
  1. A rise in the lymphocyte count from 4.1 3 109/L to 5.5 3 109 /L in a patient with monoclonal B lymphocytosis suggests:

a. Acute lymphocyte leukemia
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. Acute myelocytic leukemia
d. A reactive condition

A

d. A reactive condition

64
Q
  1. Which test is often used to differentiate CLL from mantle cell lymphoma?

a. Annexin A staining
b. Lymph node biopsy
c. Immunohistochemistry
d. FISH for BCL2 translocation

A

b. Lymph node biopsy

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is present in
    monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined
    significance?

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Serum monoclonal protein
c. Anemia
d. Bone lesion

A

a. Hypercalcemia

65
Q
  1. What do CLL and myeloma have in common?

a. Osteolytic lesions
b. Light chain restriction
c. Cell of origin
d. Immunophenotype

A

b. Light chain restriction

65
Q
  1. In most cases the diagnosis of lymphoma
    relies on all of the following except:

a. Microscopic examination of affected
lymph nodes
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Molecular analysis
d. Peripheral blood examination and
complete blood count

A

c. Molecular analysis

66
Q
  1. In Hodgkin lymphoma the Reed-Sternberg cell and _________ are malignant.

a. Popcorn cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Histiocytes

A

a. Popcorn cells

67
Q
  1. What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation through activation of factor VII?

a. Thrombomodulin
b. Nitric oxide
c. Tissue factor
d. Thrombin

A

c. Tissue factor

68
Q
  1. What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor (VWF)?

a. Smooth muscle cell
b. Endothelial cell
c. Fibroblast
d. Platelet

A

b. Endothelial cell

68
Q
  1. What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate
    properly?

a. Factor VIII
b. Fibrinogen
c. Thrombin
d. Factor X

A

b. Fibrinogen

69
Q
  1. What is the source of prothrombin fragment F1.2?

a. Plasmin proteolysis of fibrin polymer
b. Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen
c. Proteolysis of prothrombin by factor
Xa
d. Plasmin proteolysis of cross-linked
fibrin

A

b. Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen

70
Q
  1. What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group factors?

a. Provides a surface on which the
proteolytic reactions of the factors occur
b. Protects them from inappropriate
activation by compounds such as
thrombin c. Accelerates the binding of
the serine proteases and their cofactors
d. Carboxylates the factors to allow
calcium binding

A

d. Carboxylates the factors to allow
calcium binding

70
Q
  1. What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII?

a. TFPI and Xa
b. Antithrombin and protein C
c. APC and protein S
d. Thrombomodulin and plasmin

A

c. APC and protein S

71
Q
  1. What serine protease forms a complex with factor VIIIa, and what is the substrate of this complex?

a. Factor VIIa, factor X
b. Factor Va, prothrombin
c. Factor Xa, prothrombin
d. Factor IXa, factor X

A

d. Factor IXa, factor X

72
Q
  1. What protein secreted by endothelial cells activates fibrinolysis?

a. Plasminogen
b. TPA
c. PAI-1
d. TAFI

A

b. TPA

73
Q
  1. What are the primary roles of VWF?

a. Inhibit excess coagulation and
activate protein C
b. Activate plasmin and promote lysis of
fibrinogen
c. Mediate platelet adhesion and
serve as a carrier molecule for factor
VIII
d. Mediate platelet aggregation via the
GP IIb/IIIa receptor

A

c. Mediate platelet adhesion and
serve as a carrier molecule for factor
VIII

74
Q
  1. Most coagulation factors are synthesized in:

a. The liver
b. Monocytes
c. Endothelial cells
d. Megakaryocytes

A

a. The liver

75
Q
  1. Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot?

a. Tissue factor
b. Factor VII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor XIII

A

d. Factor XIII

75
Q
  1. The events involved in secondary
    hemostasis:

a. Lead to the formation of a stable
fibrin clot
b. Usually occur independently of
primary hemostasis c. Occur in a
random fashion
d. Are the first line of defense against
blood loss

A

a. Lead to the formation of a stable
fibrin clot

75
Q
  1. Which of the following endogenous plasma inhibitors is (are) important for the control of excessive thrombin generation?

a. AT, TFPI
b. Platelet factor 4
c. TAT, F1.2
d. a and b

A

a. AT, TFPI

76
Q
  1. Which is a typical form of anatomic
    bleeding?

a. Epistaxis
b. Menorrhagia
c. Hematemesis
d. Central nervous system bleed

A

d. Central nervous system bleed

76
Q
  1. What is the most common acquired bleeding disorder?

a. Trauma-induced coagulopathy
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. Liver disease
d. VWD

A

a. Trauma-induced coagulopathy

77
Q
  1. What factor becomes deficient early in liver disease, and what assay does its deficiency prolong?

a. Prothrombin deficiency, the PT
b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT
c. FVIII deficiency, the PTT
d. Factor IX deficiency, the PTT

A

b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT

78
Q
  1. In what type or subtype of VWD is the RIPA test result positive when ristocetin is used at a concentration of less than 0.5 mg/mL?

a. Subtype 2A
b. Subtype 2B
c. Subtype 2N
d. Type 3

A

b. Subtype 2B

79
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged thrombin time?

a. Antithrombin deficiency
b. Prothrombin deficiency
c. Hypofibrinogenemia
d. Warfarin therapy

A

c. Hypofibrinogenemia

80
Q
  1. What is the typical treatment for vitamin K deficiency when the patient is bleeding?

a. Vitamin K and plasma
b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC
c. Vitamin K and platelet concentrate
d. Vitamin K and FVIII concentrate

A

b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC

81
Q
  1. If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, TT, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is possible?

a. Fibrinogen
b. Prothrombin
c. Factor XII
d. Factor XIII

A

d. Factor XIII

82
Q
  1. What therapy may be used for a hemophilic boy who is bleeding and who has a high FVIII inhibitor titer?

a. rFVIIa
b. Plasma
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. FVIII concentrate

A

a. rFVIIa

83
Q
  1. What is the most prevalent form of VWD?

a. Type 1
b. Type 2A
c. Type 2B
d. Type 3

A

a. Type 1

84
Q
  1. Which of the following assays is used to
    distinguish vitamin K deficiency from liver
    disease?

a. PT
b. Protein C assay
c. Factor V assay
d. Factor VII assay

A

c. Factor V assay

85
Q
  1. Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of:

a. Acquired hemorrhagic disorders
b. Localized hemorrhagic disorders
c. Defects in primary hemostasis
d. Defects in fibrinolysis

A

c. Defects in primary hemostasis

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions