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HEMATOLOGY-MTAP > HEMACHAP-REVIEW-RODAKS-6th-ed. > Flashcards

HEMACHAP-REVIEW-RODAKS-6th-ed. Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What procedure is NOT employed to validate a new assay?

a. Comparison of assay results to a
reference method
b. Test for assay precision
c. Test for assay linearity
d. Moving average algorithm

A

d. Moving average algorithm

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2
Q
  1. You validate a new assay using linear regression to compare assay calibrator results with the distributor’s published cali- brator results. The slope is 0.99 and
    the y intercept is 110%. What type of error is present?

a. No error
b. Random error
c. Constant systematic error
d. Proportional systematic error

A

c. Constant systematic error

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3
Q
  1. Which is a statistical test that compares means?

a. Bland-Altman
b. Student t-test
c. ANOVA
d. Pearson

A

b. Student t-test

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4
Q
  1. The acceptable hemoglobin control value range is 13 6 0.4 g/dL. The control is assayed five times and produces the
    following five results: 12.0 g/dL 12.3 g/dL 12.0 g/dL 12.2 g/dL 12.1 g/dL These results are:

a. Accurate but not precise
b. Precise but not accurate
c. Both accurate and precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise

A

b. Precise but not accurate

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5
Q
  1. A WBC count control has a mean value of
    6000/mL and an SD of 300/mL. What is the 95.5% confidence interval?

a. 3000 to 9000/mL
b. 5400 to 6600/mL
c. 5500 to 6500/mL
d. 5700 to 6300/mL

A

b. 5400 to 6600/mL

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6
Q
  1. The ability of an assay to distinguish the targeted analyte from interfering substances within the specimen matrix is called:

a. Analytical specificity
b. Analytical sensitivity
c. Clinical specificity
d. Clinical sensitivity

A

a. Analytical specificity

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7
Q
  1. A laboratory scientist measures prothrombin time for plasma aliquots from 15 healthy men and 15 healthy women. She computes the mean and 95.5% confidence interval and notes that they duplicate the manufacturer’s statistics within 5%. This procedure is known as:

a. Setting the RI
b. Confirming linearity
c. Determining the therapeutic range
d. Establishing the RI by transference

A

d. Establishing the RI by transference

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8
Q
  1. You perform a clinical efficacy test and get the following results:
    What is the number of false-negative results?

a. 45
b. 40
c. 10
d. 5

A

d. 5

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8
Q
  1. The laboratory purchases reagents from a manufacturer and develops an assay using a protocol published in a vol- ume of the Methods in Molecular Biology series. How would the FDA classify this assay?

a. Cleared
b. Research use only
c. Analyte-specific reagent
d. Laboratory-developed test

A

d. Laboratory-developed test

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8
Q
  1. What agency provides external quality
    assurance (proficiency) surveys and laboratory accreditation?

a. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC)
b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS)
c. College of American Pathologists (CAP)
d. The Joint Commission

A

c. College of American Pathologists (CAP)

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9
Q
  1. You purchase a preserved whole blood
    specimen from a distributor who provides the mean values for several com- plete blood count analytes. What is this specimen called?

a. Normal specimen
b. Calibrator
c. Control
d. Blank

A

c. Control

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10
Q

2.The glycocalyx is composed of membrane:

a. Phospholipids and cholesterol
b. Glycoproteins and glycolipids
c. Transmembrane and cytoskeletal proteins
d. Rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

b. Glycoproteins and glycolipids

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10
Q
  1. What agency provides continuing medical laboratory education?

a. Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Advisory Committee (CLIAC)
b. American Society for Clinical
Laboratory Science (ASCLS)
c. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS)
d. College of American Pathologists (CAP)

A

b. American Society for Clinical
Laboratory Science (ASCLS)

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11
Q
  1. Regular review of blood specimen collection quality is an example of:

a. Postanalytical quality assurance
b. Preanalytical quality assurance
c. Analytical quality control
d. External quality assurance

A

b. Preanalytical quality assurance

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12
Q
  1. Review of laboratory report integrity is an example of:

a. Postanalytical quality assurance
b. Preanalytical quality assurance
c. Analytical quality control
d. External quality assurance

