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CHAPTER 4_HEMATOPOIESES Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The normal sequence of blood cell development is

A. yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen
B. yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone
marrow
C. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow
D. liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

A

C. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

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2
Q
  1. The cell maturation sequence of the segmented
    neutrophil is

A. promyelocyte—myeloblast—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
B. myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
C. monoblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
D. promyelocyte—myelocyte—metamyelocyte—band
or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN)

A

B. myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)

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2
Q
  1. The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte
    (platelet) is

A. megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
B. promegakaryocyte—megakaryocyte
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
C. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
D. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte

A

C. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

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3
Q
  1. The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is
    (are)

A. rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—
metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
B. prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—
reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
C. pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—
polychromatophilic normoblast—orthochromic
normoblast—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
D. both A and C

A

D. both A and C

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4
Q
  1. As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in
    most cases

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

A

B. decreases

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5
Q
  1. As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to
    cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

A

B. decreases

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6
Q
  1. The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell
    matures

A. becomes more clumped
B. becomes less clumped
C. remains the same

A

A. becomes more clumped

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7
Q
  1. The presence of nucleoli is associated with

A. immature cells
B. all young cells, except myeloblasts
C. only erythroblasts
D. disintegrating cells

A

A. immature cells

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8
Q
  1. In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the
    cytoplasm of the cell is

A. dark blue and lacks vacuoles
B. light blue and lacks granules
C. light blue and has specific granules
D. gray with many dark-blue granules

A

B. light blue and lacks granules

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9
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __D___ Monocyte
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10
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __E___ Segmented neutrophil
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11
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __C___ Lymphocyte
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12
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __B___ Band form neutrophil
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13
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __A___ Eosinophil
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14
Q
  1. The progression of erythropoiesis from prenatal life
    to adulthood is

A. yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen
B. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow
C. red bone marrow—liver and spleen—yolk sac
D. liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

A

B. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of
    erythropoietin?

A. Glycoprotein
B. Secreted by the liver
C. Secreted by the kidneys
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of
    erythropoietin?

A. Produced primarily in the liver of the unborn
B. Gene for erythropoietin is found on chromosome 11
C. Most erythropoietin is secreted by the liver in adults
D. Cannot cross the placenta barrier

A

A. Produced primarily in the liver of the unborn

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17
Q
  1. Stimulation of erythropoietin is caused by

A. tissue hypoxia
B. hypervolemia
C. inflammation
D. infection

A

A. tissue hypoxia

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18
Q
  1. The maturational sequences of an erythrocyte are

A. rubriblast—prorubricyte—metarubricyte—
rubricyte-reticulocyte
B. rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte
reticulocyte
C. pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—
polychromatic normoblast—orthochromatic
normoblast—reticulocyte
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

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19
Q
  1. What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone
    marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm
    in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent,
    and basophilic cytoplasm?

A. Rubriblast (pronormoblast)
B. Reticulocyte
C. Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
D. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

A

D. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

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20
Q
  1. The nucleated erythrocyte with a reddish pink
    cytoplasm and condensed chromatin pattern is a

A. rubricyte (polychromatic normoblast)
B. basophilic normoblast (prorubricyte)
C. metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
D. either B or C

A

C. metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)

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21
Q
  1. With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the
    reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for

A. 1 day
B. 2.5 days
C. 3 days
D. 120 days

A

A. 1 day

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22
Q
  1. In a Wright-stained peripheral blood film, the
    reticulocyte will have a blue appearance. This is referred
    to as

A. megaloblastic maturation
B. bluemia
C. polychromatophilia
D. erythroblastosis

A

C. polychromatophilia

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23
Q
  1. In the reticulocyte stage of erythrocytic
    development,

A. nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed
B. RNA is catabolized and ribosomes disintegrate
C. full hemoglobinization of the cell occurs
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

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24
Q
  1. On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress
    or shift reticulocytes are

A. smaller than normal reticulocytes
B. about the same size as normal reticulocytes
C. larger than normal reticulocytes
D. noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

A

C. larger than normal reticulocytes

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25
Q
  1. The normal range for reticulocytes in adults is

A. 0% to 0.5%
B. 0.5% to1.0%
C. 0.5% to2.0%
D.1.5% to2.5%

A

C. 0.5% to2.0%

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26
Q
  1. If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 5.0%
    and a packed cell volume of 0.45 L/L, what is his
    corrected reticulocyte count?

