CHAPTER 4_HEMATOPOIESES Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The normal sequence of blood cell development is

A. yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen
B. yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone
marrow
C. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow
D. liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

A

C. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

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2
Q
  1. The cell maturation sequence of the segmented
    neutrophil is

A. promyelocyte—myeloblast—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
B. myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
C. monoblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)
D. promyelocyte—myelocyte—metamyelocyte—band
or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN)

A

B. myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil
(PMN)

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2
Q
  1. The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte
    (platelet) is

A. megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
B. promegakaryocyte—megakaryocyte
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
C. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
D. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte

A

C. megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

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3
Q
  1. The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is
    (are)

A. rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—
metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
B. prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—
reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
C. pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—
polychromatophilic normoblast—orthochromic
normoblast—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte
D. both A and C

A

D. both A and C

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4
Q
  1. As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in
    most cases

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

A

B. decreases

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5
Q
  1. As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to
    cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

A

B. decreases

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6
Q
  1. The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell
    matures

A. becomes more clumped
B. becomes less clumped
C. remains the same

A

A. becomes more clumped

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7
Q
  1. The presence of nucleoli is associated with

A. immature cells
B. all young cells, except myeloblasts
C. only erythroblasts
D. disintegrating cells

A

A. immature cells

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8
Q
  1. In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the
    cytoplasm of the cell is

A. dark blue and lacks vacuoles
B. light blue and lacks granules
C. light blue and has specific granules
D. gray with many dark-blue granules

A

B. light blue and lacks granules

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9
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __D___ Monocyte
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10
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __E___ Segmented neutrophil
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11
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __C___ Lymphocyte
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12
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __B___ Band form neutrophil
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13
Q

Questions 10 through 14: Match the cellular
characteristics with the name of the appropriate mature
leukocyte. Use an answer only once.

A. Large orange granules
B. An elongated and curved nucleus
C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
D. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
E. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult
leukocytes in the peripheral blood

A
  1. __A___ Eosinophil
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14
Q
  1. The progression of erythropoiesis from prenatal life
    to adulthood is

A. yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen
B. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow
C. red bone marrow—liver and spleen—yolk sac
D. liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

A

B. yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of
    erythropoietin?

A. Glycoprotein
B. Secreted by the liver
C. Secreted by the kidneys
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of
    erythropoietin?

A. Produced primarily in the liver of the unborn
B. Gene for erythropoietin is found on chromosome 11
C. Most erythropoietin is secreted by the liver in adults
D. Cannot cross the placenta barrier

A

A. Produced primarily in the liver of the unborn

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17
Q
  1. Stimulation of erythropoietin is caused by

A. tissue hypoxia
B. hypervolemia
C. inflammation
D. infection

A

A. tissue hypoxia

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18
Q
  1. The maturational sequences of an erythrocyte are

A. rubriblast—prorubricyte—metarubricyte—
rubricyte-reticulocyte
B. rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte
reticulocyte
C. pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—
polychromatic normoblast—orthochromatic
normoblast—reticulocyte
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

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19
Q
  1. What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone
    marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm
    in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent,
    and basophilic cytoplasm?

A. Rubriblast (pronormoblast)
B. Reticulocyte
C. Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
D. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

A

D. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

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20
Q
  1. The nucleated erythrocyte with a reddish pink
    cytoplasm and condensed chromatin pattern is a

A. rubricyte (polychromatic normoblast)
B. basophilic normoblast (prorubricyte)
C. metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
D. either B or C

A

C. metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)

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21
Q
  1. With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the
    reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for

A. 1 day
B. 2.5 days
C. 3 days
D. 120 days

A

A. 1 day

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22
Q
  1. In a Wright-stained peripheral blood film, the
    reticulocyte will have a blue appearance. This is referred
    to as

A. megaloblastic maturation
B. bluemia
C. polychromatophilia
D. erythroblastosis

A

C. polychromatophilia

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23
Q
  1. In the reticulocyte stage of erythrocytic
    development,

A. nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed
B. RNA is catabolized and ribosomes disintegrate
C. full hemoglobinization of the cell occurs
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

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24
11. On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are A. smaller than normal reticulocytes B. about the same size as normal reticulocytes C. larger than normal reticulocytes D. noticeable because of a decreased blue tint
C. larger than normal reticulocytes
25
12. The normal range for reticulocytes in adults is A. 0% to 0.5% B. 0.5% to1.0% C. 0.5% to2.0% D.1.5% to2.5%
C. 0.5% to2.0%
26
13. If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 5.0% and a packed cell volume of 0.45 L/L, what is his corrected reticulocyte count? A.2.5% B.4.5% C. 5.0% D. 10%
C. 5.0%
27
14. If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 6.0% and a packed cell volume of 45%, what is his RPI? A.1.5 B.3.0 C.4.5 D.6.0
D.6.0
28
15. Normal adult hemoglobin has A. two alpha and two delta chains B. three alpha and one beta chains C. two alpha and two beta chains D. two beta and two epsilon chains
C. two alpha and two beta chains
29
16. The number of heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
D. 4
30
17. Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG _____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule. A. increases B. decreases C. does not alter
B. decreases
31
18. After a molecule of hemoglobin gains the first two oxygen molecules, the molecule A. expels 2,3-DPG B. has decreased oxygen affinity C. becomes saturated with oxygen D. adds a molecule of oxygen to an alpha chain
A. expels 2,3-DPG
32
19. If normal adult (A1) and fetal hemoglobin F are compared, fetal hemoglobin has _____ affinity for oxygen. A. less B. the same C. a greater
C. a greater
33
20. Oxyhemoglobin is a _____ than deoxyhemoglobin. A. weaker acid B. stronger acid
B. stronger acid
34
Questions 22 and 23: The initial condensation reaction in the synthesis of porphyrin preceding heme formation takes place in the (22) _____ and requires (23) _____. 22. _____ A. liver B. spleen C. red bone marrow D. mitochondria
D. mitochondria
34
21. Heme is synthesized predominantly in the A. liver B. red bone marrow C. mature erythrocytes D. both A and B
D. both A and B
35
Questions 22 and 23: The initial condensation reaction in the synthesis of porphyrin preceding heme formation takes place in the (22) _____ and requires (23) _____. 23. _____ A. iron B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin B12 D. vitamin D
B. vitamin B6
36
24. The final steps in heme synthesis, including the formation of protoporphyrin, take place in A. a cell’s nucleus B. a cell’s cytoplasm C. the spleen D. the mitochondria
D. the mitochondria
37
25. An acquired disorder of heme synthesis is A. congenital erythropoietic porphyria B. lead poisoning C. hemolytic anemia D. hemoglobinopathy
B. lead poisoning
38
26. The protein responsible for the transport of iron in hemoglobin synthesis is A. globin B. transferrin C. oxyhemoglobin D. ferritin
B. transferrin
39
Questions 27 and 28: If globin synthesis is insufficient in a person, iron accumulates in the cell’s (27) _____ as (28) _____ aggregates. 27. _____ A. nucleus B. cytoplasm C. Golgi apparatus D. mitochondria
B. cytoplasm
40
Questions 27 and 28: If globin synthesis is insufficient in a person, iron accumulates in the cell’s (27) _____ as (28) _____ aggregates. 28. _____ A. transferrin B. ferritin C. albumin D. iron
B. ferritin
41
29. Increased erythropoietin production in secondary polycythemia can be caused by A. chronic lung disease B. smoking C. renal neoplasms D. all of the above
D. all of the above
42
30. Relative polycythemia exists when A. increased erythropoietin is produced B. the total blood volume is expanded C. the plasma volume is increased D. the plasma volume is decreased
D. the plasma volume is decreased
43
31. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of megaloblastic maturation? A. Cells of some leukocytic cell lines are smaller than normal B. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic maturation C. Cytoplasmic maturation lags behind nuclear maturation D. Erythrocytes are smaller than normal
B. Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic maturation
44
Questions 32 and 33: When porphyrin synthesis is impaired, the (32) _____ become encrusted with (33) _____. 32. _____ A. lysosomes B. nucleoli C. mitochondria D. vacuoles
C. mitochondria
45
Questions 32 and 33: When porphyrin synthesis is impaired, the (32) _____ become encrusted with (33) _____. 33. _____ A. protoporphyrin B. hemoglobin C. iron D. delta-aminolaevulinic acid
C. iron
46
34. Which of the following hemoglobin types is the major type present in a normal adult? A. A B. S C. A2 D. Bart
A. A
47
35. The alkaline denaturation test detects the presence of hemoglobin A. A1C B. F C. C D. S
B. F
48
Questions 36 through 39: Match the following hemoglobin types. A. Two alpha and two delta chains B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains C. Two alpha and two beta chains D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
