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HEMATOLOGY-MTAP > Hema-Majors > Flashcards

Hema-Majors Flashcards

1
Q

A chromosome instability disorder characterized by aplastic anemia, physical abnormalities (skin pigmentation, short stature, and hypogonadism), and cancer susceptibility

a. Aplastic anemia
b. Diamond-Blackfan Anemia
c. Fanconi anemia
d. Myelophthisic Anemia

A

c. Fanconi anemia

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2
Q

Monocytopenia may be expected in which of the following conditions?

a. Syphilis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malaria
d. Aplastic Anemia

A

d. Aplastic Anemia

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3
Q

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. Lavender-stoppered tubes are used for CBC, WBC, and platelet testing.
b. Red-stoppered tubes are used for many tests, including serum enzyme
testing.
c. Gray-stoppered tubes are used for blood glucose tests.
d. Gray-stoppered tubes are used for CBC and WBC tests.

A

d. Gray-stoppered tubes are used for CBC and WBC tests.

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4
Q

Which of the following exhibits thrombocytopenia and giant platelet?

a. TAR syndrome
b. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
c. Alport syndrome
d. May-Hegglin anomaly

A

b. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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5
Q

What is the last RBC stage to undergo mitosis?

a. Rubricyte
b. Metarubricyte
c. Prorubricyte
d. Rubriblast

A

a. Rubricyte

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6
Q

The correct volume ratio of blood to anticoagulant using the sodium citrate tube:

a. 1:9
b. 1:5
c. 9:1
d. 1: 19

A

c. 9:1

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7
Q

Which of the following is also known as Prostaglandin I2?

a. Adenosine
b. Prostacyclin
c. Thrombomodulin
d. von Willebrand Factor

A

b. Prostacyclin

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8
Q

The following are signs seen when there’s a problem in Primary hemostasis: 1.Epistaxis 2. Hematemesis 3.Purpura 4.Hemarthroses

a. 1,2& 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1,2,3 & 4
d. 1&3

A

a. 1,2& 3

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9
Q

RBCs that lack central pallor even though they lie in a desirable area for evaluation are called:

a. Hypochromic cells
b. both
c. Hyperchromic cells
d. none

A

c. Hyperchromic cells

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9
Q

In manual hematocrit methods, the values are higher by ______ compared to values obtained using an automated analyzer because of trapped plasma .

a. 1-3%
b. 2-4%
c. 1-2%
d. 0.5-1%

A

a. 1-3%

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10
Q

Which of the following blood additives will inhibit the use of glucose by blood cells?

a. EDTA
b. Lithium iodoacetate
c. Heparin
d. Thrombin

A

b. Lithium iodoacetate

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11
Q

Which of the following may become a plasma cell after further transformation?

a. Null cell
b. B cell
c. Monocyte
d. T cell

A

b. B cell

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12
Q

All of the following are platelet aggregating reagents, except:

a. Barium sulfate
b. Collagen
c. Ristocetin
d. ADP

A

a. Barium sulfate

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13
Q

Factor VIII deficiency PT, APTT, TT result?

a. Prolonged, prolonged , normal
b. Prolonged, normal, normal
c. Normal, prolonged, normal
d. Normal, prolonged, prolonged

A

c. Normal, prolonged, normal

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14
Q

Which of the following laboratory findings is/are expected in a case of megaloblastic anemia?

a. Both
b. Neither
c. Oval macrocytes
d. Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

a. Both

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15
Q

Anemia may be detected through:

a. RBC count
b. All of these
c. Hematocrit
d. Hemoglobin

A

b. All of these

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16
Q

Calculate the WBC count if 53 WBC are counted in 2 small WBC squares using a 1:20 dilution and 7 NRBC are seen?

a. 5,300
b. 5,000
c. 4,300
d. 8,600

A

b. 5,000

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17
Q

Heinz bodies may be demonstrated by all of the following stains, except:

a. New methylene blue
b. Methyl violet
c. Wright’s stain
d. Crystal violet

A

c. Wright’s stain

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18
Q

Which of the following materials is needed for the Rumple-Leede test?

a. Glass rod
b. Cork
c. Thoma pipet
d. Sphygmomanometer

A

d. Sphygmomanometer

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18
Q

What is the corrected WBC count if 4 nrbc are seen, and the WBC count is 12 X 10^9/L

a. 11.5
b. 12
c. 11.3
d. 11.4

A

b. 12

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19
Q

These are cytoplasmic inclusions consisting of remnants of ribosomal ribonucleic acid (RNA) arranged in parallel rows. They appear as intracytoplasmic, pale blue
round or elongated bodies between 1 and 5 mm in diameter. They are usually located in close apposition to cellular membranes.

a. Toxic granulations
b. Dohle bodies
c. Azurophilic granules
d. Alder Reilley bodies

A

b. Dohle bodies

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20
Q

The bone marrow picture of Aplastic anemia is?

a. Hyperplastic
b. Can’ t be determined
c. Hypoplastic
d. Normocellular

A

c. Hypoplastic

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21
Q

Chemiluminescence is one of the tests utilized to detect:

a. Hemoglobinopathies
b. Thalassemia
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. All of these

A

c. Chronic granulomatous disease

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22
Q

Infection with Trichinella spiralis may demonstrate:

a. Monocytosis
b. Neutrophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Eosinophilia

A

d. Eosinophilia

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23
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant is used for blood gas studies and osmotic fragility test?

a. Heparin
b. Lithium iodoacetate
c. Sodium fluoride
d. Sodium citrate

A

a. Heparin

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24
Q

This part of the syringe serves as an indicator that the phlebotomist has already hit a vein:

a. Plunger
b. Hub
c. Needle
d. Barrel

A

b. Hub

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25
Q

Macroscopic examination of a capillary hematocrit tube after spinning should include:

a. Buffy coat
b. Plasma layer
c. Red cell column
d. All of these

A

d. All of these

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26
Q

The largest cell in the blood circulation is:

a. Megakaryocyte
b. BOTH
c. Monocyte
d. NEITHER

A

c. Monocyte

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27
Q

Light blue top tubes contain:

a. both
b. CTAD (a mixture of citrate, theophylline, adenosine and dipyridamole)
c. none
d. 3.2% sodium citrate

A

a. both

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28
Q

The kind of porphyria associated with the legend of the werewolves:

a. None of these
b. X-linked Erythropoietic Protoporphyria
c. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
d. Gunther’s disease

A

d. Gunther’s disease

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29
Q

Generally, the reference range for the RDW is:

a. 8.5 to 9.5 %
b. 95 to 100 %
c. 15 to 25 %
d. 11.5 to 14.5 %

A

d. 11.5 to 14.5 %

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30
Q

The color of cytoplasm of young cells is?

a. Dark pink
b. Light blue
c. Dark blue
d. Light pink

A

c. Dark blue

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31
Q

This is also known as the juvenile cell:

a. Myelocyte
b. Promyelocyte
c. Myeloblast
d. Metamyelocyte

A

d. Metamyelocyte

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32
Q

Xerocytes are a type of a/an:

a. Ovalocyte
b. Dacryocyte
c. Stomatocyte
d. Schistocyte

A

c. Stomatocyte

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33
Q

Three tubes containing CSF coming from a patient was received in the laboratory. Which one of these tubes should be delivered to the Hematology area of the
laboratory?

a. Tube no. 3
b. Tube no. 2
c. Tube no. 1
d. None of these

A

a. Tube no. 3

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34
Q

What is the name of the macrophage present in the liver?

a. Osteoclast
b. Kupffer cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. Littoral cells

A

b. Kupffer cells

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35
Q

The critical value for reticulocyte counts (adults):

a. 5.80%
b. 7.8%
c. Greater than 20%
d. 0.8%

A

c. Greater than 20%

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36
Q

The diluting fluid used in Brecher-Cronkite method is glacial acetic acid.

