HEMACHAP-REVIEW-RODAKS-6th-ed. Flashcards by Prince Mella

What procedure is NOT employed to validate a new assay?

a. Comparison of assay results to a
reference method
b. Test for assay precision
c. Test for assay linearity
d. Moving average algorithm

d. Moving average algorithm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You validate a new assay using linear regression to compare assay calibrator results with the distributor’s published cali- brator results. The slope is 0.99 and
the y intercept is 110%. What type of error is present?

a. No error
b. Random error
c. Constant systematic error
d. Proportional systematic error

c. Constant systematic error

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is a statistical test that compares means?

a. Bland-Altman
b. Student t-test
c. ANOVA
d. Pearson

b. Student t-test

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The acceptable hemoglobin control value range is 13 6 0.4 g/dL. The control is assayed five times and produces the
following five results: 12.0 g/dL 12.3 g/dL 12.0 g/dL 12.2 g/dL 12.1 g/dL These results are:

a. Accurate but not precise
b. Precise but not accurate
c. Both accurate and precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise

b. Precise but not accurate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A WBC count control has a mean value of
6000/mL and an SD of 300/mL. What is the 95.5% confidence interval?

a. 3000 to 9000/mL
b. 5400 to 6600/mL
c. 5500 to 6500/mL
d. 5700 to 6300/mL

b. 5400 to 6600/mL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The ability of an assay to distinguish the targeted analyte from interfering substances within the specimen matrix is called:

a. Analytical specificity
b. Analytical sensitivity
c. Clinical specificity
d. Clinical sensitivity

a. Analytical specificity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A laboratory scientist measures prothrombin time for plasma aliquots from 15 healthy men and 15 healthy women. She computes the mean and 95.5% confidence interval and notes that they duplicate the manufacturer’s statistics within 5%. This procedure is known as:

a. Setting the RI
b. Confirming linearity
c. Determining the therapeutic range
d. Establishing the RI by transference

d. Establishing the RI by transference

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You perform a clinical efficacy test and get the following results:
What is the number of false-negative results?

a. 45
b. 40
c. 10
d. 5

d. 5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The laboratory purchases reagents from a manufacturer and develops an assay using a protocol published in a vol- ume of the Methods in Molecular Biology series. How would the FDA classify this assay?

a. Cleared
b. Research use only
c. Analyte-specific reagent
d. Laboratory-developed test

d. Laboratory-developed test

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency provides external quality
assurance (proficiency) surveys and laboratory accreditation?

a. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC)
b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS)
c. College of American Pathologists (CAP)
d. The Joint Commission

c. College of American Pathologists (CAP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You purchase a preserved whole blood
specimen from a distributor who provides the mean values for several com- plete blood count analytes. What is this specimen called?

a. Normal specimen
b. Calibrator
c. Control
d. Blank

c. Control

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

2.The glycocalyx is composed of membrane:

a. Phospholipids and cholesterol
b. Glycoproteins and glycolipids
c. Transmembrane and cytoskeletal proteins
d. Rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b. Glycoproteins and glycolipids

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency provides continuing medical laboratory education?

a. Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Advisory Committee (CLIAC)
b. American Society for Clinical
Laboratory Science (ASCLS)
c. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS)
d. College of American Pathologists (CAP)

b. American Society for Clinical
Laboratory Science (ASCLS)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Regular review of blood specimen collection quality is an example of:

a. Postanalytical quality assurance
b. Preanalytical quality assurance
c. Analytical quality control
d. External quality assurance

b. Preanalytical quality assurance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Review of laboratory report integrity is an example of:

a. Postanalytical quality assurance
b. Preanalytical quality assurance
c. Analytical quality control
d. External quality assurance

a. Postanalytical quality assurance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When performing a receiver operating curve analysis, what parameter assesses the overall efficacy of an assay?

a. Area under the curve
b. Performance limit (threshold)
c. Positive predictive value
d. Negative predictive value

a. Area under the curve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You require your laboratory staff to annually perform manual lupus anticoagulant profiles on a set
of plasmas with known values. This exercise is known as:

a. Assay validation
b. Proficiency testing
c. External quality assessment
d. Pre-pre analytical variable assay

b. Proficiency testing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The organelle involved in packaging and
trafficking of cellular products is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The “control center” of the cell is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. Membrane
d. Microtubular system

a. Nucleus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The nucleus is composed largely of:

a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Ribosomes
d. Glycoproteins

b. DNA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The site of protein synthesis is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi apparatus

c. Ribosomes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?

