CHAPTER 27 Flashcards by Prince Mella

Which one of the following is NOT one of the cellular abnormalities produced by oncogenes:

a. Constitutive activation of a growth
factor receptor
b. Constitutive activation of a signaling
protein
c. Acceleration of DNA catabolism
d. Dysregulation of apoptosis

c. Acceleration of DNA catabolism

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Which one of the following is an example of a tumor sup-pressor gene?

a. ABL1
b. RARA
c. TP53
d. JAK2

c. TP53

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G-CSF is provided as supportive treatment during leuke-mia treatment regimens to:

a. Suppress GVHD
b. Overcome anorexia
c. Prevent anemia
d. Reduce the risk of infection

d. Reduce the risk of infection

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Imatinib is an example of what type of
leukemia treatment?

a. Supportive care
b. Chemotherapy
c. Bone marrow conditioning agent
d. Targeted therapy

d. Targeted therapy

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Which one of the following is FALSE about epigenetic mechanisms?

a. Epigenetic mechanisms control how
genes are expressed and silenced.
b. Micro RNAs can bind to specific
mRNAs and block their translation.
c. Hypermethylation of CpG islands
in gene promoters result in their
overactivation.
d. Histone deacetylases keep chromatin
of target genes in a closed inactive
state.

c. Hypermethylation of CpG islands
in gene promoters result in their
overactivation.

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Which one of the following is NOT a source of hematopoi-etic stem cells for transplantation:

a. Spleen
b. Bone marrow
c. Peripheral blood
d. Umbilical cord blood

a. Spleen

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Which of the following is true of CD45
antigen?

a. It is present on every cell
subpopulation in the bone marrow.
b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and
late erythroid precursors.
c. It is not measured routinely in flow
cytometry.
d. It may be present on
nonhematopoietic cells.

b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and
late erythroid precursors.

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What is the most common clinical application of flow cytometry?

a. Diagnosis of platelet disorders
b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage
c. Diagnosis of leukemias and
lymphomas
d. Differentiation of anemias

c. Diagnosis of leukemias and
lymphomas

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Erythroid precursors are characterized by the expression of:

a. CD71
b. CD20
c. CD61
d. CD3

a. CD71

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Antigens expressed by B-LL include:

a. CD3, CD4, and CD8
b. CD19, CD34, and CD10
c. There are no antigens specific for
B-LL.
d. Myeloperoxidase

b. CD19, CD34, and CD10

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In Figure 28.2A, the cell population colored in aqua represents:

a. Monocytes
b. Nonhematopoietic cells
c. Granulocytes
d. Lymphocytes

d. Lymphocytes

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Collection of ungated events:

a. Facilitates comprehensive analysis
of all cells
b. Does not help in detection of
unexpected abnormal populations
c. Allows the collection of data on a
large number of rare cells
d. Is used for leukemia diagnosis only

a. Facilitates comprehensive analysis
of all cells

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Which of the following is true of flow
cytometric gating?

a. It is best defined as selection of a
target population for flow cytometric
analysis.
b. It can be done only at the time of data
acquisition.
c. It can be done only at the time of final
analysis and interpretation of flow
cytometric data.
d. It is accomplished by adjusting flow
rate.

a. It is best defined as selection of a
target population for flow cytometric
analysis.

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Mature granulocytes show the expression of:

a. CD15, CD33, and CD34
b. CD15, CD33, and CD41
c. CD15, CD33, and CD13
d. CD15, CD33, and CD7

c. CD15, CD33, and CD13

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Mycosis fungoides is characterized by:

a. Loss of certain antigens compared
with the normal T cell population
b. Polyclonal T cell receptor
c. Immunophenotype indistinguishable
from that of normal T cells
d. Expression of CD3 and CD8 antigens

a. Loss of certain antigens compared
with the normal T cell population

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During the initial evaluation of flow
cytometric data, cell size, cytoplasmic
complexity, and expression of CD45 antigen are used to define cell subpopulations. Which of the following parameters defines cytoplasmic
complexity/granularity?