36. __C___ A
49
Questions 36 through 39: Match the following hemoglobin types. A. Two alpha and two delta chains B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains C. Two alpha and two beta chains D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
37. __A___ A2
50
Questions 36 through 39: Match the following hemoglobin types. A. Two alpha and two delta chains B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains C. Two alpha and two beta chains D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
38. __D___ F
51
Questions 36 through 39: Match the following hemoglobin types. A. Two alpha and two delta chains B. Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains C. Two alpha and two beta chains D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
39. __B___ Embryonic
52
40. Fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) persists until A. a few days after birth B. a few weeks after birth C. several months after birth D. adulthood
C. several months after birth
53
41. Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the hemoglobin fractions A. S B. H C. A D. both A and C
D. both A and C
54
42. If an alkaline (pH8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin A. S B. F C. A D. C
D. C
55
43. The limited metabolic ability of erythrocytes is owing to A. the absence of RNA B. the absence of ribosomes C. no mitochondria for oxidative metabolism D. the absence of DNA
C. no mitochondria for oxidative metabolism
56
44. Which of the following statements is (are) true of the erythrocytic cytoplasmic contents? A. High in potassium ion B. High in sodium ion C. Contain glucose and enzymes necessary for glycolysis D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
57
45. The Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway uses _____ % of the erythrocyte’s total glucose. A. 10 B. 20 C. 50 D. 90
D. 90
58
46. The Embden-Meyerhof pathway net gain of ATP provides high energy phosphates to A. maintain membrane lipids B. power the cation pump needed for the sodium potassium concentration pump and calcium flux C. preserve the shape and flexibility of the cellular membrane D. all of the above
D. all of the above
59
47. The end product of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of glucose metabolism in the erythrocyte is A. pyruvate B. lactate C. glucose-6-phosphate D. the trioses
B. lactate
60
48. The net gain in ATPs in the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
B. 2
61
49. The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is a deficiency of A. ATPase B. pyruvate kinase C. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. lactic dehydrogenase
B. pyruvate kinase
62
50. If a defect in the oxidative pathway (hexose monophosphate shunt) occurs, what will result? A. Insufficient amounts of reduced glutathione B. Denaturation of globin C. Precipitation of Heinz bodies D. All of the above
D. All of the above
63
51. The function of the methemoglobin reductase pathway is to A. prevent oxidation of heme iron B. produce methemoglobinemia C. provide cellular energy D. control the rate of glycolysis
A. prevent oxidation of heme iron
64
52. The Luebering-Rapoport pathway A. permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG B. promotes glycolysis C. produces cellular energy D. produces acidosis
A. permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG
65
53. In conditions of acidosis, A. erythrocytic glycolysis is reduced B. available oxygen is increased C. DPG levels fall to a level sufficient to normalize oxygen tension D. all of the above
D. all of the above
66
54. As the erythrocyte ages, A. the membrane becomes less flexible with loss of cell membrane B. cellular hemoglobin increases C. enzyme activity, particularly glycolysis, decreases D. all of the above
D. all of the above
67
55. Erythrocytic catabolism produces the disassembling of hemoglobin followed by A. iron transported in the plasma by transferrin B. globin catabolized in the liver to amino acids and then entering the amino acid pool C. bilirubin formed from opened porphyrin ring and carried by plasma albumin to the liver, conjugated, and excreted in bile D. all of the above
D. all of the above
68
56. Which of the following statements are true of the intravascular destruction of erythrocytes? A. It accounts for less than 10% of normal erythrocyte breakdown. B. Hemoglobin is released directly into blood. C. Alpha and beta dimers are bound to haptoglobin. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
69
57. The upper limit of the reference range of hemoglobin in an adult male is A.10.5 to12.0 g/dL B.12.5 to14.0 g/dL C.13.5 to15.0 g/dL D. 14 to18.0 g/dL
D. 14 to18.0 g/dL
70
Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula. A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/ erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L) = pg
58. __A___ MCV
71
Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula. A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/ erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L) = pg
59. __C___ MCH
72