a. Microtubules
b. Spindle fibers
c. Ribosomes
d. Centrioles

a. Microtubules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Functions of the cell membrane include all of the following except:

a. Regulation of molecules entering or
leaving the cell
b. Receptor recognition of extracellular
signals
c. Maintenance of electrochemical
gradients
d. Lipid production and oxidation

d. Lipid production and oxidation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The energy source for cells is the:

a. Golgi apparatus
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Nucleolus
d. Mitochondrion

d. Mitochondrion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

9. Ribosomes are synthesized by the: a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondrion c. Nucleolus d. Golgi apparatus

c. Nucleolus

1. The process of formation and development of blood cells is termed: a. Hematopoiesis b. Hematemesis c. Hematocytometry d. Hematorrhea

a. Hematopoiesis

10. Euchromatin functions as the: a. Site of microtubule production b. Transcriptionally active DNA c. Support structure for nucleoli d. Attachment site for centrioles

b. Transcriptionally active DNA

11. The cell cycle is regulated by: a. Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases b. Proto Oncogenes c. Apoptosis d. Growth factors

a. Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

12. The transition from the G1 to S stage of the cell cycle is regulated by: a. Cyclin B/CDK1 complex b. Cyclin A/CDK2 complex c. Cyclin D1 d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

15. Which one of the following statements is FALSE concern- ing cellular signal transduction? a. Membrane-permeable ligands can directly bind to intracellular receptors. b. A transmembrane receptor can transmit a signal into the cell through its intracellular domain when ligand binds its extracellular domain. c. The binding of membrane receptors to fixed ligands such as extracellular matrix can transmit intracellular signals. d. The binding of soluble ligands to membrane receptors is not able to induce changes in gene expression.

d. The binding of soluble ligands to membrane receptors is not able to induce changes in gene expression.

13. Apoptosis is morphologically identified by: a. Cellular swelling b. Nuclear condensation c. Rupture of the cytoplasm d. Rupture of the nucleus

b. Nuclear condensation

14. Regulation of the hematopoietic microenvironment is provided by the: a. Stromal cells and growth factors b. Hematopoietic stem cells c. Liver and spleen d. Cyclins and caspases

a. Stromal cells and growth factors

2. During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production is the: a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Lymph nodes d. Liver

d. Liver

3. Which one of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and CD8? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Thymus d. Bone marrow

c. Thymus

4. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20 year old would be: a. Iliac crest b. Femur c. Distal radius d. Tibia

a. Iliac crest

6. Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets? a. Liver b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Bone marrow

c. Spleen

5. Physiologic programmed cell death is termed: a. Angiogenesis b. Apoptosis c. Aneurysm d. Apohematics

b. Apoptosis

8. Which one of the following cells is a product of the common lymphoid progenitor? a. Megakaryocyte b. T lymphocyte c. Erythrocyte d. Granulocyte

b. T lymphocyte

7. Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation? a. Increase in cell diameter b. Development of cytoplasm basophilia c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin d. Appearance of nucleoli

c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin

9. What growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease? a. EPO b. TPO c. G-CSF d. KIT ligand

a. EPO

11. When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is: a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen b. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney c. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells d. Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones

a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen

12. Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they: a. Are unipotent b. have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow Niches d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factor

b. have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

10. Which one of the following cytokines is required very early in the differentiation of a hematopoietic stem cell? a. IL-2 b. IL-8 c. EPO d. FLT3 ligand

d. FLT3 ligand

2. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast? a. Orthochromic normoblast b. Basophilic normoblast c. Pronormoblast d. Polychromatic normoblast

a. Orthochromic normoblast

1. Which of the following is an erythroid progenitor? a. Pronormoblast b. Reticulocyte c. CFU-E d. Orthochromic normoblast

c. CFU-E

3. What erythroid precursor can be described as follows: The cell is of medium size compared with other normoblasts, with an N:C ratio of nearly 1:1. The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is gray-blue. a. Reticulocyte b. Pronormoblast c. Orthochromic normoblast d. Polychromatic normoblast

d. Polychromatic normoblast

4. At which normoblastic stage does globin production begin? a. Orthochromic normoblast b. Pronormoblast c. Polychromatic normoblast d. Basophilic normoblast

b. Pronormoblast

5. Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by: a. Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into the erythroid lineage b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney c. Increasing the number of RBC mitoses d. Stimulating the production of fibronectin by macrophages of the bone marrow

b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney

6. Erythropoietin can increase the production of RBCS by: a. Promoting apoptosis of erythroid progenitors b. Decreasing intravascular hemolysis c. Increasing EPO receptor sites d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