A.2.5%
B.4.5%
C. 5.0%
D. 10%

A

C. 5.0%

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27
Q
  1. If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 6.0%
    and a packed cell volume of 45%, what is his RPI?

A.1.5
B.3.0
C.4.5
D.6.0

A

D.6.0

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28
Q
  1. Normal adult hemoglobin has

A. two alpha and two delta chains
B. three alpha and one beta chains
C. two alpha and two beta chains
D. two beta and two epsilon chains

A

C. two alpha and two beta chains

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29
Q
  1. The number of heme groups in a hemoglobin
    molecule is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

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30
Q
  1. Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG _____ the oxygen
    affinity of the hemoglobin molecule.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not alter

A

B. decreases

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31
Q
  1. After a molecule of hemoglobin gains the first two
    oxygen molecules, the molecule

A. expels 2,3-DPG
B. has decreased oxygen affinity
C. becomes saturated with oxygen
D. adds a molecule of oxygen to an alpha chain

A

A. expels 2,3-DPG

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32
Q
  1. If normal adult (A1) and fetal hemoglobin F are
    compared, fetal hemoglobin has _____ affinity for
    oxygen.

A. less
B. the same
C. a greater

A

C. a greater

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33
Q
  1. Oxyhemoglobin is a _____ than deoxyhemoglobin.

A. weaker acid
B. stronger acid

A

B. stronger acid

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34
Q

Questions 22 and 23: The initial condensation reaction
in the synthesis of porphyrin preceding heme formation
takes place in the (22) _____ and requires (23) _____.

  1. _____
    A. liver
    B. spleen
    C. red bone marrow
    D. mitochondria
A

D. mitochondria

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34
Q
  1. Heme is synthesized predominantly in the

A. liver
B. red bone marrow
C. mature erythrocytes
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

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35
Q

Questions 22 and 23: The initial condensation reaction
in the synthesis of porphyrin preceding heme formation
takes place in the (22) _____ and requires (23) _____.

  1. _____
    A. iron
    B. vitamin B6
    C. vitamin B12
    D. vitamin D
A

B. vitamin B6

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36
Q
  1. The final steps in heme synthesis, including the
    formation of protoporphyrin, take place in

A. a cell’s nucleus
B. a cell’s cytoplasm
C. the spleen
D. the mitochondria

A

D. the mitochondria

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37
Q
  1. An acquired disorder of heme synthesis is

A. congenital erythropoietic porphyria
B. lead poisoning
C. hemolytic anemia
D. hemoglobinopathy

A

B. lead poisoning

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38
Q
  1. The protein responsible for the transport of iron in
    hemoglobin synthesis is

A. globin
B. transferrin
C. oxyhemoglobin
D. ferritin

A

B. transferrin

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39
Q

Questions 27 and 28: If globin synthesis is insufficient in
a person, iron accumulates in the cell’s (27) _____ as
(28) _____ aggregates.

  1. _____
    A. nucleus
    B. cytoplasm
    C. Golgi apparatus
    D. mitochondria
A

B. cytoplasm

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40
Q

Questions 27 and 28: If globin synthesis is insufficient in
a person, iron accumulates in the cell’s (27) _____ as
(28) _____ aggregates.

  1. _____
    A. transferrin
    B. ferritin
    C. albumin
    D. iron
A

B. ferritin

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41
Q
  1. Increased erythropoietin production in secondary
    polycythemia can be caused by

A. chronic lung disease
B. smoking
C. renal neoplasms
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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42
Q
  1. Relative polycythemia exists when

A. increased erythropoietin is produced
B. the total blood volume is expanded
C. the plasma volume is increased
D. the plasma volume is decreased

A

D. the plasma volume is decreased

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43
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of
    megaloblastic maturation?

A. Cells of some leukocytic cell lines are smaller than
normal
B. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic
maturation
C. Cytoplasmic maturation lags behind nuclear
maturation
D. Erythrocytes are smaller than normal

A

B. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic
maturation

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44
Q

Questions 32 and 33: When porphyrin synthesis is
impaired, the (32) _____ become encrusted with (33)
_____.