a. SS
b. FS
c. CD45
d. HLA-DR

a. SS

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The most important feature of the mature neoplastic B cell population is:

a. The presence of a specific
immunophenotype with expres-sion of
CD19 antigen
b. A clonal light chain expression
(i.e., exclusively k- or l-positive
population)
c. A clonal T cell receptor expression d.
Aberrant expression of CD5 antigen on
CD191 cells

b. A clonal light chain expression
(i.e., exclusively k- or l-positive
population)

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If the DNA nucleotide sequence is
59-ATTAGC-39, then the mRNA sequence
transcribed from this template is:

a. 59-GCUAAU-39
b. 59-AUUAGC-39
c. 59-TAATCG-39
d. 59-UAAUCG-39

a. 59-GCUAAU-39

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Cells with damaged DNA and mutated or
non functioning cell cycle regulatory proteins:

a. Are arrested in G1 and the DNA
is repaired
b. Continue to divide, which leads
to tumor progression
c. Divide normally, producing identical
daughter cells
d. Go through apoptosis

b. Continue to divide, which leads
to tumor progression

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To start DNA replication, DNA polymerase requires an available 39 hydroxyl group found on the:

a. Leading strand
b. mRNA
c. Parent strand
d. Primer

d. Primer

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Ligase joins Okazaki fragments of the:

a. 59 to 39 template strand
b. Lagging strand
c. Leading strand
d. Primer fragments

b. Lagging strand

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A 40-year-old patient enters the hospital
with a rare form of cancer caused by faulty
cell division regulation. This cancer localized in the patient’s spleen. An ambitious laboratory developed a molecular test to verify the type of cancer present. This molecular test would require patient specimens taken from which two tissues?

a. Abnormal growths found on the
skin and in the bone marrow
b. Normal splenic tissue and
cancerous tissue
c. Cancerous tissue in spleen and
bone marrow
d. Peripheral blood and cancerous
tissue in the spleen

b. Normal splenic tissue and
cancerous tissue

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One main difference between PCR and
reverse transcriptase PCR is that:

a. PCR requires primers
b. PCR uses reverse transcriptase to
elongate the primers
c. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses
cDNA as a template
d. Reverse transcriptase PCR
requires ligase to amplify the target
DNA

c. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses
cDNA as a template

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Which one of the following statements
about gel electrophoresis is FALSE?

a. The gel is oriented in the
chamber with the wells at the
positive terminal.
b. A buffer solution is required to
maintain the electrical current.
c. The matrix of a polyacrylamide gel
is tighter than that of an agarose gel.
d. The larger DNA fragments will be
closest to the wells of the gel.

a. The gel is oriented in the
chamber with the wells at the
positive terminal.

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9. One major difference between endpoint PCR and real-time PCR is that: a. End-point PCR requires thermostable DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotides, and primers b. End-point PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction c. Real-time PCR uses capillary gel electrophoresis to detect amplicons during PCR cycling d. Real-time PCR detects and quantifies amplicons using cleavage-based signal amplification

b. End-point PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction

8. In which of the following applications would it be most appropriate to use NGS technology? a. Testing for a point mutation in the FV gene b. Testing for the BCR-ABL1 translocation in CML c. Sequencing a B cell lymphoma genome d. Determining the karyotype in AML

c. Sequencing a B cell lymphoma genome

10. Which of the following statements about minimal residual disease is TRUE? a. Clinical remission of hematologic cancers is determined by molecular techniques such as PCR and flow cytometry. b. Real-time quantitative PCR-determined copy number of BCR-ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission. c. Qualitative PCR that uses a known copy number of a target sequence is of use in determining minimal residual disease levels. d. Minimal residual disease assessment can aid physicians in making treatment decisions but does not yet offer insights into prognosis.

b. Real-time quantitative PCR-determined copy number of BCR-ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission.