7. In the bone marrow, erythroid precursors are located: a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands b. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the adventitial cell lining c. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands d. In the center of the hematopoietic cords

a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands

8. Which of the following determines the timing of egress of RBCs from the bone marrow? a. Stromal cells decrease production of adhesive molecules over time as RBCs mature. b. Endothelial cells of the venous sinus form pores at specified intervals of time, allowing egress of free cells. c. Periodic apoptosis of pronormoblasts in the marrow cords occurs. d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose receptors for adhesive molecules that bind them to stromal cells.

d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose receptors for adhesive molecules that bind them to stromal cells.

9. What single feature of normal RBCs is most responsible for limiting their life span? a. Loss of the nucleus b. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane c. Reduction of hemoglobin iron d. Loss of mitochondria

a. Loss of the nucleus

10. Extravascular hemolysis occurs when: a. RBCs are mechanically ruptured b. RBCs extravasate from blood vessels into the tissues c. Splenic macrophages ingest senescent RBCs d. RBCs are trapped in blood clots outside the blood vessels

c. Splenic macrophages ingest senescent RBCs

1. Which RBC process does not require energy? a. Cytoskeletal protein deformability b. Maintaining cytoplasm cationic electrochemical gradients c. Oxygen transport d. Preventing the peroxidation of proteins and lipids

c. Oxygen transport

2. What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP? a. 2,3-BPG pathway b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway c. Hexose monophosphate pathway d. Rapoport-Luebering pathway

b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

3. Which is true concerning 2,3-BPG? a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin b. Source of RBC ATP c. Source of RBC glucose d. The least abundant of RBC organophosphates

a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin

4. What hexose-monophosphate shunt products participate in the detoxification of peroxides? a. 2,3-BPG and pyruvic acid b. ATP and lactic acid c. NADPH and reduced glutathione d. Pyruvic and lactic acid

c. NADPH and reduced glutathione

5. Which of the following helps maintain RBC shape? a. Cytoskeletal proteins b. Glycocalyx c. GPI anchor d. Membrane phospholipids

a. Cytoskeletal proteins

6. The glycolipids of the RBC membrane: a. Attach the cytoskeleton to the lipid layer b. Carry RBC antigens c. Constitute ion channels d. Provide flexibility

b. Carry RBC antigens

7. RBC membranes block passage of most large molecules, such as proteins, but allow passage of small molecules such as the cations Na1, K1, and Ca21. What is the term for this membrane property? a. Deformable b. Flexible c. Intangible d. Semipermeable

d. Semipermeable

9. RBC membrane cholesterol is replenished from the: a. Cytoplasm b. EMB pathway c. Mitochondria d. Plasma

d. Plasma

8. RBC membrane phospholipids are arranged: a. In a hexagonal lattice b. In chains beneath a protein cytoskeleton c. In two layers whose composition is asymmetric d. So that hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma

c. In two layers whose composition is asymmetric

10. Hemoglobin iron may become oxidized to Fe31 by several pathologic mechanisms. What portion of the Embden- Meyerhof pathway reduces iron to Fe21? a. Hexose monophosphate pathway b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway d. 2,3-BPG shunt

b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

5. Using the normal hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve in Figure 7.7 for reference, predict the position of the curve when there is a decrease in pH. a. Shifted to the right normal with decreased oxygen affinity b. Shifted to the left of normal with increased oxygen affinity c. Shifted to the right normal with increased oxygen affinity d. Shifted to the left of normal with decreased oxygen affinity

a. Shifted to the right normal with decreased oxygen affinity

11. Which of the following is an example of a transmembrane or integral membrane protein? a. Actin b. Ankyrin c. Glycophorin A d. Spectrin