  1. _____
    A. lysosomes
    B. nucleoli
    C. mitochondria
    D. vacuoles
A

C. mitochondria

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45
Q

Questions 32 and 33: When porphyrin synthesis is
impaired, the (32) _____ become encrusted with (33)
_____.

  1. _____
    A. protoporphyrin
    B. hemoglobin
    C. iron
    D. delta-aminolaevulinic acid
A

C. iron

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following hemoglobin types is the
    major type present in a normal adult?

A. A
B. S
C. A2
D. Bart

47
Q
  1. The alkaline denaturation test detects the presence
    of hemoglobin

A. A1C
B. F
C. C
D. S

48
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the following
hemoglobin types.

A. Two alpha and two delta chains
B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains

49
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the following
hemoglobin types.

A. Two alpha and two delta chains
B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains

50
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the following
hemoglobin types.

A. Two alpha and two delta chains
B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains

51
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the following
hemoglobin types.

A. Two alpha and two delta chains
B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains

A
  1. __B___ Embryonic
52
Q
  1. Fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) persists until

A. a few days after birth
B. a few weeks after birth
C. several months after birth
D. adulthood

A

C. several months after birth

53
Q
  1. Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the
    hemoglobin fractions

A. S
B. H
C. A
D. both A and C

A

D. both A and C

54
Q
  1. If an alkaline (pH8.6) electrophoresis is performed,
    hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin

A. S
B. F
C. A
D. C

55
Q
  1. The limited metabolic ability of erythrocytes is
    owing to

A. the absence of RNA
B. the absence of ribosomes
C. no mitochondria for oxidative metabolism
D. the absence of DNA

A

C. no mitochondria for oxidative metabolism

56
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is (are) true of
    the erythrocytic cytoplasmic contents?

A. High in potassium ion
B. High in sodium ion
C. Contain glucose and enzymes necessary for glycolysis
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

57
Q
  1. The Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway uses
    _____ % of the erythrocyte’s total glucose.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 90

58
Q
  1. The Embden-Meyerhof pathway net gain of ATP
    provides high energy phosphates to

A. maintain membrane lipids
B. power the cation pump needed for the sodium
potassium concentration pump and calcium flux
C. preserve the shape and flexibility of the cellular
membrane
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

59
Q
  1. The end product of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway
    of glucose metabolism in the erythrocyte is

A. pyruvate
B. lactate
C. glucose-6-phosphate
D. the trioses

A

B. lactate

60
Q
  1. The net gain in ATPs in the Embden-Meyerhof
    glycolytic pathway is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

61
Q
  1. The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency
    involving the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is a
    deficiency of

A. ATPase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. lactic dehydrogenase

A

B. pyruvate kinase

62
Q
  1. If a defect in the oxidative pathway (hexose
    monophosphate shunt) occurs, what will result?

A. Insufficient amounts of reduced glutathione
B. Denaturation of globin
C. Precipitation of Heinz bodies
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

63
Q
  1. The function of the methemoglobin reductase
    pathway is to

A. prevent oxidation of heme iron
B. produce methemoglobinemia
C. provide cellular energy
D. control the rate of glycolysis

A

A. prevent oxidation of heme iron

64
Q
  1. The Luebering-Rapoport pathway

A. permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG
B. promotes glycolysis
C. produces cellular energy
D. produces acidosis

A

A. permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG

65
Q
  1. In conditions of acidosis,

A. erythrocytic glycolysis is reduced
B. available oxygen is increased
C. DPG levels fall to a level sufficient to normalize
oxygen tension
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

66
Q
  1. As the erythrocyte ages,

A. the membrane becomes less flexible with loss of cell
membrane
B. cellular hemoglobin increases
C. enzyme activity, particularly glycolysis, decreases
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

67
Q
  1. Erythrocytic catabolism produces the disassembling
    of hemoglobin followed by

A. iron transported in the plasma by transferrin
B. globin catabolized in the liver to amino acids and
then entering the amino acid pool
C. bilirubin formed from opened porphyrin ring and
carried by plasma albumin to the liver, conjugated, and
excreted in bile
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

68
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true of the
    intravascular destruction of erythrocytes?