A

a. Postanalytical quality assurance

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13
Q
  1. When performing a receiver operating curve analysis, what parameter assesses the overall efficacy of an assay?

a. Area under the curve
b. Performance limit (threshold)
c. Positive predictive value
d. Negative predictive value

A

a. Area under the curve

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14
Q
  1. You require your laboratory staff to annually perform manual lupus anticoagulant profiles on a set
    of plasmas with known values. This exercise is known as:

a. Assay validation
b. Proficiency testing
c. External quality assessment
d. Pre-pre analytical variable assay

A

b. Proficiency testing

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15
Q
  1. The organelle involved in packaging and
    trafficking of cellular products is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

b. Golgi apparatus

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16
Q
  1. The “control center” of the cell is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. Membrane
d. Microtubular system

A

a. Nucleus

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17
Q
  1. The nucleus is composed largely of:

a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Ribosomes
d. Glycoproteins

A

b. DNA

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18
Q
  1. The site of protein synthesis is the:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Ribosomes
d. Golgi apparatus

A

c. Ribosomes

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19
Q
  1. The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?

a. Microtubules
b. Spindle fibers
c. Ribosomes
d. Centrioles

A

a. Microtubules

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20
Q
  1. Functions of the cell membrane include all of the following except:

a. Regulation of molecules entering or
leaving the cell
b. Receptor recognition of extracellular
signals
c. Maintenance of electrochemical
gradients
d. Lipid production and oxidation

A

d. Lipid production and oxidation

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21
Q
  1. The energy source for cells is the:

a. Golgi apparatus
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Nucleolus
d. Mitochondrion

A

d. Mitochondrion

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22
Q
  1. Ribosomes are synthesized by the:

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mitochondrion
c. Nucleolus
d. Golgi apparatus

A

c. Nucleolus

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23
Q
  1. The process of formation and development of blood cells is termed:

a. Hematopoiesis
b. Hematemesis
c. Hematocytometry
d. Hematorrhea

A

a. Hematopoiesis

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23
Q
  1. Euchromatin functions as the:

a. Site of microtubule production
b. Transcriptionally active DNA
c. Support structure for nucleoli
d. Attachment site for centrioles

A

b. Transcriptionally active DNA

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24
Q
  1. The cell cycle is regulated by:

a. Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases
b. Proto Oncogenes
c. Apoptosis
d. Growth factors

A

a. Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

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25
Q
  1. The transition from the G1 to S stage of the cell cycle is regulated by:

a. Cyclin B/CDK1 complex
b. Cyclin A/CDK2 complex
c. Cyclin D1
d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

A

d. Cyclin E/CDK2 complex

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26
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is FALSE concern- ing cellular signal transduction?

a. Membrane-permeable ligands can
directly bind to intracellular receptors.
b. A transmembrane receptor can
transmit a signal into the cell through its
intracellular domain when ligand binds
its extracellular domain.
c. The binding of membrane receptors
to fixed ligands such as extracellular
matrix can transmit intracellular signals.
d. The binding of soluble ligands to
membrane receptors is not able to
induce changes in gene expression.

A

d. The binding of soluble ligands to
membrane receptors is not able to
induce changes in gene expression.

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27
Q
  1. Apoptosis is morphologically identified by:

a. Cellular swelling
b. Nuclear condensation
c. Rupture of the cytoplasm
d. Rupture of the nucleus

A

b. Nuclear condensation

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28
Q
  1. Regulation of the hematopoietic
    microenvironment is provided by the:

a. Stromal cells and growth factors
b. Hematopoietic stem cells
c. Liver and spleen
d. Cyclins and caspases

A

a. Stromal cells and growth factors

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29
Q
  1. During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production is the:

a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Lymph nodes
d. Liver

A

d. Liver

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30
Q
  1. Which one of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and CD8?