a. if the statement is FALSE
b. if the statement is TRUE

A

a. if the statement is FALSE

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37
Q

Pappenheimer bodies are abnormal inclusions that are found in:

a. Red blood cells
b. Thrombocytes
c. Leukocytes
d. Skin cells

A

a. Red blood cells

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38
Q

In silent carrier state beta thalassemia, the signs or symptoms exhibited by the person would include:

a. Low hemoglobin
b. None of these
c. Low hematocrit
d. Macrocytic red cells

A

b. None of these

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39
Q

Smudge cells may be found normally in few numbers.

a. if the statement is TRUE
b. if the statement is FALSE

A

a. if the statement is TRUE

40
Q

In the granulocytic series of maturation, what is the last stage to undergo mitosis?

a. Myelocyte
b. Promyelocyte
c. Myeloblast
d. Metamyelocyte

A

a. Myelocyte

40
Q

All of the following may produce neutrophilia, except:

a. Corticosteroids
b. Appendicitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Nutritional deficiencies

A

d. Nutritional deficiencies

41
Q

The GP Ib/IX/V is the primary platelet surface receptor for VWF.

a. if the statement is FALSE
b. if the statement is TRUE

A

a. if the statement is FALSE

42
Q

The solid tumor counterpart Plasma cell leukemia is?

a. Chloroma leukemia
b. Lymphoma undifferentiated
c. Myeloma
d. Reticulum cell sarcoma

A

c. Myeloma

43
Q

Other name for consumption coagulopathy, except :

a. McLeod syndrome
b. none
c. Defibrination syndrom
d. DIC

A

a. McLeod syndrome

44
Q

An abnormal red cell with a thin rim of hemoglobin and a large central area is called:

a. Meniscocyte
b. Spherocyte
c. Anulocyte
d. Drepanocyte

A

c. Anulocyte

45
Q

Sickle Cell Disease

a. Citrate Agar Hb Electrophoresis
b. Ham’s Acidified Serum Test
c. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
d. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Test (NBT)

A

a. Citrate Agar Hb Electrophoresis

46
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

a. Citrate Agar Hb Electrophoresis
b. Ham’s Acidified Serum Test
c. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Test (NBT)
d. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)

A

d. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)

46
Q

The solid tumor counterpart Stem cell leukemia is?

a. Lymphoma undifferentiated
b. Myeloma
c. Reticulum cell sarcoma
d. Chloroma leukemia

A

a. Lymphoma undifferentiated

47
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils may be found in all of the following, except:

a. Acute erythroleukemia
b. Alcoholism
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

b. Alcoholism

48
Q

The least differentiated platelet precursor?

a. MK-3
b. MK-2
c. MK-1
d. LD CFU MEG

A

c. MK-1

49
Q

The first drop of blood in the skin puncture procedure should be wiped away to prevent contamination of the specimen with tissue fluid and in order to:

a. None of these
b. Facilitate the free flow of blood
c. Minimize the allergies
d. Minimize the pain of the procedure

A

b. Facilitate the free flow of blood

50
Q

Factor X deficiency PT, APTT, TT result?

a. Prolonged, normal, normal
b. Normal, prolonged, normal
c. Normal, prolonged, prolonged
d. Prolonged, prolonged , normal

A

d. Prolonged, prolonged , normal

50
Q

Perioidic Acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction is one of the procedures utilized to detect:

a. AML M6
b. All of these
c. ALL L1
d. Gaucher disease

A

b. All of these

51
Q

The positive result in the sodium dithionite tube test is:

a. Turbid solution
b. “Holly leaf” cells
c. Sickle cells
d. Clear solution

A

a. Turbid solution

52
Q

The largest molecule in the human plasma is the high-molecular-weight kininogen
(HMWK).
a. if the statement is FALSE
b. if the statement is TRUE

A

a. if the statement is FALSE

53
Q

Smallest platelet is seen in what condition?

a. Immunethrombocytopenia
b. HELLP Syndrome
c. Tar syndrome
d. Wiskott aldrich syndrome

A

d. Wiskott aldrich syndrome

54
Q

Lymphocytosis is, most of the time, associated with viral infections WHILE Neutrophilia is often associated with bacterial infections.

a. Statement 1 is wrong, but Statement 2 is correct.
b. Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is wrong.
c. Statement 1 and Statement 2 are both correct.
d. Statement 1 and Statement 2 are both wrong.