1. G-banding refers to the technique of staining chromosomes: a. To isolate those in the G group (i.e., chromosomes 21 and 22) b. In the G0 or resting stage c. Using Giemsa stain d. To emphasize areas high in guanine residues

c. Using Giemsa stain

2. Which of the following compounds is used to halt mitosis in metaphase for chromosome analyses? a. Imatinib b. Fluorescein c. Trypsin d. Colchicine

d. Colchicine

3. One arm of a chromosome has 30 bands. Which band would be nearest the centromere? a. Band 1 b. Band 15 c. Band 30

a. Band 1

4. Which of the following is not an advantage of the use of FISH? a. It can be used on nondividing cells. b. It can be used on paraffin-embedded tissue. c. It can detect mutations that do not result in abnormal banding patterns. d. It must be performed on dividing cells.

d. It must be performed on dividing cells.

5. Which of the following types of mutations would likely not be detectable with cytogenetic banding techniques? a. Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution b. Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another c. Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome d. Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n of that genetic material

a. Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution

6. Which of the following describes a chromosomal deletion? a. Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution b. Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another c. Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome d. Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n of that genetic material The chromosome analysis performed on a patient’s leukemic cells is reported as 47, XY,14,del(5)(q31)[20]. Answer questions 7 to 9 based on this description.

c. Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome

7. This patient’s cells have which of the following mutations? a. Loss of the entire number 31 chromosome b. Loss of the entire number 5 chromosome c. Loss of a portion of the short arm of chromosome 4 d. Loss of a portion of the long arm of chromosome 5

d. Loss of a portion of the long arm of chromosome 5

8. What other mutation is present in this patient’s cells? a. Polyploidy b. Tetraploidy c. An extra chromosome 4 d. Four copies of chromosome 5

c. An extra chromosome 4

9. This patient’s leukemic cells demonstrate: a. Structural chromosomal defects only b. Numeric chromosomal defects only c. Both structural and numeric chromosomal defects

c. Both structural and numeric chromosomal defects

10. Aneuploidy describes the total chromosome number: a. That is a multiple of the haploid number b. That reflects a loss or gain of a single chromosome c. That is diploid but has a balanced deletion and duplication of whole chromosomes d. In gametes; diploid is the number in somatic cells

b. That reflects a loss or gain of a single chromosome

1. According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is: a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50%

b. 20%

6. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations? a. t(12;21)(p13;q22) b. t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) c. inv(16)(p13;q22) d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

d. t(15;17)(q22;q12)

3. Which of the following would be considered a sign of poten-tially favorable prognosis in children with ALL? a. Hyperdiploidy b. Presence of CD19 and CD20 c. Absence of trisomy 8 d. Presence of BCR/ABL gene

a. Hyperdiploidy

2. A 20-year-old patient has an elevated WBC count with 70% blasts, 4% neutrophils, 5% lymphocytes, and 21% mono-cytes in the peripheral blood. Eosinophils with dysplastic changes are seen in the bone marrow. AML with which of the following karyotypes would be most likely to be seen? a. AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22) b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22) c. APL with PML-RARA d. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

b. AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)

4. Signs and symptoms of cerebral infiltration with blasts are more commonly seen in: a. AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities b. Therapy-related myeloid neoplasms c. AML with myelodysplasia-related changes d. ALL

d. ALL

5. An oncology patient exhibiting signs of renal failure with seizures after initial chemotherapy may potentially develop: a. Hyperleukocytosis b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Acute leukemia secondary to chemotherapy d. Myelodysplasia

b. Tumor lysis syndrome

7. Which of the following leukemias affects primarily children, is characterized by an increase in monoblasts and monocytes, and often is associated with gingival and skin involvement? a. Pre-B-lymphoblastic leukemia b. Pure erythroid leukemia c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23) d. APL with PML-RARA

c. AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

8. A 20-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, and swollen gums. Bone marrow examination reveals 82% cells with delicate chromatin and prominent nucleoli that are CD141, CD41, CD11b1, and CD361. Which of the following acute leukemias is likely? a. Minimally differentiated leukemia b. Leukemia of ambiguous lineage c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic leukemia d. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

c. Acute monoblastic/monocytic leukemia

9. Pure erythroid leukemia is a disorder involving: a. Pronormoblasts only b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts c. All forms of developing RBC precursors d. Equal numbers of pronormoblasts and myeloblasts

b. Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts

10. A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of 3.0 3 109/L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60% blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The most likely type of leukemia is: a. Acute lymphoblastic b. Acute megakaryoblastic c. Acute monoblastic d. APL with PML-RARA

b. Acute megakaryoblastic

11. SBB stains which of the following component of cells? a. Glycogen b. Lipids c. Structural proteins d. Enzymes

b. Lipids

12. The cytochemical stain a-naphthyl butyrate is a nonspecific esterase stain that shows diffuse positivity in cells of which lineage? a. Erythroid b. Monocytic c. Granulocytic d. Lymphoid

b. Monocytic

1. A peripheral blood film that shows increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of: a. AML b. CML c. MDS d. Multiple myeloma

b. CML

2. Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML? a. t(15;17) b. t(8;14) c. t(9;22) d. Monosomy 7

c. t(9;22)

3. A patient has a WBC count of 30 3 109 /L and the following WBC differential: Segmented neutrophils—38% Bands—17% Metamyelocytes—7% Myelocytes—20% Promyelocytes—10% Eosinophils—3% Basophils—5% Which of the following test results would be helpful in determining whether the patient has CML? a. Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction product increased b. Myeloperoxidase increased c. Periodic acid–Schiff staining decreased d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1 fusion

d. FISH positive for BCR-ABL1 fusion

5. The most common mutation found in patients with primary PV is: a. BCR-ABL1 b. Philadelphia chromosome c. JAK2 V617F d. t(15;17)

c. JAK2 V617F

4. A patient in whom CML has previously been diagnosed has circulating blasts and promyelocytes that total 30% of leuko-cytes. The disease is considered to be in what phase? a. Chronic stable phase b. Accelerated phase c. Transformation to acute leukemia d. Temporary remission

c. Transformation to acute leukemia

6. The peripheral blood in PV typically manifests: a. Erythrocytosis only b. Erythrocytosis and thrombocytopenia c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and granulocytosis d. Anemia and thrombocytopenia

c. Erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, and granulocytosis

7. A patient has a platelet count of 700 3 109 /L with abnor-malities in the size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a WBC count of 12 3 109/L; and hemoglobin of 11 g/dL. The Philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely diagnosis is: a. PV b. ET c. CML d. Leukemoid reaction

b. ET

8. Complications of ET include all of the following except: a. Thrombosis b. Hemorrhage c. Seizures d. Infections

d. Infections

9. Which of the following patterns is characteristic of the peripheral blood in patients with PMF? a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes b. Abnormal platelets only c. Hypochromic erythrocytes, immature granulocytes, and normal platelets d. Spherocytes, immature granulocytes, and increased numbers of platelets

a. Teardrop-shaped erythrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes

10. The myelofibrosis associated with PMF is a result of: a. Apoptosis resistance in the fibroblasts of the bone marrow b. Impaired production of normal collagenase by the mutated cells c. Enhanced activity of fibroblasts as a result of increased stimulatory cytokines d. Increased numbers of fibroblasts as a result of cytokine stimulation of the pluripotential stem cells

c. Enhanced activity of fibroblasts as a result of increased stimulatory cytokines

2. What is a major indication of MDS in the peripheral blood and bone marrow? a. Dyspoiesis b. Leukocytosis with left shift c. Normal bone marrow with abnormal peripheral blood features d. Thrombocytosis

a. Dyspoiesis

1. MDS are most common in which age group? a. 2 to 10 years b. 15 to 20 years c. 25 to 40 years d. Older than 50 years

d. Older than 50 years

3. An alert hematologist should recognize all of the following peripheral blood abnormalities as diagnostic clues in MDS EXCEPT: a. Oval macrocytes b. Target cells c. Agranular neutrophils d. Circulating micromegakaryocytes

b. Target cells

4. For an erythroid precursor to be considered a ring sidero-blast, the iron-laden mitochondria must encircle how much of the nucleus? a. One-quarter b. One-third c. Two-thirds d. Entire nucleus

b. One-third

5. According to the WHO classification of MDS, what percent-age of blasts would constitute transformation to an acute leukemia? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30%

c. 20%

6. A patient has anemia, oval macrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which of the following tests would be most efficient in differential diagnosis of this disorder? a. Serum iron and ferritin levels b. Erythropoietin level c. Vitamin B12 and folate levels d. Chromosome analysis

c. Vitamin B12 and folate levels

1. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can be best differentiated from reactive disorders by: a. Genetic testing b. Immunophenotyping c. Absolute lymphocyte count d. Blood film review

d. Blood film review

9. Into what other hematologic disease does MDS often convert? a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. AML d. Myeloproliferative disease

c. AML

8. Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to the death of patients with MDS? a. Neutropenia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Organ failure d. Neuropathy

d. Neuropathy

10. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia is classified in the WHO system as: a. A myeloproliferative neoplasm b. Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassified c. MDS/MPN d. Acute leukemia

c. MDS/MPN

7. A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician with fatigue and malaise. Her hemoglobin is 8 g/dL, hematocrit is 25%, RBC count is 2.00 3 1012/L, platelet count is 550 3 109/L, and WBC count is 3.8 3 109/L. Her WBC differential is unremarkable. Bone marrow shows erythroid hypoplasia and hypolobulated megakaryocytes; granulopoiesis ap-pears normal. Ring sideroblasts are rare. Chromosome analysis reveals the deletion of 5q only. Based on the clas-sification of this disorder, what therapy would be most appropriate? a. Supportive therapy; lenalidomide if the disease progresses b. Aggressive chemotherapy c. Bone marrow transplantation d. Low-dose cytosine arabinoside, accompanied by cis-retinoic acid

a. Supportive therapy; lenalidomide if the disease progresses

3. What is the best test or method for determining if a clonal population of T cells is present in a specimen? a. Molecular diagnostic testing b. Flow cytometry for CD3, CD5, and CD7 c. Immunohistochemical stain d. Karyotyping

d. Karyotyping

6. If not treated, which of the following would generally be associated with the best outcome? a. Peripheral T cell lymphoma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma d. Sézary syndrome

b. Burkitt lymphoma

2. Which laboratory test is most suggestive of autoimmune hemolytic anemia in a patient with CLL? a. Direct antiglobulin test b. Hemoglobin c. Lymphocyte count d. Platelet count

c. Lymphocyte count

4. A rise in the lymphocyte count from 4.1 3 109/L to 5.5 3 109 /L in a patient with monoclonal B lymphocytosis suggests: a. Acute lymphocyte leukemia b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Acute myelocytic leukemia d. A reactive condition

d. A reactive condition

5. Which test is often used to differentiate CLL from mantle cell lymphoma? a. Annexin A staining b. Lymph node biopsy c. Immunohistochemistry d. FISH for BCL2 translocation

b. Lymph node biopsy

10. Which of the following is present in monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance? a. Hypercalcemia b. Serum monoclonal protein c. Anemia d. Bone lesion

a. Hypercalcemia

7. What do CLL and myeloma have in common? a. Osteolytic lesions b. Light chain restriction c. Cell of origin d. Immunophenotype

b. Light chain restriction

9. In most cases the diagnosis of lymphoma relies on all of the following except: a. Microscopic examination of affected lymph nodes b. Immunophenotyping c. Molecular analysis d. Peripheral blood examination and complete blood count

c. Molecular analysis

8. In Hodgkin lymphoma the Reed-Sternberg cell and _________ are malignant. a. Popcorn cells b. T cells c. B cells d. Histiocytes

a. Popcorn cells

2. What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation through activation of factor VII? a. Thrombomodulin b. Nitric oxide c. Tissue factor d. Thrombin

c. Tissue factor

1. What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor (VWF)? a. Smooth muscle cell b. Endothelial cell c. Fibroblast d. Platelet

b. Endothelial cell

3. What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? a. Factor VIII b. Fibrinogen c. Thrombin d. Factor X

b. Fibrinogen

5. What is the source of prothrombin fragment F1.2? a. Plasmin proteolysis of fibrin polymer b. Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen c. Proteolysis of prothrombin by factor Xa d. Plasmin proteolysis of cross-linked fibrin

b. Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen

4. What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group factors? a. Provides a surface on which the proteolytic reactions of the factors occur b. Protects them from inappropriate activation by compounds such as thrombin c. Accelerates the binding of the serine proteases and their cofactors d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

8. What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII? a. TFPI and Xa b. Antithrombin and protein C c. APC and protein S d. Thrombomodulin and plasmin

c. APC and protein S

6. What serine protease forms a complex with factor VIIIa, and what is the substrate of this complex? a. Factor VIIa, factor X b. Factor Va, prothrombin c. Factor Xa, prothrombin d. Factor IXa, factor X

d. Factor IXa, factor X

7. What protein secreted by endothelial cells activates fibrinolysis? a. Plasminogen b. TPA c. PAI-1 d. TAFI

b. TPA

9. What are the primary roles of VWF? a. Inhibit excess coagulation and activate protein C b. Activate plasmin and promote lysis of fibrinogen c. Mediate platelet adhesion and serve as a carrier molecule for factor VIII d. Mediate platelet aggregation via the GP IIb/IIIa receptor

c. Mediate platelet adhesion and serve as a carrier molecule for factor VIII

10. Most coagulation factors are synthesized in: a. The liver b. Monocytes c. Endothelial cells d. Megakaryocytes

a. The liver

12. Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot? a. Tissue factor b. Factor VII c. Factor IX d. Factor XIII

d. Factor XIII

11. The events involved in secondary hemostasis: a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot b. Usually occur independently of primary hemostasis c. Occur in a random fashion d. Are the first line of defense against blood loss

a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot

13. Which of the following endogenous plasma inhibitors is (are) important for the control of excessive thrombin generation? a. AT, TFPI b. Platelet factor 4 c. TAT, F1.2 d. a and b

a. AT, TFPI

2. Which is a typical form of anatomic bleeding? a. Epistaxis b. Menorrhagia c. Hematemesis d. Central nervous system bleed

d. Central nervous system bleed

1. What is the most common acquired bleeding disorder? a. Trauma-induced coagulopathy b. Vitamin K deficiency c. Liver disease d. VWD

a. Trauma-induced coagulopathy

3. What factor becomes deficient early in liver disease, and what assay does its deficiency prolong? a. Prothrombin deficiency, the PT b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT c. FVIII deficiency, the PTT d. Factor IX deficiency, the PTT

b. Factor VII deficiency, the PT

5. In what type or subtype of VWD is the RIPA test result positive when ristocetin is used at a concentration of less than 0.5 mg/mL? a. Subtype 2A b. Subtype 2B c. Subtype 2N d. Type 3

b. Subtype 2B

4. Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged thrombin time? a. Antithrombin deficiency b. Prothrombin deficiency c. Hypofibrinogenemia d. Warfarin therapy

c. Hypofibrinogenemia

6. What is the typical treatment for vitamin K deficiency when the patient is bleeding? a. Vitamin K and plasma b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC c. Vitamin K and platelet concentrate d. Vitamin K and FVIII concentrate

b. Vitamin K and four-factor PCC

7. If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, TT, platelet count, and platelet functional assay results are normal, what factor deficiency is possible? a. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin c. Factor XII d. Factor XIII

d. Factor XIII

8. What therapy may be used for a hemophilic boy who is bleeding and who has a high FVIII inhibitor titer? a. rFVIIa b. Plasma c. Cryoprecipitate d. FVIII concentrate

a. rFVIIa

9. What is the most prevalent form of VWD? a. Type 1 b. Type 2A c. Type 2B d. Type 3

a. Type 1

10. Which of the following assays is used to distinguish vitamin K deficiency from liver disease? a. PT b. Protein C assay c. Factor V assay d. Factor VII assay

c. Factor V assay

11. Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of: a. Acquired hemorrhagic disorders b. Localized hemorrhagic disorders c. Defects in primary hemostasis d. Defects in fibrinolysis

c. Defects in primary hemostasis