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HEMATOLOGY-MTAP > HEMA-TURGEON > Flashcards

HEMA-TURGEON Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The function (or functions) of a hematology
    laboratory is (are) to

A. confirm the physician’s impression of a possible
hematological disorder
B. establish or rule out a diagnosis
C. screen for asymptomatic disorders
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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2
Q
  1. The major intended purpose of the laboratory safety
    manual is to

A. protect the patient and laboratory personnel
B. protect laboratory and other hospital personnel
C. comply with local health and state regulatory
requirements
D. comply with OSHA regulations

A

A. protect the patient and laboratory personnel

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an appropriate safety
    practice?

A. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof
containers
B. Frequent handwashing
C. Sterilizing lancets for reuse
D. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens

A

C. Sterilizing lancets for reuse

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4
Q
  1. If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench
    or floor area, the first step in cleanup should be

A. wear gloves and a lab coat
B. absorb blood with disposable towels
C. clean with freshly prepared 1% chlorine solution
D. wash with water

A

B. absorb blood with disposable towels

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures is the most basic
    and effective in preventing nosocomial infections?

A. Washing hands between patient contacts
B. Wearing laboratory coats
C. Isolating infectious patients
D. Isolating infectious specimens

A

A. Washing hands between patient contacts

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6
Q
  1. HBV and HIV may be directly transmitted in the
    occupational setting by all of the following except

A. parenteral inoculation with contaminated blood
B. exposure of intact skin to contaminated blood or
certain body fluids
C. exposure of intact mucous membranes to
contaminated blood or certain body fluids
D. sharing bathroom facilities with an HIV-positive
person

A

D. sharing bathroom facilities with an HIV-positive
person

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6
Q
  1. The likelihood of infection after exposure to HBV
    infected or HIV-infected blood or body fluids depends
    on all of the following factors except the

A. source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid
B. concentration of the virus
C. duration of the contact
D. presence of nonintact skin

A

A. source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid

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7
Q
  1. Standard precautions have been instituted in clinical
    laboratories to prevent _____ exposures of healthcare
    workers to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV and HBV.

A. parenteral
B. nonintact mucous membrane
C. nonintact skin
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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7
Q
  1. Exposure to _____ constitutes the major source of
    HIV and HBV infection in healthcare personnel.

A. sputum
B. blood
C. urine
D. semen

A

B. blood

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8
Q
  1. The transmission of HBV is _____ probable than
    transmission of HIV.

A. less
B. more

A

B. more

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9
Q
  1. Gloves for medical use may be

A. sterile or nonsterile
B. latex or vinyl
C. used only once
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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10
Q

Questions 12 and 13: Diluted bleach for disinfecting
work surfaces, equipment, and spills should be
prepared daily by preparing a _____ (12) dilution of
household bleach. This dilution requires _____ (13) mL
of bleach diluted to 100 Ml with H2O.
13._____
A. 1
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50

A

B. 10

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11
Q

Questions 12 and 13: Diluted bleach for disinfecting
work surfaces, equipment, and spills should be
prepared daily by preparing a _____ (12) dilution of
household bleach. This dilution requires _____ (13) mL
of bleach diluted to 100 Ml with H2O.
12._____
A. 1:5
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. 1:100

A

B. 1:10

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12
Q
  1. The laboratory procedure manual does not need to
    include

A. test method, principle of the test, and clinical
applications
B. specimen collection and storage procedures
C. the name of the supplier of common laboratory
chemicals
D. QC techniques, procedures, normal values, and
technical sources of error

A

C. the name of the supplier of common laboratory
chemicals

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not a
    nonanalytical factor in a Quality Assessment system?

A. Qualified personnel and established laboratory
policies
B. Monitoring the standard deviation and reporting
results of normal and abnormal controls
C. Maintenance of a procedure manual and the use of
appropriate methodology
D. Preventive maintenance of equipment and correct
specimen collection

A

B. Monitoring the standard deviation and reporting
results of normal and abnormal controls

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14
Q
  1. In which of the following laboratory situations is a
    verbal report permissible?

A. When the patient is going directly to the physician’s
office and would like to have the report available
B. When the report cannot be found at the nurse’s
station
C. When emergency test results are needed by a
physician
D. None of the above

A

C. When emergency test results are needed by a
physician

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15
Q

Questions 17 through 19: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. The value is known in a specimen similar to a
patient’s whole blood or serum.
B. Closeness to the true value
C. The process of monitoring accuracy
D. Comparison to a known physical constant

A
  1. __B___ Accuracy
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15
Q

Questions 17 through 19: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. The value is known in a specimen similar to a
patient’s whole blood or serum.
B. Closeness to the true value
C. The process of monitoring accuracy
D. Comparison to a known physical constant

A
  1. __A___ Control
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16
Q

Questions 17 through 19: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. The value is known in a specimen similar to a
patient’s whole blood or serum.
B. Closeness to the true value
C. The process of monitoring accuracy
D. Comparison to a known physical constant

A
  1. __D___ Calibration
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17
Q

Questions 20 through 22: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. How close test results are when repeated.
B. A purified substance of a known composition.
C. The process of monitoring accuracy and
reproducibility of known control results.
D. The value is unknown.

A
  1. __A___ Precision
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18
Q

Questions 20 through 22: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. How close test results are when repeated.
B. A purified substance of a known composition.
C. The process of monitoring accuracy and
reproducibility of known control results.
D. The value is unknown.

A
  1. __B___ Standards
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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of a
    quantitative QC program?

A. Monitors the correct functioning of equipment,
reagents, and individual technique
B. Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens
C. Compares the accuracy of controls to reference
values
D. Detects shifts in control values

A

B. Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens

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19
Q

Questions 20 through 22: Match the following terms
with the best description.

A. How close test results are when repeated.
B. A purified substance of a known composition.
C. The process of monitoring accuracy and
reproducibility of known control results.
D. The value is unknown.

A
  1. __C___ Quality
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20
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following terms
with the appropriate description.

A. The difference between the upper and lower
measurements in a series of results
B. The expression of the position of each test result to
the average
C. The arithmetic average
D. The degree to which test data vary about the average

A
  1. __C___ Mean
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21
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following terms
with the appropriate description.

A. The difference between the upper and lower
measurements in a series of results
B. The expression of the position of each test result to
the average
C. The arithmetic average
D. The degree to which test data vary about the average

A
  1. __B___ Standard deviation
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21
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following terms
with the appropriate description.

A. The difference between the upper and lower
measurements in a series of results
B. The expression of the position of each test result to
the average
C. The arithmetic average
D. The degree to which test data vary about the average

A
  1. __D___ Variance
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22
Q

Questions 24 through 27: Match the following terms
with the appropriate description.

A. The difference between the upper and lower
measurements in a series of results
B. The expression of the position of each test result to
the average
C. The arithmetic average
D. The degree to which test data vary about the average

A
  1. __A___ Range
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23
Q
  1. The z score measures

A. how many standard deviations a particular number is
from the right or left of the mean
B. the sum of the squared differences from the mean
C. the square root of the variance from the mean
D. the expression of the position of each test result to
the average

A

A. how many standard deviations a particular number is
from the right or left of the mean

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24
Q
  1. The coefficient of variation is the

A. sum of the squared differences from the mean
B. square root of the variance from the mean
C. standard deviation expressed as a percentage of the
mean
D. degree to which test data vary about the average

A

C. standard deviation expressed as a percentage of the
mean

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25
Q
  1. Acceptable limits of a control value must fall

A. within ±1 standard deviation of the mean
B. between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean
C. within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
D. within ±3 standard deviations of the mean

A

C. within ±2 standard deviations of the mean

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25
Q
  1. A trend change in QC data is

A. a progressive change all in one direction away from
the mean for at least 3 days
B. an abrupt shift in the control values
C. scattered variations from the mean
D. a progressive change in various directions away from
the mean for at least 1 week

A

A. a progressive change all in one direction away from
the mean for at least 3 days

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of a
    Gaussian curve?