Questions 58 through 60: Match the specific erythrocytic indices with the appropriate formula. A. Packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L)/ erythrocyte count (×1012 /L) =fL B. Hemoglobin (in g/dL)/packed cell volume or hematocrit (in L/L) = g/dL C. Hemoglobin (×10 g/dL)/erythrocyte count (×1012/L) = pg
60. __B___ MCHC
73
Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic indices with the appropriate normal value. A. 32 to 36 g/dL B. 27 to 32 pg C. 80 to 96 f
61. __C___ MCV
74
Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic indices with the appropriate normal value. A. 32 to 36 g/dL B. 27 to 32 pg C. 80 to 96 f
62. __B___ MCH
75
Questions 61 through 63: Match the erythrocytic indices with the appropriate normal value. A. 32 to 36 g/dL B. 27 to 32 pg C. 80 to 96 f
63. __A___ MCHC
76
1. The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ mm. A.5.2 B.6.4 C.7.2 D.8.4
C.7.2
77
Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with the appropriate description. A. Variation in erythrocyte size B. Larger than normal C. Smaller than normal D. Variation in erythrocyte shape
2. __B___ Macrocytic
78
Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with the appropriate description. A. Variation in erythrocyte size B. Larger than normal C. Smaller than normal D. Variation in erythrocyte shape
3. __C___ Microcytic
79
Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with the appropriate description. A. Variation in erythrocyte size B. Larger than normal C. Smaller than normal D. Variation in erythrocyte shape
4. __A___ Anisocytosis
80
Questions 2 through 5: Match the following terms with the appropriate description. A. Variation in erythrocyte size B. Larger than normal C. Smaller than normal D. Variation in erythrocyte shape
5. __D___ Poikilocytosis
81
Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature. A. Megalocyte B. Drepanocyte C. Codocyte D. Discocyte
6. __D___ Normal erythrocyte
82
Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature. A. Megalocyte B. Drepanocyte C. Codocyte D. Discocyte
7. __A___ Oval macrocyte
83
Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature. A. Megalocyte B. Drepanocyte C. Codocyte D. Discocyte
8. __C___ Target cell
84
Questions 6 through 9: Match the common terms for erythrocytes with the equivalent nomenclature. A. Megalocyte B. Drepanocyte C. Codocyte D. Discocyte
9. __B___ Sickle cell
85
Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological description. A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell B. Fragments of erythrocytes C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell rupture D. Compact round shape
10. __A___ Echinocytes
86
Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological description. A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell B. Fragments of erythrocytes C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell rupture D. Compact round shape
11. __C___ Helmet cells
87
Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological description. A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell B. Fragments of erythrocytes C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell rupture D. Compact round shape
12. __B___ Schistocytes
88
Questions 10 through 13: Match the terms for erythrocytes with the appropriate morphological description. A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell B. Fragments of erythrocytes C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell rupture D. Compact round shape
13. __D___ Spherocytes
89
Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral blood smear (use an answer only once). A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Macrocytes D. Acanthocytes
14. __C___ Associated with a defect in nuclear maturation
90
Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral blood smear (use an answer only once). A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Macrocytes D. Acanthocytes
15. __A___ Associated with a decrease in hemoglobin synthesis
91
Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral blood smear (use an answer only once). A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Macrocytes D. Acanthocytes
16. __D___ Represents an imbalance between erythrocytic and plasma lipids
92
Questions 14 through 17: Match the condition with the predominant erythrocyte type seen on a peripheral blood smear (use an answer only once). A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Macrocytes D. Acanthocytes
17. __B___ Results from the gelation of polymerized deoxygenated Hb S
93
18. Polychromatophilia is A. a blue-colored erythrocyte when stained with Wright stain B. caused by diffusely distributed RNA in the cytoplasm C. equivalent to a reticulocyte when stained with a supravital stain D. all of the above
D. all of the above
94
Questions 19 through 22: Match the following erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description. A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes
19. __C___ Basophilic stippling
95
Questions 19 through 22: Match the following erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description. A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes
20. __A___ Howell-Jolly bodies
96
Questions 19 through 22: Match the following erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description. A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes
21. __D___ Pappenheimer bodies
97
Questions 19 through 22: Match the following erythrocytic inclusions with the appropriate description. A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes
22. __B___ Heinz bodies
98
23. Which of the following is the term for erythrocytes resembling a stack of coins on thin sections of a peripheral blood smear? A. Anisocytosis B. Poikilocytosis C. Agglutination D. Rouleaux formation
D. Rouleaux formation
99
Questions 24 through 27: Match the following erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Pernicious anemia D. No related disease state
24. __C___ Macrocytes
100
Questions 24 through 27: Match the following erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Pernicious anemia D. No related disease state
25. __A___ Microcytes
101
Questions 24 through 27: Match the following erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Pernicious anemia D. No related disease state
26. __B___ Acanthocytes
102
Questions 24 through 27: Match the following erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Pernicious anemia D. No related disease state
27. __D___ Echinocytes
103
Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Hepatic disorders B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn C. Hemoglobinopathies D. Pernicious anemia
28. __A___ Leptocytes
104
Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Hepatic disorders B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn C. Hemoglobinopathies D. Pernicious anemia
29. __B___ Microspherocytes
105
Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Hepatic disorders B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn C. Hemoglobinopathies D. Pernicious anemia
30. __C___ Codocyte
106
Questions 28 through 31: Match the predominant erythrocyte morphology with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Hepatic disorders B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn C. Hemoglobinopathies D. Pernicious anemia
31. __D___ Dacryocytes
107
Questions 32 through 35: Match the following erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Pernicious anemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Iron loading anemia D. Lead poisoning
32. __D___ Basophilic stippling
108
Questions 32 through 35: Match the following erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Pernicious anemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Iron loading anemia D. Lead poisoning
33. __A___ Howell-Jolly bodies
109
Questions 32 through 35: Match the following erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Pernicious anemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Iron loading anemia D. Lead poisoning
34. __B___ Heinz bodies
110
Questions 32 through 35: Match the following erythrocyte inclusions with the appropriate clinical condition or disorder. A. Pernicious anemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Iron loading anemia D. Lead poisoning
35. __C___ Pappenheimer bodies
111
Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate species of malaria with one of the following characteristics. A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling. B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules. C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont. D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.
36. __B___ Plasmodium vivax
112
Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate species of malaria with one of the following characteristics. A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling. B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules. C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont. D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.
37. __D___ Plasmodium falciparum
113
Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate species of malaria with one of the following characteristics. A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling. B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules. C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont. D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.
38. __A___ Plasmodium malariae
114
Questions 36 through 39: Match the appropriate species of malaria with one of the following characteristics. A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling. B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schüffner dots or granules. C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schüffner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont. D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.
39. __C___ Plasmodium ovale
115
40. Nantucket Island is an endemic area for A. P. vivax B. P. falciparum C. Babesiosis D. all of the above
C. Babesiosis
116
41. Babesiosis infection shares many of the same symptoms as A. Plasmodium falciparum malaria B. Lyme disease C. Ehrlichia D. None of the above
A. Plasmodium falciparum malaria