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Thymus

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31
Q
  1. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20 year old would be:

a. Iliac crest
b. Femur
c. Distal radius
d. Tibia

A

a. Iliac crest

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32
Q
  1. Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?

a. Liver
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Spleen

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33
Q
  1. Physiologic programmed cell death is termed:

a. Angiogenesis
b. Apoptosis
c. Aneurysm
d. Apohematics

A

b. Apoptosis

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34
Q
  1. Which one of the following cells is a product of the common lymphoid progenitor?

a. Megakaryocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Granulocyte

A

b. T lymphocyte

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35
Q
  1. Which one of the following morphologic
    changes occurs during normal blood cell
    maturation?

a. Increase in cell diameter
b. Development of cytoplasm basophilia
c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin
d. Appearance of nucleoli

A

c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin

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36
Q
  1. What growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?

a. EPO
b. TPO
c. G-CSF
d. KIT ligand

A

a. EPO

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36
Q
  1. When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is:

a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in
the liver and spleen
b. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney
c. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells
d. Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones

A

a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in
the liver and spleen

36
Q
  1. Hematopoietic stem cells produce all
    lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they:

a. Are unipotent
b. have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
c. Are present in large numbers in the bone
marrow Niches
d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factor

A

b. have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

37
Q
  1. Which one of the following cytokines is
    required very early in the differentiation of a hematopoietic stem cell?

a. IL-2
b. IL-8
c. EPO
d. FLT3 ligand

A

d. FLT3 ligand

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast?

a. Orthochromic normoblast
b. Basophilic normoblast
c. Pronormoblast
d. Polychromatic normoblast

A

a. Orthochromic normoblast

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is an erythroid progenitor?

a. Pronormoblast
b. Reticulocyte
c. CFU-E
d. Orthochromic normoblast

A

c. CFU-E

40
Q
  1. What erythroid precursor can be described as follows: The cell is of medium size compared with other normoblasts, with an N:C ratio of nearly 1:1. The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky
    throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is gray-blue.

a. Reticulocyte
b. Pronormoblast
c. Orthochromic normoblast
d. Polychromatic normoblast

A

d. Polychromatic normoblast

41
Q
  1. At which normoblastic stage does globin
    production begin?

a. Orthochromic normoblast
b. Pronormoblast
c. Polychromatic normoblast
d. Basophilic normoblast

A

b. Pronormoblast

42
Q
  1. Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by:

a. Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into
the erythroid lineage
b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney
c. Increasing the number of RBC mitoses
d. Stimulating the production of fibronectin
by macrophages of the bone marrow

A

b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney

43
Q
  1. Erythropoietin can increase the production of RBCS by:

a. Promoting apoptosis of erythroid
progenitors
b. Decreasing intravascular hemolysis
c. Increasing EPO receptor sites
d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

A

d. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

44
Q
  1. In the bone marrow, erythroid precursors are located:

a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid
islands
b. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the
adventitial cell lining
c. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands
d. In the center of the hematopoietic cords

A

a. Surrounding macrophages in erythroid
islands

45
Q
  1. Which of the following determines the timing of egress of RBCs from the bone marrow?

a. Stromal cells decrease production of
adhesive molecules over time as RBCs
mature.
b. Endothelial cells of the venous sinus form
pores at specified intervals of time, allowing
egress of free cells.
c. Periodic apoptosis of pronormoblasts in
the marrow cords occurs.
d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose
receptors for adhesive molecules that
bind them to stromal cells.

A

d. Maturing normoblasts slowly lose
receptors for adhesive molecules that
bind them to stromal cells.

46
Q
  1. What single feature of normal RBCs is most responsible for limiting their life span?

a. Loss of the nucleus
b. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
c. Reduction of hemoglobin iron
d. Loss of mitochondria

A

a. Loss of the nucleus

47
Q
  1. Extravascular hemolysis occurs when:

a. RBCs are mechanically ruptured
b. RBCs extravasate from blood vessels into
the tissues
c. Splenic macrophages ingest
senescent RBCs
d. RBCs are trapped in blood clots outside
the blood vessels

A

c. Splenic macrophages ingest
senescent RBCs

48
Q
  1. Which RBC process does not require energy?

a. Cytoskeletal protein deformability
b. Maintaining cytoplasm cationic
electrochemical gradients
c. Oxygen transport
d. Preventing the peroxidation of proteins
and lipids

A

c. Oxygen transport

49
Q
  1. What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP?

a. 2,3-BPG pathway
b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
c. Hexose monophosphate pathway
d. Rapoport-Luebering pathway

A

b. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

50
Q
  1. Which is true concerning 2,3-BPG?

a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin
b. Source of RBC ATP
c. Source of RBC glucose
d. The least abundant of RBC
organophosphates

A

a. Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin

51
Q
  1. What hexose-monophosphate shunt products participate in the detoxification of peroxides?

a. 2,3-BPG and pyruvic acid
b. ATP and lactic acid
c. NADPH and reduced glutathione
d. Pyruvic and lactic acid

A

c. NADPH and reduced glutathione

52
Q
  1. Which of the following helps maintain RBC shape?

a. Cytoskeletal proteins
b. Glycocalyx
c. GPI anchor
d. Membrane phospholipids

A

a. Cytoskeletal proteins

53
Q
  1. The glycolipids of the RBC membrane:

a. Attach the cytoskeleton to the lipid layer
b. Carry RBC antigens
c. Constitute ion channels
d. Provide flexibility

A

b. Carry RBC antigens

54
Q
  1. RBC membranes block passage of most large molecules, such as proteins, but allow passage of small molecules such as the cations Na1, K1, and Ca21. What is the term for this membrane property?

a. Deformable
b. Flexible
c. Intangible
d. Semipermeable

A

d. Semipermeable

55
Q
  1. RBC membrane cholesterol is replenished from the:

a. Cytoplasm
b. EMB pathway
c. Mitochondria
d. Plasma

A

d. Plasma

55
Q
  1. RBC membrane phospholipids are arranged:

a. In a hexagonal lattice
b. In chains beneath a protein cytoskeleton
c. In two layers whose composition is
asymmetric
d. So that hydrophobic portions are facing
the plasma

A

c. In two layers whose composition is
asymmetric

56
Q
  1. Hemoglobin iron may become oxidized to Fe31 by several pathologic mechanisms. What portion of the Embden- Meyerhof pathway reduces iron to Fe21?

a. Hexose monophosphate pathway
b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
d. 2,3-BPG shunt

A

b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

57
Q
  1. Using the normal hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve in Figure 7.7 for reference, predict the position of the curve when there is a decrease in pH.

a. Shifted to the right normal with
decreased oxygen affinity
b. Shifted to the left of normal with increased oxygen affinity
c. Shifted to the right normal with increased oxygen affinity
d. Shifted to the left of normal with
decreased oxygen affinity

A

a. Shifted to the right normal with
decreased oxygen affinity

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a transmembrane or integral membrane protein?

a. Actin
b. Ankyrin
c. Glycophorin A
d. Spectrin

A

c. Glycophorin A

57
Q
  1. Abnormalities in the horizontal and vertical linkages of the transmembrane and cytoskeletal RBC membrane proteins may be seen as:

a. Enzyme pathway deficiencies
b. Methemoglobin increase
c. Reduced hemoglobin content
d. Shape changes

A

d. Shape changes

58
Q
  1. A hemoglobin molecule is composed of:

a. One heme molecule and four globin
chains
b. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a
globin chain
c. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains
d. Four heme molecules and four globin
chains

A

d. Four heme molecules and four globin
chains

59
Q
  1. Normal adult Hb A contains which polypeptidechains?

a. Alpha and Beta
b. Alpha and Delta
c. Alpha and Gamma
d. Alpha and Epsilon

A

a. Alpha and Beta

60
Q
  1. A key rate-limiting step in heme synthesis is suppression of:

a. Aminolevulinate synthase
b. Carbonic anhydrase
c. Protoporphyrin IX reductase
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

a. Aminolevulinate synthase

61
Q
  1. Which of the following forms of hemoglobin molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?

a. Tense
b. Relaxed

A

a. Tense

62
Q
  1. The predominant hemoglobin found in a healthy newborn is:

a. Gower-1
b. Gower-2
c. A
d. F

A

d. F

63
Q
  1. What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?

a. 80% to 90% HbA, 5% to 10% HbA2, 1%
to 5% HbF
b. 80% to 90% HbA2 , 5% to 10% HbA, 1%
to 5% HbF
c. >95%HbA, <3.5%HbA2,1% to 2% HbF
d. >90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, <5% Hb A2