A. It represents the standard deviation.
B. It represents the coefficient of variation.
C. It represents variance of a population.
D. It represents a normal bell-shaped distribution.

A

D. It represents a normal bell-shaped distribution.

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26
Q
  1. A continuously increasing downward variation in a
    control sample in one direction from the mean can
    indicate

A. deterioration of reagents used in the test
B. deterioration of the control specimen
C. deterioration of a component in an instrument
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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27
Q
  1. Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the
    anticoagulant K3 EDTA?

A. Removes ionized calcium (Ca2+) from fresh whole
blood by the process of chelation
B. Is used for most routine coagulation studies
C. Is the most commonly used anticoagulant in
hematology
D. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered
evacuated tubes

A

B. Is used for most routine coagulation studies

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27
Q
  1. Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a
    normal distribution curve would include

A. 99% of all values
B. 95% of all values
C. 75% of all values
D. 68% of all values

A

B. 95% of all values

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28
Q
  1. When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is
    prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the
    straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the
    cellular elements is

A. serum
B. plasma
C. whole blood
D. platelets

A

B. plasma

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29
Q
  1. Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by
    neutralizing the effect of

A. platelets
B. ionized calcium (Ca2+)
C. fibrinogen
D. thrombin

A

D. thrombin

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30
Q

Questions 4 through 7: Match the conventional color
coded stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant.

A. RED
B. LAVENDER
C. BLUE
D. GREEN

A
  1. __B___ EDTA
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31
Q

Questions 4 through 7: Match the conventional color
coded stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant.

A. RED
B. LAVENDER
C. BLUE
D. GREEN

A
  1. __D___ Heparin
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32
Q

Questions 4 through 7: Match the conventional color
coded stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant.

A. RED
B. LAVENDER
C. BLUE
D. GREEN

A
  1. __C___ Sodium citrate
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33
Q

Questions 4 through 7: Match the conventional color
coded stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant.

A. RED
B. LAVENDER
C. BLUE
D. GREEN

A
  1. __A___ No anticoagulant
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34
Q

Questions 8 through 12: The following five procedural
steps are significant activities in the performance of a
venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence

A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble
equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Reapply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure
to the patient.

A
  1. __E___
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35
Q

Questions 8 through 12: The following five procedural
steps are significant activities in the performance of a
venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence

A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble
equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Reapply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure
to the patient.

A
  1. __B___
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36
Q

Questions 8 through 12: The following five procedural
steps are significant activities in the performance of a
venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence

A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble
equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Reapply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure
to the patient.

A
  1. __D___
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36
Q

Questions 8 through 12: The following five procedural
steps are significant activities in the performance of a
venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence

A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble
equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Reapply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure
to the patient.

A
  1. __A___
37
Q
  1. The appropriate veins for performing a routine
    venipuncture are the

A. cephalic, basilic, and median cubital
B. subclavian, iliac, and femoral
C. brachiocephalic, jugular, and popliteal
D. saphenous, suprarenal, and tibial

A

A. cephalic, basilic, and median cubital

38
Q

Questions 8 through 12: The following five procedural
steps are significant activities in the performance of a
venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence

A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble
equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Reapply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure
to the patient.

A
  1. ___C__
38
Q
  1. The bevel of the needle should be held _____ in the
    performance of a venipuncture.

A. sideways
B. upward
C. downward
D. in any direction

A

B. upward

39
Q
  1. A hematoma can form if

A. improper pressure is applied to a site after the
venipuncture
B. the patient suddenly moves and the needle comes
out of the vein
C. the needle punctures both walls of the vein
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

39
Q
  1. A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV
    fluids running in both arms. Which of the following is an
    acceptable procedure?

A. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory.
B. Obtain sample from above the IV site.
C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special
restrictions.
D. Disconnect the IV line.
E. Do not draw a blood specimen.

A

C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special
restrictions.

40
Q
  1. Phlebotomy problems can include

A. the use of improper anticoagulants
B. misidentification of patients
C. improper angle of the needle or having the needle up
against the side of the vessel wall
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

41
Q
  1. Poor blood smears can be caused by

A. a delay in preparing the smear once the drop of
blood has been placed on the slide
B. a drop of blood that is too large or too small
C. holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor
drying conditions
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

41
Q
  1. Which of the following skin puncture areas is (are)
    acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an
    infant?

A. Previous puncture site
B. Posterior curve of the heel
C. The arch
D. Medial or lateral plantar surface

A

D. Medial or lateral plantar surface

42
Q
  1. Identify the characteristic(s) of a good peripheral
    blood smear.

A. It progresses from thick at the point of origin to thin.
B. It has a blunt feathered termination.
C. The outer margins do not touch the edges of the
slide.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

42
Q
  1. A peripheral blood smear can be prepared from

A. EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of
collection
B. free-flowing capillary blood
C. citrated whole blood
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

43
Q
  1. The proper collection of capillary blood includes

A. wiping away the first drop of blood
B. occasionally wiping the site with a plain gauze pad to
avoid the buildup of platelets
C. avoiding the introduction of air bubbles into the
column of blood in a capillary collection tube
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

44
Q
  1. If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be
    resolved by

A. decreasing the angle of the pusher slide
B. increasing the angle of the pusher slide
C. using a larger drop of blood
D. pushing the slide slower in smearing out the blood

A

B. increasing the angle of the pusher slide

45
Q

Questions 26 through 28: Match the following type of
staining effect with the color it imparts to blood cells.

A. Orange-red color
B. Pink-lilac color
C. Blue-purple color

A
  1. __C___ Basic stain color
45
Q
  1. The examination of bone marrow is useful in

A. diagnosing a bleeding disorder
B. diagnosing some disorders associated with
erythrocytes and leukocytes
C. diagnosing acute leukemias
D. both B and C

A

D. both B and C

46
Q
  1. Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an
    adult are the

A. anterior and posterior iliac crest
B. sternum and posterior iliac crest
C. tibia and sternum
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

47
Q

Questions 26 through 28: Match the following type of
staining effect with the color it imparts to blood cells.

A. Orange-red color
B. Pink-lilac color
C. Blue-purple color

A
  1. __A___ Acidic stain color
48
Q

Questions 26 through 28: Match the following type of
staining effect with the color it imparts to blood cells.

A. Orange-red color
B. Pink-lilac color
C. Blue-purple color

A
  1. __B___ Neutrophilic
49
Q

Questions 29 through 32: Identify the following as
Romanowsky-type or non–Romanowsky-type stains.

A. Romanowsky-type
B. Non–Romanowsky-type

A
  1. __A___ Wright
50
Q

Questions 29 through 32: Identify the following as
Romanowsky-type or non–Romanowsky-type stains.

A. Romanowsky-type
B. Non–Romanowsky-type

A
  1. __A___ May-Grünwald
51
Q

Questions 29 through 32: Identify the following as
Romanowsky-type or non–Romanowsky-type stains.

A. Romanowsky-type
B. Non–Romanowsky-type

A
  1. __A___ Giemsa
52
Q

Questions 29 through 32: Identify the following as
Romanowsky-type or non–Romanowsky-type stains.

A. Romanowsky-type
B. Non–Romanowsky-type

A
  1. __B___ Methylene blue
53
Q
  1. If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic
    examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible
    causes include that

A. the staining time was too long
B. the stain was too basic
C. the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was
too short
D. the buffer was too basic and the exposure time was
too long

A

C. the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was
too short

54
Q
  1. The smallest organized unit of living tissue is the

A. nucleus
B. cell
C. organelle
D. cytoplasm

A

B. cell

55
Q
  1. The cell membrane’s major components are

A. carbohydrates and proteins
B. proteins and lipids
C. lipids and glycoproteins
D. polysaccharides and lipids

A

B. proteins and lipids

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of osmosis?

A. Requires energy (ATP)
B. Movement of water molecules
C. An unusual cellular activity
D. Requires a carrier molecule

A

B. Movement of water molecules

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of active
    transport?