A. It accounts for less than 10% of normal erythrocyte
breakdown.
B. Hemoglobin is released directly into blood.
C. Alpha and beta dimers are bound to haptoglobin.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

69
Q
  1. The upper limit of the reference range of
    hemoglobin in an adult male is

A.10.5 to12.0 g/dL
B.12.5 to14.0 g/dL
C.13.5 to15.0 g/dL
D. 14 to18.0 g/dL

A

D. 14 to18.0 g/dL

70
Q

Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific
erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula.

A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/
erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL
B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or
hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL
C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L)
= pg

A
  1. __A___ MCV
71
Q

Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific
erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula.

A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/
erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL
B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or
hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL
C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L)
= pg

A
  1. __C___ MCH
72
Q

Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific
erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula.

A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/
erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL
B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or
hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL
C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L)
= pg

A
  1. __B___ MCHC
73
Q

Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic
indices with the appropriate normal value.

A. 32 to 36 g/dL
B. 27 to 32 pg
C. 80 to 96 f

A
  1. __C___ MCV
74
Q

Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic
indices with the appropriate normal value.

A. 32 to 36 g/dL
B. 27 to 32 pg
C. 80 to 96 f

A
  1. __B___ MCH
75
Q

Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic
indices with the appropriate normal value.

A. 32 to 36 g/dL
B. 27 to 32 pg
C. 80 to 96 f

A
  1. __A___ MCHC
76
Q
  1. The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is
    _____ mm.

A.5.2
B.6.4
C.7.2
D.8.4

77
Q

Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with
the appropriate description.

A. Variation in erythrocyte size
B. Larger than normal
C. Smaller than normal
D. Variation in erythrocyte shape

A
  1. __B___ Macrocytic
78
Q

Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with
the appropriate description.

A. Variation in erythrocyte size
B. Larger than normal
C. Smaller than normal
D. Variation in erythrocyte shape

A
  1. __C___ Microcytic
79
Q

Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with
the appropriate description.

A. Variation in erythrocyte size
B. Larger than normal
C. Smaller than normal
D. Variation in erythrocyte shape

A
  1. __A___ Anisocytosis
80
Q

Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with
the appropriate description.

A. Variation in erythrocyte size
B. Larger than normal
C. Smaller than normal
D. Variation in erythrocyte shape

A
  1. __D___ Poikilocytosis
81
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for
erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature.

A. Megalocyte
B. Drepanocyte
C. Codocyte
D. Discocyte

A
  1. __D___ Normal erythrocyte
82
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for
erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature.

A. Megalocyte
B. Drepanocyte
C. Codocyte
D. Discocyte

A
  1. __A___ Oval macrocyte
83
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for
erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature.

A. Megalocyte
B. Drepanocyte
C. Codocyte
D. Discocyte

A
  1. __C___ Target cell
84
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for
erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature.

A. Megalocyte
B. Drepanocyte
C. Codocyte
D. Discocyte

A
  1. __B___ Sickle cell
85
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for
erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological
description.

A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are
regularly distributed around the cell
B. Fragments of erythrocytes
C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains
after a blister cell rupture
D. Compact round shape

A
  1. __A___ Echinocytes
86
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for
erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological
description.

A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are
regularly distributed around the cell
B. Fragments of erythrocytes
C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains
after a blister cell rupture
D. Compact round shape

A
  1. __C___ Helmet cells
87
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for
erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological
description.

A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are
regularly distributed around the cell
B. Fragments of erythrocytes
C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains
after a blister cell rupture
D. Compact round shape

A
  1. __B___ Schistocytes
88
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for
erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological
description.

A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are
regularly distributed around the cell
B. Fragments of erythrocytes
C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains
after a blister cell rupture
D. Compact round shape

A
  1. __D___ Spherocytes
89
Q

Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the
predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral
blood smear (use an answer only once).

A. Microcytes
B. Sickle cells
C. Macrocytes
D. Acanthocytes

A
  1. __C___ Associated with a defect in nuclear
    maturation
90
Q

Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the
predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral
blood smear (use an answer only once).

A. Microcytes
B. Sickle cells
C. Macrocytes
D. Acanthocytes

A
  1. __A___ Associated with a decrease in hemoglobin
    synthesis
91
Q

Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the
predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral
blood smear (use an answer only once).

A. Microcytes
B. Sickle cells
C. Macrocytes
D. Acanthocytes

A
  1. __D___ Represents an imbalance between
    erythrocytic and plasma lipids
92
Q

Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the
predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral
blood smear (use an answer only once).