c. Glycophorin A

12. Abnormalities in the horizontal and vertical linkages of the transmembrane and cytoskeletal RBC membrane proteins may be seen as: a. Enzyme pathway deficiencies b. Methemoglobin increase c. Reduced hemoglobin content d. Shape changes

d. Shape changes

1. A hemoglobin molecule is composed of: a. One heme molecule and four globin chains b. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a globin chain c. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains d. Four heme molecules and four globin chains

d. Four heme molecules and four globin chains

2. Normal adult Hb A contains which polypeptidechains? a. Alpha and Beta b. Alpha and Delta c. Alpha and Gamma d. Alpha and Epsilon

a. Alpha and Beta

3. A key rate-limiting step in heme synthesis is suppression of: a. Aminolevulinate synthase b. Carbonic anhydrase c. Protoporphyrin IX reductase d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

a. Aminolevulinate synthase

4. Which of the following forms of hemoglobin molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen? a. Tense b. Relaxed

a. Tense

6. The predominant hemoglobin found in a healthy newborn is: a. Gower-1 b. Gower-2 c. A d. F

d. F

7. What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults? a. 80% to 90% HbA, 5% to 10% HbA2, 1% to 5% HbF b. 80% to 90% HbA2 , 5% to 10% HbA, 1% to 5% HbF c. >95%HbA, <3.5%HbA2,1% to 2% HbF d. >90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, <5% Hb A2

c. >95%HbA, <3.5%HbA2,1% to 2% HbF

8. Which of the following is a description of the structure of oxidized hemoglobin? a. Hemoglobin carrying oxygen on heme; synonymous with oxygenated hemoglobin b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state (methemoglobin) and not able to carry oxygen c. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state so that carbon dioxide replaces oxygen in the heme structure d. Hemoglobin carrying carbon monoxide; hence oxidized refers to the single oxygen

b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state (methemoglobin) and not able to carry oxygen

9. In the quaternary structure of hemoglobin, the globin chains associate into: a. Alpha Tetramers in some cells and beta tetramers in others b. A mixture of a tetramers and b tetramers c. alpha Dimers and beta dimers d. Two ab dimers

d. Two ab dimers

10. How are the globin chain genes arranged? a. With alpha genes and beta genes on the same chromosome, including two alpha genes and two beta genes b. With alpha genes and beta genes on separate chromosomes, including two alpha genes on one chromosome and one b gene on a different chromosome c. With alpha genes and beta genes on the same chromosome, including four alpha genes and four beta genes d. With alpha genes and beta genes on separate chromosomes, including four alpha genes on one chromosome and two beta genes on a different chromosome

b. With alpha genes and beta genes on separate chromosomes, including two alpha genes on one chromosome and one b gene on a different chromosome

11. The nature of the interaction between 2,3-BPG and hemo- globin is that 2,3-BPG: a. Binds to the heme moiety, blocking the binding of oxygen b. Binds simultaneously with oxygen to ensure that it stays bound until it reaches the tissues, when both molecules are released from hemoglobin c. Binds to amino acids of the globin chain, contributing to a conformational change that inhibits oxygen from binding to heme d. Oxidizes hemoglobin iron, diminishing oxygen binding and promoting oxygen delivery to the tissues

c. Binds to amino acids of the globin chain, contributing to a conformational change that inhibits oxygen from binding to heme

2. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body? a. Hemosiderin b. Ferritin c. Transferrin d. Hemoglobin

b. Ferritin

1. Iron is transported in plasma via: a. Hemosiderin b. Ferritin c. Transferrin d. Hemoglobin

c. Transferrin

3. The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related protein? a. Hemosiderin b. Ferritin c. Transferrin d. Haptoglobin

c. Transferrin

4. For a patient with screening iron study values that are equivocal for iron deficiency, which of the following tests would be most helpful in determining whether iron deficiency is present or not? a. Zinc protoporphyrin b. Peripheral blood iron stain c. Soluble transferrin receptor d. Mean cell hemoglobin

c. Soluble transferrin receptor

5. What membrane-associated protein in enterocytes transports iron from the intestinal lumen into the enterocyte? a. DMT1 b. Ferroportin c. Transferrin d. Hephaestin

a. DMT1

7. Following are several of the many steps in the process from absorption and transport of iron to incorporation into heme. Place them in proper order. i. Transferrin picks up ferric iron. ii. Iron is transferred to the mitochondria. iii. DMT1 transports ferrous iron into the enterocyte. iv. Ferroportin transports iron from enterocyte to plasma. v. The transferrin receptor transports iron into the cell. a. v, iv, i, ii, iii b. iii, ii, iv, i, v c. ii, i, v, iii, iv d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