A. Requires energy (ATP)
B. Movement of molecules up the concentration
gradient
C. Requires a carrier molecule
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

57
Q
  1. Phagocytosis is

A. a type of endocytosis
B. the engulfment of fluid molecules
C. the engulfment of particulate matter
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

58
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the following organelles
with their appropriate function.

A. Protein production
B. Concentration of secretory granules
C. Lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis
E. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers

A
  1. __E___ Centrioles
59
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the following organelles
with their appropriate function.

A. Protein production
B. Concentration of secretory granules
C. Lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis
E. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers

A
  1. __A___ Rough ER
60
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the following organelles
with their appropriate function.

A. Protein production
B. Concentration of secretory granules
C. Lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis
E. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers

A
  1. __C___ Smooth ER
61
Q

Questions 6 through 9: Match the following organelles
with their appropriate function.

A. Protein production
B. Concentration of secretory granules
C. Lipid synthesis
D. DNA synthesis
E. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers

A
  1. __B___ Golgi apparatus
62
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the following
organelles with their appropriate function.

A. Energy production and heme synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Intracellular digestion
E. Carbohydrate synthesis

A
  1. __D___ Lysosomes
63
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the following
organelles with their appropriate function.

A. Energy production and heme synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Intracellular digestion
E. Carbohydrate synthesis

A
  1. __C___ Microtubules
64
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the following
organelles with their appropriate function.

A. Energy production and heme synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Intracellular digestion
E. Carbohydrate synthesis

A
  1. __A___ Mitochondria
65
Q

Questions 10 through 13: Match the following
organelles with their appropriate function.

A. Energy production and heme synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Intracellular digestion
E. Carbohydrate synthesis

A
  1. __B___ Ribosomes
66
Q
  1. A cellular inclusion that represents a common
    storage form of iron is

A. glycogen
B. vacuoles
C. Auer body
D. ferritin

A

D. ferritin

67
Q
  1. Glycogen is a

A. protein
B. lipid
C. carbohydrate
D. hormone

A

C. carbohydrate

68
Q
  1. The nucleus of the cell contains

A. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm
B. chromatin, nucleoli, and ribosomes
C. DNA, RNA, and ribosomes
D. DNA, RNA, and mitochondria

A

A. chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm

69
Q
  1. A chromosomal deletion is

A. loss of a pair of chromosomes
B. loss of a segment of chromosome
C. attachment of a piece of a chromosome
D. an exchange of genetic material

A

B. loss of a segment of chromosome

69
Q
  1. The overall function of DNA is

A. protein and enzyme production
B. control of cellular function and transmission of
genetic information
C. control of heterochromatin and euchromatin
synthesis
D. production of cellular energy and transmission of
genetic information

A

B. control of cellular function and transmission of
genetic information

70
Q
  1. Heterochromatin is

A. genetically inactive
B. found in patches or clumps
C. genetically inactive and pale staining
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

71
Q
  1. Chromosomal translocation is

A. a frequent activity of homologous chromosomes in
meiosis
B. a rearrangement of genetic material
C. the process in which a segment of one chromosome
breaks away from its normal location
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

72
Q

Questions 21 through 24: Match the following activities
with the appropriate period of time. Use an answer only
once.

A. DNA replication
B. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity
C. Immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. Actual mitotic division
E. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular
metabolism

A
  1. __E___ G1
73
Q

Questions 21 through 24: Match the following activities
with the appropriate period of time. Use an answer only
once.

A. DNA replication
B. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity
C. Immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. Actual mitotic division
E. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular
metabolism

A
  1. __C___ G2
73
Q

Questions 21 through 24: Match the following activities
with the appropriate period of time. Use an answer only
once.

A. DNA replication
B. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity
C. Immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. Actual mitotic division
E. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular
metabolism

A
  1. __B___ G0
74
Q

Questions 21 through 24: Match the following activities
with the appropriate period of time. Use an answer only
once.