A. Microcytes
B. Sickle cells
C. Macrocytes
D. Acanthocytes

A
  1. __B___ Results from the gelation of polymerized
    deoxygenated Hb S
93
Q
  1. Polychromatophilia is

A. a blue-colored erythrocyte when stained with Wright
stain
B. caused by diffusely distributed RNA in the cytoplasm
C. equivalent to a reticulocyte when stained with a
supravital stain
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

94
Q

Questions 19 through 22: Match the following
erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description.

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A
  1. __C___ Basophilic stippling
95
Q

Questions 19 through 22: Match the following
erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description.

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A
  1. __A___ Howell-Jolly bodies
96
Q

Questions 19 through 22: Match the following
erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description.

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A
  1. __D___ Pappenheimer bodies
97
Q

Questions 19 through 22: Match the following
erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description.

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A
  1. __B___ Heinz bodies
98
Q
  1. Which of the following is the term for erythrocytes
    resembling a stack of coins on thin sections of a
    peripheral blood smear?

A. Anisocytosis
B. Poikilocytosis
C. Agglutination
D. Rouleaux formation

A

D. Rouleaux formation

99
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Abetalipoproteinemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. No related disease state

A
  1. __C___ Macrocytes
100
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Abetalipoproteinemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. No related disease state

A
  1. __A___ Microcytes
101
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Abetalipoproteinemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. No related disease state

A
  1. __B___ Acanthocytes
102
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Abetalipoproteinemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. No related disease state

A
  1. __D___ Echinocytes
103
Q

Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Hepatic disorders
B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
C. Hemoglobinopathies
D. Pernicious anemia

A
  1. __A___ Leptocytes
104
Q

Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Hepatic disorders
B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
C. Hemoglobinopathies
D. Pernicious anemia

A
  1. __B___ Microspherocytes
105
Q

Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Hepatic disorders
B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
C. Hemoglobinopathies
D. Pernicious anemia

A
  1. __C___ Codocyte
106
Q

Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant
erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Hepatic disorders
B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
C. Hemoglobinopathies
D. Pernicious anemia

A
  1. __D___ Dacryocytes
107
Q

Questions 32 through 35: Match the following
erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Pernicious anemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Iron loading anemia
D. Lead poisoning

A
  1. __D___ Basophilic stippling
108
Q

Questions 32 through 35: Match the following
erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Pernicious anemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Iron loading anemia
D. Lead poisoning

A
  1. __A___ Howell-Jolly bodies
109
Q

Questions 32 through 35: Match the following
erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Pernicious anemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Iron loading anemia
D. Lead poisoning

A
  1. __B___ Heinz bodies
110
Q

Questions 32 through 35: Match the following
erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical
condition or disorder.

A. Pernicious anemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Iron loading anemia
D. Lead poisoning

A
  1. __C___ Pappenheimer bodies
111
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate
species of malaria with one of the following
characteristics.

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally
abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann
stippling.
B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24
merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules.
C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval
shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites
in the schizont.
D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally
the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes
appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in
erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A
  1. __B___ Plasmodium vivax
112
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate
species of malaria with one of the following
characteristics.

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally
abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann
stippling.
B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24
merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules.
C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval
shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites
in the schizont.
D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally
the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes
appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in
erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A
  1. __D___ Plasmodium falciparum
113
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate
species of malaria with one of the following
characteristics.

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally
abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann
stippling.
B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24
merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules.
C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval
shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites
in the schizont.
D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally
the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes
appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in
erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A
  1. __A___ Plasmodium malariae
114
Q

Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate
species of malaria with one of the following
characteristics.

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally
abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann
stippling.
B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24
merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules.
C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval
shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites
in the schizont.
D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally
the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes
appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in
erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A
  1. __C___ Plasmodium ovale
115
Q
  1. Nantucket Island is an endemic area for

A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. Babesiosis
D. all of the above

A

C. Babesiosis

116
Q
  1. Babesiosis infection shares many of the same
    symptoms as

A. Plasmodium falciparum malaria
B. Lyme disease
C. Ehrlichia
D. None of the above

A

A. Plasmodium falciparum malaria

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

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