A

c. Statement 1 and Statement 2 are both correct.

55
Q

Oat-shaped cells are a type of a/an:

a. Spherocyte
b. Elliptocyte
c. Sickle cell
d. Dacryocyte

A

c. Sickle cell

56
Q

Abnormal clot retraction may be observed in thrombocytopenia.

a. if the statement is TRUE
b. if the statement is FALSE

A

a. if the statement is TRUE

57
Q

Ferrochelatase is otherwise known as:

a. Uroporphyrinogen III synthase
b. Heme synthetase
c. Pyrimidine-5’-nucleotidase
d. None of these

A

b. Heme synthetase

57
Q

The last stage to synthesize hemoglobin is the:

a. Orthochromic normoblast
b. Polychromatophilic normoblast
c. Reticulocyte
d. Mature erythrocyte

A

c. Reticulocyte

58
Q

The sodium metabisulfite test is used to screen for the presence of:

a. Sulfhemoglobin
b. HIV
c. Porphyrias
d. Hemoglobin S

A

d. Hemoglobin S

59
Q

The other name of the target cell is:

a. Meniscocyte
b. Mouth cell
c. Mexican hat cell
d. Drepanocyte

A

c. Mexican hat cell

59
Q

Which of the following stains ONLY granulocytic cells? 1. Specific, 2. Esterases, 3. Nonspecific 4. ORO

a. 1 & 2
b. 1, 2, 3, & 4
c. 1
d. 1,2 & 3

A

c. 1

60
Q

The optimum drop of blood to prepare a blood smear is?

a. 4 mm
b. 2-3 mm
c. 1-2 mm
d. Small drop

A

d. Small drop

61
Q

Gaucher cell is an abnormal plasma cell.

a. if the statement is FALSE
b. if the statement is TRUE

A

a. if the statement is FALSE

61
Q

An acanthocyte may also be called as a/an:

a. Schistocyte
b. Leptocyte
c. Echinocyte
d. Thorn cell

A

d. Thorn cell

62
Q

The area of the counting chamber in platelet counting ?

a. 4 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 9 mm
d. 0.20 mm

A

b. 1 mm

62
Q

This is considered as the main component of the RBC:

a. Spectrin
b. Rh antigens
c. ABH antigens
d. Hemoglobin

A

d. Hemoglobin

62
Q

In LCAT deficiency, the kind of poikilocyte one may expect to find in the blood smear is the:

a. Schistocytes
b. Leptocyte
c. Dacryocytes
d. Sickle cells

A

b. Leptocyte

63
Q

This mediates the membrane contact reaction of platelet adherence, change of cellular shape, internal contraction and aggregation.

a. Open canalicular system
b. Dense tubular system
c. Sol Gel zone
d. Glycoprotein receptors

A

d. Glycoprotein receptors

64
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

a. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
b. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Test (NBT)
c. Ham’s Acidified Serum Test
d. Citrate Agar Hb Electrophoresis

A

c. Ham’s Acidified Serum Test

65
Q

Which of the following is used for the APTT?

a. Whole blood
b. Urine
c. Platelet-poor plasma
d. Platelet-rich plasma

A

c. Platelet-poor plasma

65
Q

Antithrombotics include:

a. Anticoagulants
b. None of these
c. Antiplatelet drugs
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

66
Q

At what platelet value will cause a false increase in hemoglobin value?

a. greater than 800x10^9/ uL
b. greater than 700x10^9/ uL
c. greater than 600x10^9/ uL
d. greater than 400x10^9/ uL

A

b. greater than 700x10^9/ uL

67
Q

Which of the following is improperly matched?

a. Punctate basophilia: precipitated DNA
b. Cabot rings: mitotic spindle remnant
c. Heinz bodies: denatured Hb
d. Howell-Jolly bodies: DNA

A

a. Punctate basophilia: precipitated DNA

68
Q

The anticoagulant used for reticulocyte counting is:

a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Sodium Citrate
d. Sodium Acetate

A

a. EDTA

69
Q

70% of childhood ALL is:

a. ALL L2
b. ALL L1
c. ALL L3
d. None of these

A

b. ALL L1

70
Q

To estimate the size of a red cell in a peripheral blood smear, one should consider the size of the nucleus of the:

a. Neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Basophil

A

b. Lymphocyte

71
Q

Which of the following leukocytes are considered phagocytic? 1)Monocytes 2)Neutrophils 3)Eosinophils 4)Basophils 5)Lymphocytes

a. 3 and 4
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2,3,4,5

A

b. 1,2,3,4

72
Q

The early normoblast may otherwise be called as:

a. Rubricyte
b. Rubriblast
c. Prorubricyte
d. Metarubricyte

A

c. Prorubricyte

73
Q

For infants and small children, the incision depth of a skin puncture:

a. Should exceed 2.0 mm.
b. Should be 2.0 to 2.5 mm.
c. Should exceed 2.5 mm.
d. Should NOT exceed 2.0 mm

A

d. Should NOT exceed 2.0 mm

74
Q

Prolonged application of tourniquet can lead to:

a. Hemolysis
b. Hemoconcentration
c. All of these
d. Shortened coagulation times

A

c. All of these

75
Q

Dohle bodies may be found in pregnancy.

a. if the statement is FALSE
b. if the statement is TRUE

A

b. if the statement is TRUE

76
Q

A lymphocyte with a hand-mirror appearance may be associated to:

a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. All of these
c. Certain types of ALL
d. Certain types of AML

A

b. All of these

77
Q

The tourniquet should not be left on the arm longer than:

a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 3 minutes
d. 2 minutes

A

b. 60 seconds

78
Q

Faggot cells are most commonly encountered in:

a. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
c. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
d. Acute erythroleukemia

A

c. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

79
Q

This is basically the only disease in which the MCHC is high:

a. Primary myelofibrosis
b. Abetalipoproteinemia
c. Hereditary stomatocytosis
d. Hereditary spherocytosis

A

d. Hereditary spherocytosis

80
Q

In the RBC series of maturation, what is the last stage to undergo mitosis?

a. Rubriblast
b. Metarubricyte
c. Prorubricyte
d. Rubricyte

A

d. Rubricyte

81
Q

These appear as dark, blue-black granules in the cytoplasm of neutrophils: segmented, bands, and metamyelocytes.

a. Toxic granulations
b. Dohle bodies
c. Alder Reilley bodies
d. Azurophilic granules

A

a. Toxic granulations

82
Q

The following are workplace control measures except?

a. Avoid recapping
b. Handwashing
c. Splash guard
d. Warning signage

A

c. Splash guard

83
Q

Hereditary Acanthocytosis is also called:

a. Thalassemia
b. Uremia
c. Rh Null Syndrome
d. Abetalipoproteinemia

A

d. Abetalipoproteinemia

84
Q

In Light microscopy, initial image magnification occurs on the?

a. Condenser
b. Ocular
c. Diaphragm
d. Objective

A

d. Objective

85
Q

The preferred anticoagulant for platelet count is:

a. Thrombin
b. Heparin
c. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
d. EDTA

A

d. EDTA

86
Q

What is the most common anticoagulant used for hematological tests?

a. EDTA
b. Sodium citrate
c. Heparin
d. Potassium oxalate

A

a. EDTA

87
Q

Decreased platelet count may be observed in:

a. All of these
b. Fanconi anemia
c. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
d. Defibrination syndrome

A

a. All of these

88
Q

In hemoglobin measurements, complete conversion to cyanmethemoglobin occurs in?

a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 3 mins

A

a. 10 mins

89
Q

Antihemophilic globulin is known as?

a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VII
d. FActor X

A

a. Factor VIII

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

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