A. DNA replication
B. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity
C. Immediately precedes actual mitotic division
D. Actual mitotic division
E. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular
metabolism

A
  1. __A___ S
75
Q

Questions 25 through 29: Match the following mitotic
activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an
answer only once.

A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
B. Two identical daughter cells form
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of
the mitotic spindle
E. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

A
  1. __E___ Prophase
76
Q

Questions 25 through 29: Match the following mitotic
activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an
answer only once.

A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
B. Two identical daughter cells form
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of
the mitotic spindle
E. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

A
  1. __A___ Metaphase
77
Q

Questions 25 through 29: Match the following mitotic
activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an
answer only once.

A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
B. Two identical daughter cells form
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of
the mitotic spindle
E. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

A
  1. __D___ Anaphase
78
Q

Questions 25 through 29: Match the following mitotic
activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an
answer only once.

A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
B. Two identical daughter cells form
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of
the mitotic spindle
E. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

A
  1. __B___ Telophase
79
Q

Questions 25 through 29: Match the following mitotic
activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an
answer only once.

A. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator
B. Two identical daughter cells form
C. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
D. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of
the mitotic spindle
E. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense

A
  1. __C___ Cytokinesis
80
Q
  1. In meiosis, the cells produced contain

A. a 2n number of chromosomes
B. 22 pairs of chromosomes
C. 23 pairs of chromosomes
D. 23 chromosomes

A

D. 23 chromosomes

81
Q
  1. Hematologists are interested in inherited disorders.
    Which of the following are inherited disorders?

A. Sickle cell trait
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hemophilia
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

82
Q
  1. Molecular techniques are being used to detect
    abnormalities of

A. erythrocytes
B. leukocytes
C. some coagulation factors
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q
  1. The first inherited hematologic disorder to be
    diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was

A. hemophilia A
B. factor V Leiden
C. sickle cell anemia
D. CML

A

C. sickle cell anemia

84
Q
  1. PCR testing is useful in

A. forensic testing
B. genetic testing
C. disease diagnosis
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

85
Q
  1. The traditional PCR technique

A. extends the length of the genomic DNA
B. alters the original DNA nucleotide sequence
C. amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences
D. amplifies the target region of RNA

A

C. amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences

86
Q
  1. PCR protocol

A. doubles the specific amount of DNA with each Cycle
B. typically has three temperature steps
C. repeats the number of cycles about 30
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

87
Q
  1. Variations of PCR include

A. nested primers
B. real-time PCR
C. microarray analysis
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

88
Q
  1. The method considered to be the “gold standard” of
    molecular methods is

A. DNA sequencing
B. Southern blot
C. Northern blot
D. Dot blot

A

A. DNA sequencing

89
Q
  1. The Southern blot procedure has diagnostic
    applications for diseases or disorders associated with

A. significant changes in DNA (e.g., deletion)
B. determination of clonality in lymphomas of T- or B
cell origin
C. detection of restriction fragment length
polymorphisms
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

90
Q
  1. The Northern blot procedure can be used

A. to mass-produce erythropoietin
B. for analysis of the proximal product of gene
expression
C. for antenatal genetic counseling
D. all of the above

A

B. for analysis of the proximal product of gene
expression

91
Q
  1. All of the following are true of FISH except _____

A. The acronym stands for fluorescent in situ
hybridization.
B. It is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay.
C. It is a prenatal diagnosis of a genetic disorder.
D. It is useful in the diagnosis of various anemias.

A

D. It is useful in the diagnosis of various anemias.

92
Q
  1. Microarrays are

A. DNA probes bonded on glass chips
B. tissue-based probes
C. used to identify single-base mutations
D. used to determine clonality in lymphomas

A

A. DNA probes bonded on glass chips

93
Q
  1. Molecular techniques provide a diagnostic tool to

A. detect MRD in hematological malignancies
B. monitor patients following bone marrow
transplantation
C. detect an early relapse in a patient treated for a
hematological malignancy
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

HEMATOLOGY-MTAP (10 decks)

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