A

c. >95%HbA, <3.5%HbA2,1% to 2% HbF

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is a description of the structure of oxidized hemoglobin?

a. Hemoglobin carrying oxygen on heme;
synonymous with oxygenated hemoglobin
b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state
(methemoglobin) and not able to carry
oxygen
c. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state so that carbon dioxide replaces oxygen in the heme structure
d. Hemoglobin carrying carbon monoxide;
hence oxidized refers to the single oxygen

A

b. Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state
(methemoglobin) and not able to carry
oxygen

65
Q
  1. In the quaternary structure of hemoglobin, the globin chains associate into:

a. Alpha Tetramers in some cells and beta
tetramers in others
b. A mixture of a tetramers and b tetramers
c. alpha Dimers and beta dimers
d. Two ab dimers

A

d. Two ab dimers

66
Q
  1. How are the globin chain genes arranged?

a. With alpha genes and beta genes on the
same chromosome, including two alpha
genes and two beta genes
b. With alpha genes and beta genes on
separate chromosomes, including two
alpha genes on one chromosome and
one b gene on a different chromosome
c. With alpha genes and beta genes on the
same chromosome, including four alpha
genes and four beta genes
d. With alpha genes and beta genes on
separate chromosomes, including four alpha genes on one chromosome and two beta genes on a different chromosome

A

b. With alpha genes and beta genes on
separate chromosomes, including two
alpha genes on one chromosome and
one b gene on a different chromosome

67
Q
  1. The nature of the interaction between 2,3-BPG and hemo- globin is that 2,3-BPG:

a. Binds to the heme moiety, blocking the
binding of oxygen
b. Binds simultaneously with oxygen to
ensure that it stays bound until it reaches
the tissues, when both molecules are
released from hemoglobin
c. Binds to amino acids of the globin
chain, contributing to a conformational
change that inhibits oxygen from binding
to heme
d. Oxidizes hemoglobin iron, diminishing
oxygen binding and promoting oxygen
delivery to the tissues

A

c. Binds to amino acids of the globin
chain, contributing to a conformational
change that inhibits oxygen from binding
to heme

68
Q
  1. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?

a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin

A

b. Ferritin

69
Q
  1. Iron is transported in plasma via:

a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin

A

c. Transferrin

70
Q
  1. The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related protein?

a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin
c. Transferrin
d. Haptoglobin

A

c. Transferrin

71
Q
  1. For a patient with screening iron study values that are equivocal for iron deficiency, which of the following tests would be most helpful in determining
    whether iron deficiency is present or not?

a. Zinc protoporphyrin
b. Peripheral blood iron stain
c. Soluble transferrin receptor
d. Mean cell hemoglobin

A

c. Soluble transferrin receptor

72
Q
  1. What membrane-associated protein in
    enterocytes transports iron from the intestinal lumen into the enterocyte?

a. DMT1
b. Ferroportin
c. Transferrin
d. Hephaestin

A

a. DMT1

73
Q
  1. Following are several of the many steps in the process from absorption and transport of iron to incorporation into heme. Place them in proper order.
    i. Transferrin picks up ferric iron.
    ii. Iron is transferred to the mitochondria.
    iii. DMT1 transports ferrous iron into the enterocyte.
    iv. Ferroportin transports iron from enterocyte to plasma.
    v. The transferrin receptor transports iron into the cell.

a. v, iv, i, ii, iii
b. iii, ii, iv, i, v
c. ii, i, v, iii, iv
d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

A

d. iii, iv, i, v, ii

74
Q
  1. Iron is transported out of macrophages,
    hepatocytes, and enterocytes by what membrane protein?

a. Transferrin
b. Ferroportin
c. DMT1
d. Ferrochelatase

A

b. Ferroportin

75
Q
  1. What is the fate of the transferrin receptor when it has completed its role in the delivery of iron into a
    cell?

a. It is recycled to the plasma membrane
and released into the plasma.
b. It is RECYCLED to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its LIGAND again.
c. It is catabolized and the amino acids are
returned to the metabolic pool.
d. It is retained in the endosome for the life
span of the cell.

A

b. It is RECYCLED to the plasma membrane, where it can bind its LIGAND again.

76
Q
  1. The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is REGULATED by:

a. Transferrin
b. Ferroportin
c. Hephaestin
d. Hepcidin

A

d. Hepcidin

77
Q
  1. What is the percent transferrin saturation for a patient with total serum iron of 63 mg/dL and TIBC of 420 mg/dL?

a. 6.7%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 80%

A

c. 15%

78
Q
  1. Referring to Figure 8.6, into which quadrant of a Thomas plot would a patient’s results fall with the following test results: Soluble transferrin receptor: increased above reference interval Ferritin:
    decreased below reference interval Hemoglobin content of reticulocytes: within the reference interval

a. Normal iron status
b. Latent iron deficiency
c. Functional iron deficiency
d. Iron deficiency

A

b. Latent iron deficiency

79
Q
  1. A physician is concerned that a patient is developing iron deficiency from chronic intestinal bleeding caused by aspirin use for rheumatoid arthritis. The iron studies on the patient indicate the following results:
    How would these results be interpreted?

a. Latent iron deficiency
b. Functional iron deficiency
c. Iron deficiency
d. Equivocal for iron deficiency

A

d. Equivocal for iron deficiency

80
Q
  1. Developing erythroblasts in the bone marrow affect the supply of body iron, both absorption and recycling, by secreting which of the following hormones?

a. Erythropoietin
b. Erythroferrone
c. Hepcidin
d. Haptoglobin

A

b. Erythroferrone

81
Q
  1. Which of the following cells critical to iron trafficking in the body does NOT possess ferroportin?

a. Erythroblasts
b. Enterocytes
c. Hepatocytes
d. Macrophages

A

a. Erythroblasts

82
Q
  1. Which of the following plays a role in iron sensing so as to adjust iron absorption and recycling?

a. Hepcidin
b. Transferrin receptor 2
c. Ferroportin
d. Divalent metal transporter 1

A

b. Transferrin receptor 2

83
Q
  1. Neutrophils and monocytes are direct
    descendants of a common progenitor known as:

a. CLP
b. GMP
c. MEP
d. HSC

A

b. GMP

84
Q
  1. The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the:

a. Band
b. Myelocyte
c. Promyelocyte
d. Metamyelocyte

A

d. Metamyelocyte

85
Q
  1. Type II myeloblasts are characterized by:

a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary
granules per cell
b. Basophilic cytoplasm with many
secondary granules
c. The absence of granules
d. The presence of a folded nucleus

A

a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary
granules per cell

86
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a function of neutrophils?

a. Presentation of antigen to T and B
lymphocytes
b. Protection against reexposure by same
antigen
c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign
organisms
d. Initiation of delayed hypersensitivity
response

A

c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign
organisms

87
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?

a. Neutrophils and monocytes
b. Eosinophils and basophils
c. T and B lymphocytes
d. Macrophages and dendritic cells

A

b. Eosinophils and basophils

88
Q
  1. Basophils and mast cells have high-affinity surface receptors for which immunoglobulin?

a. A
b. D
c. E
d. G

A

c. E

89
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types is capable of differentiating into osteoclasts, macrophages, or dendritic cells?

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils

A

c. Monocytes

90
Q
  1. Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by:

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to
lymphocytes
b. Ingesting and digesting organisms that
neutrophils cannot
c. Synthesizing complement components
d. Storing iron from senescent red cells

A

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to
lymphocytes

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is the final stage of B cell maturation after activation by antigen?

a. Large, granular lymphocyte
b. Plasma cell
c. Reactive lymphocyte
d. Immunoblast

A

b. Plasma cell

92
Q
  1. The following is unique to both B and T
    lymphocytes and occurs during their early
    development:

a. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and
CD8
b. Maturation in the thymus
c. Synthesis of immunoglobulins
d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor
genes

A

d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor
genes

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

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