6. Iron is transported out of macrophages, hepatocytes, and enterocytes by what membrane protein? a. Transferrin b. Ferroportin c. DMT1 d. Ferrochelatase

b. Ferroportin

8. What is the fate of the transferrin receptor when it has completed its role in the delivery of iron into a cell? a. It is recycled to the plasma membrane and released into the plasma. b. It is RECYCLED to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its LIGAND again. c. It is catabolized and the amino acids are returned to the metabolic pool. d. It is retained in the endosome for the life span of the cell.

b. It is RECYCLED to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its LIGAND again.

9. The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is REGULATED by: a. Transferrin b. Ferroportin c. Hephaestin d. Hepcidin

d. Hepcidin

10. What is the percent transferrin saturation for a patient with total serum iron of 63 mg/dL and TIBC of 420 mg/dL? a. 6.7% b. 12% c. 15% d. 80%

c. 15%

11. Referring to Figure 8.6, into which quadrant of a Thomas plot would a patient’s results fall with the following test results: Soluble transferrin receptor: increased above reference interval Ferritin: decreased below reference interval Hemoglobin content of reticulocytes: within the reference interval a. Normal iron status b. Latent iron deficiency c. Functional iron deficiency d. Iron deficiency

b. Latent iron deficiency

12. A physician is concerned that a patient is developing iron deficiency from chronic intestinal bleeding caused by aspirin use for rheumatoid arthritis. The iron studies on the patient indicate the following results: How would these results be interpreted? a. Latent iron deficiency b. Functional iron deficiency c. Iron deficiency d. Equivocal for iron deficiency

d. Equivocal for iron deficiency

13. Developing erythroblasts in the bone marrow affect the supply of body iron, both absorption and recycling, by secreting which of the following hormones? a. Erythropoietin b. Erythroferrone c. Hepcidin d. Haptoglobin

b. Erythroferrone

14. Which of the following cells critical to iron trafficking in the body does NOT possess ferroportin? a. Erythroblasts b. Enterocytes c. Hepatocytes d. Macrophages

a. Erythroblasts

15. Which of the following plays a role in iron sensing so as to adjust iron absorption and recycling? a. Hepcidin b. Transferrin receptor 2 c. Ferroportin d. Divalent metal transporter 1

b. Transferrin receptor 2

1. Neutrophils and monocytes are direct descendants of a common progenitor known as: a. CLP b. GMP c. MEP d. HSC

b. GMP

2. The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the: a. Band b. Myelocyte c. Promyelocyte d. Metamyelocyte

d. Metamyelocyte

3. Type II myeloblasts are characterized by: a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary granules per cell b. Basophilic cytoplasm with many secondary granules c. The absence of granules d. The presence of a folded nucleus

a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary granules per cell

4. Which one of the following is a function of neutrophils? a. Presentation of antigen to T and B lymphocytes b. Protection against reexposure by same antigen c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign organisms d. Initiation of delayed hypersensitivity response

c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign organisms

5. Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths? a. Neutrophils and monocytes b. Eosinophils and basophils c. T and B lymphocytes d. Macrophages and dendritic cells

b. Eosinophils and basophils

6. Basophils and mast cells have high-affinity surface receptors for which immunoglobulin? a. A b. D c. E d. G

c. E

7. Which of the following cell types is capable of differentiating into osteoclasts, macrophages, or dendritic cells? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils

c. Monocytes

8. Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by: a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes b. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot c. Synthesizing complement components d. Storing iron from senescent red cells

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes

9. Which of the following is the final stage of B cell maturation after activation by antigen? a. Large, granular lymphocyte b. Plasma cell c. Reactive lymphocyte d. Immunoblast

b. Plasma cell

10. The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development: a. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8 b. Maturation in the thymus c. Synthesis of immunoglobulins d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes