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Health Care Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the dimensions of Wellness?

A

Physical wellness
Emotional wellness
Intellectual wellness
Spiritual wellness
Interpersonal and social wellness
Environmental, or planetary, wellness

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2
Q

What are health determinants?

A

Any factor in an individual or the environment that helps determine the state of health of a person.Multifactorial nature of both health and illness

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3
Q

What are modifiable factors of health?

A

diet, exercise habit, alcohol consumption and smoking

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4
Q

What are non- modifiable factors of health?

A

genetic makeup, gender, age and ethnicity

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5
Q

What are the principles of health promotion?

A

1.Make sound and practical health policies
2.Organize /re-organize health services- where persons are not accessing health services it may be that you as health provider may need to go out to where the people are such as schools, churches, community Centre
3.Empower people (individuals, groups) to achieve well-being- help them recognize the things that they must do for themselves
4.Help people to develop personal health skills
5.Create supportive environments
6.Build alliances across all sectors, especially with the media (work with allied workers, going to school we work with the ministry of education, so depending on where you are going you may need work to different sectors.

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6
Q

What model is described as a general model or approach that posits that biological, psychological (which entails thoughts, emotions, and behaviours), and social factors, all play a significant role in human functioning in the context of disease or illness ?

A

The biopsychosocial model

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7
Q

What are the different aspects of Holistic Health?

A

1.Physical Health
2.Mental Health
3.Social Health
4.Spiritual Health

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8
Q

What is physical health?

A

The absence of disease and disability; functioning adequately from the perspective of physical and physiological abilities; the biological integrity of the individual.

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9
Q

The ability to interact effectively with other people and the social environment; satisfying interpersonal relationships; role fulfillment is described as?

A

Social Health

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10
Q

When was the revised definition of Health by WHO done?

A

1984

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11
Q

What are different aspects of the wellness wheel?

A

Physical wellness
Emotional wellness
Intellectual wellness
Spiritual wellness
Interpersonal and social wellness
Environmental, or planetary, wellness

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12
Q

Wellness is “an active process of becoming aware of and making choices toward a more successful existence.” is a definition by who?

A

The National Wellness Association of Singapore

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13
Q

What are host factors?

A

Physical and mental attributes developed within the human body as a consequence of the basic biology of humans and the organic make up of an individual

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14
Q

“Factors external to the human body including physical, biological and chemical factors, as well as social factors such as political, economic and cultural influences.” can be described as?

A

Environmental Factors

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15
Q

What are some examples of Physical Environmental factors?

A

-Water and sanitation concerns
-Geographic, climatic conditions
-Radiation
-Ergonomics

“Werg”

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16
Q

What are the biological environmental factors?

A

1.Microbial agents – parasites, bacteria, viruses
2.Toxins
3.Insect and animal vectors

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17
Q

Pollutants in the air and water can be described as what type of environmental factor?

A

Chemical

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18
Q

What are some examples of social environmental factors?

A

-Family size and composition
-Occupation
-Educational level
-Cultural/religious beliefs and myths
-Political climate
-Economics-macro and micro
-Crime and violence

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19
Q

What are the 8 key areas of life choices/lifestyle?

A

1.Habitual diet and physical activity
2.Tobacco, alcohol and illicit drug use
3.Sexual behaviour
4.Conflict resolution
5.Road use behaviour
6.Environmental hygiene
7.Health care seeking behaviour
8.Spirituality

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20
Q

What is described as a reactive / curative approach to wellness?

A

Only worrying about your health when you’re sick.Not asserting control over your health in the absence of your disease.

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21
Q

What is described as a proactive approach to wellness?

A

Adopting lifestyle habits that will enable you a lead a more healthy life.

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22
Q

What factors are sense of wellness influenced by?

A

Family
Culture
Media
Peers

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23
Q

Treatment, Behaviour and Socio-Environmental are broad approaches to ?

A

Health Enhancement

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24
Q

What is the Treatment approach to health enhancement?

A
  1. It deals with the problems defined by the disease
    2.Concerns about disease process and physical factors
    3.They use medical interventions for solving problems.
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25
Q

What is Habituation?

A

Habituation (also called desensitization), repeated stimulation results in a decreased response.

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26
Q

At what age do foetuses develop habituation?

A

32 weeks

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27
Q

What is sensitisation?

A

In sensitization, repeated stimulation results in an increased response. e.g., a child who is afraid of spiders feels more anxiety each time he encounters a spider).

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28
Q

What part of the brain is important in Associative learning?

A

The hippocampus

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29
Q

What part of the brain is associated with classical conditioning and motor skills?

A

The cerebellum

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30
Q

Who was the first person to discover Classical conditioning learning?

A

Ivan Pavlov

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31
Q

Process of learning in which one stimulus signals the arrival of another stimulus (involuntary)can be described as?

A

Classical conditioning

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32
Q

What animal did Pavlov use to discover his findings?

A

A dog- ringing the bell provoked salivation.

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33
Q

Which two researchers are associated with Classical conditioning?

A

Ivan Pavlov and John Watson

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34
Q

What are the elements of classical conditioning?

A

Unconditioned stimulus
Unconditioned response
Conditioned stimulus
Conditioned response

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35
Q

What is an unconditioned stimulus?

A

It’s something that automatically, without having to be learned, produces a response (e.g., the odor of food).

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36
Q

What is an unconditioned response?

A

An unconditioned response is a natural, reflexive behavior that does not have to be learned (e.g., salivation in response to the odor of food).

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37
Q

This is something that produces a response following learning (e.g., the
sound of the lunch bell) can be an example of?

A

Conditioned stimulus

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38
Q

What is a conditioned response?

A

This is a behavior that is learned by an association made between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., salivation in response to the lunch bell).

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39
Q

What are the 3 phases of Classical conditioning?

A

Acquisition
Extinction
Spontaneous Recovery

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40
Q

“The conditioned response decreases if the conditioned stimulus (e.g., the sound of the lunch bell) is never again paired with the unconditioned stimulus (e.g., the odor of food).” What phase does this demonstrate?

A

Extinction

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41
Q

True or False? In In acquisition, the conditioned response (e.g., salivation in response to the lunch bell) is learned.

A

TRUE!!

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42
Q

What is spontaneous recovery?

A

The extinct conditioned response (re-appears in a weaker form) if we present the conditioned stimulus again after some time .

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43
Q

By what two methods did the Mary Jones experiment counter the conditioning experiments?

A

Flooding and Systematic desensitisation

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44
Q

Describe Flooding?

A

The individual is exposed to the fear evoking object until the fear is distinguished.

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45
Q

True or False? In systematic desensitisation, the individual is exposed to the fear evoking object under circumstances in which he/she remains panicked.

A

FALSE!! In systematic desensitisation, the individual is exposed to the fear evoking object under circumstances in which he/she remains RELAXED.

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46
Q

What is Aversive conditioning?

A

This is when an unwanted behavior (e.g., setting fires) is paired with a painful or aversive stimulus (e.g., a painful electric shock). An association is created between the unwanted behavior (fire-setting) and the aversive stimulus (pain) and the fire-setting ceases.

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47
Q

What is Operant learning?

A

In Operant learning, behavior is determined by its consequences for the individual( voluntary).

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48
Q

True or False? Behaviours that are reinforced (lead to satisfying consequences) will be weakened.

A

FALSE!! Behaviours that are reinforced will be STRENGTHENED while behaviours that are punished will be WEAKENED.

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49
Q

What is Thorndike’s Law of Effect?

A

Any behaviour resulting in satisfying consequences tend to be repeated while any behaviour resulting in unsatisfying consequences tends to not be repeated.

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50
Q

Which researcher discovered Operant conditioning?

A

Burrhus Fedric Skinner

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51
Q

What is reinforcement?

A

This is the process by which the probability of a response is increased by the presentation of the reinforcer following the response.

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52
Q

True or False? Punishment decreases the probability of a response?

A

TRUE!!

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53
Q

Fill in the blank. “ In positive punishment an _________ stimulus is presented”

A

Aversive (unpleasant)

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54
Q

Fill in the blank.” In negative punishment an appetitive (pleasant) stimulus is _________”

A

Removed

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55
Q

What is latent learning?

A

Learning that occurs but is not demonstrated until there is incentive to do so.

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56
Q

True or false? Cognitive learning might seem to be passive learning, because there is no motor movement.

A

TRUE!!

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57
Q

What is Cognitive Learning?

A

In cognitive learning, the individual learns by listening, watching, touching, reading, or experiencing and then processing and remembering the information.
Ex. Me lol

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58
Q

What is Extinction in Operant Learning?

A

Discontinuation of reinforcement (positive or negative) eventually eliminates behavior. Can occur in operant or classical conditioning.

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59
Q

What is the pre-conscious mind?

A

This is stored in your memory that you are not presently aware of but can gain access to

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60
Q

What are Freud’s three part personality structure?

A

Id, Ego and Superego

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61
Q

Fill in the blanks” The _______ has ways to cope with life’s stressors unconsciously.

A

Ego

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62
Q

Which one of Freud’s three part personality structure deals with morals and what an individual should do?

A

Superego

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63
Q

True or False? The ID operates on a reality principle?

A

FALSE!! The ID operates on a PLEASURABLE principle. It drives for what YOU want to do.

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64
Q

Fill in the blanks” ______ operates on a reality principle. It will serve as a mediator between the two.

A

Ego - determines the difference between right and wrong ( what you should do vs what you want to do)

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65
Q

Where can the ID be found?

A

In the unconscious mind

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66
Q

An immature ego defense associated with borderline personality disorder can be described as?

A

Splitting

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67
Q

What are some immature ego defense mechanisms?

A

A-Acting Out
D-Denial
I-Idealization
P-Projection
P-Passive Aggression
S- Splitting
“Adipps”

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68
Q

Which of the immature Ego defences can be seen in patients with borderline personality disorders?

A

Splitting

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69
Q

What are the different Neurotic Ego Defenses?

A

Displacement
Dissociation
Identification
Intellectualization
Isolation of affect
Rationalization
Reaction formation
Regression
Repression
Undoing

“DDIIIRRRRU”

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70
Q

What is Displacement?

A

Patients shift their undesirable feelings or impulses to a safer, less threatening person
(e.g., Person A → B → C). For example, a husband may yell at his wife, who in turn yells at their son.

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71
Q

In which Neurotic Ego defences do persons separate themselves and may even change their personalities temporarily to separate themselves from the underlying stressor?

A

Dissociation

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72
Q

What is repression?

A

Unconsciously pushing a painful or stressful feeling or idea into the subconscious. This is different from denial, in which a patient is purposefully avoiding reality

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73
Q

These patients deal with stress by reverting back to childlike ways, such as a woman with cancer wanting to cry and be held by her mother is a scenario depicting?

A

Regression

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74
Q

What is rationalization?

A

Creating false excuses for one’s unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or behaviour.

” Men are rats who always have excuses”

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75
Q

Fill in the blanks “______ is when a patient has uncomfortable, undesirable feelings or impulses, he or she may deal with them by actually converting them into the OPPOSITE emotion.

A

Reaction formation

“For every action, there is an equal (in size) and opposite (in direction) reaction”
in reaction - you do the opposite.

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76
Q

What is an Erogenous zone?

A

An erogenous zone is the area of the body where the id’s pleasure-seeking psychic energy is focused during a particular stage of psychosexual development

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77
Q

How can an oral fixation develop in adulthood?

A

smoking, gum chewing, candy-eating, over eating, nail-biting, pica, alcoholism.

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78
Q

True or False ? In Oedipus conflict the little boy becomes attracted to his mother and fears the father will find out and castrate him.

A

TRUE !!

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79
Q

Fill in the blank “ In _____ the little girl is attracted to her father because he has a penis; she wants one and feels inferior without one (penis envy)

A

Electra conflict

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80
Q

What are mature ego defenses?

A

Sublimation
Altruism
Humor
Suppression

“Mature girlies go to SAHS”

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81
Q

What is sublimation?

A

This is a productive way of channeling an unpleasant or undesirable feeling into an
acceptable action.

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82
Q

What was Carl Jungs discovery?

A

The collective unconscious

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83
Q

Who discovered that the main two personality attitudes are Extroversion and Introversion?

A

Carl Jung

84
Q

What are the four functions/style of gathering information?

A

Sensing
Intuiting
Thinking
Feeling

85
Q

What was the basis of Karen Horney’s discovery ?

A

The focus is on our need for security, rather than a sense of inferiority

86
Q

Who is considered the father of humanistic movement?

A

Abraham Maslow

87
Q

What was the number one cause of death in Jamaica in 2014?

A

Stroke

88
Q

What are the three types of Adverse Childhood Experiences

A

1.Abuse
2.Neglect
3.Household dysfunction

89
Q

What Is the most form of abuse in Adverse Childhood Experiences?

A

Physical

90
Q

What is the most cause household dysfunction?

A

Substance

91
Q

What is the percentile of domestic violence against women?

A

16-50%

92
Q

What are some factors contributing violence against women and girls?

A

1.Strictly enforced gender roles
2.Association of masculinity with toughness and dominance
3.Punishment of women and children as an accepted value
4.Violence accepted as a standard way to resolve conflicts
5.Stress associated with poverty

93
Q

What are Trauma related psychiatric conditions?

A

Major depression
Adjustment disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorder
Acute stress disorder
Attatchment disorder

94
Q

What happens in warm affect?

A

Expressed emotion is appropriate.

95
Q

What happens in Blunted Affect?

A

Expressed emotion is reduced.

96
Q

What are disorders in perception?

A

Hallucination and Illusion

97
Q

What is hallucination?

A

Hallucination is perception plus no stimulus

98
Q

What are Hypnogogic hallucinations?

A

These occurring while falling asleep. They are NOT pathological.

99
Q

What are Hypnopompic hallucinations?

A

These occur while awakening. They are also NOT pathological.

100
Q

True or False? In loosening of association , ideas shift from one to another?

A

TRUE

101
Q

What are disorders characterised by anxiety symptoms?

A
  • Panic Disorder
  • Phobias
  • OCD
  • PTSD
  • Generalized Anxiety Disorder

” GOPPP”
-

102
Q

What is the criteria to diagnose depression?

A

SIG E CAPS
S- Sleep - insomnia or hypersomnia
I- Interest - loss of interests in pleasurable activities
G- Guilt - feeling guilt or worthless
E- Energy - fatigue
C- Concentration- not able to focus
A- Appetite -increase or decrease in appetite
P- Psychomotor retardation or agitation
S- Suicidality or thoughts of self-harm (active or passive)

103
Q

What is Anhedonia?

A

This is the loss of interest in doing pleasurable activities.

104
Q

True or False? Panic disorder can be diagnosed by the patient having Anhedonia.

A

FALSE!! Panic disorder can be diagnosed by patient having AGORAPHOBIA ( avoiding places because of a fear of having a panic attack in a next place)

105
Q

What are the treatments for Panic disorders?

A

Benzodiazepines and SSRIs( selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

106
Q

How long must a patients symptoms last for before they are diagnosed with Generalised anxiety disorder?

A

At least 6 months

107
Q

What does OCD stand for?

A

Obsessive- Compulsive Disorders

108
Q

How long should patients be experiencing symptoms to be diagnosed with PTSD?

A

1 month

109
Q

What are the symptoms of PTSD ?

A

Hyperarousal- A state of increased alertness and tension that cal lead to trouble sleeping, jumpiness or any outbursts.
Intrusive thoughts - patient has dreams/flashbacks of the event.
Numbness- patients have limited emotions and affect
Avoidance-Patients avoid anything that reminds them of the traumatic event.

110
Q

True or False? Older patients who are taking cholinergic medications are prone to Delirium.

A

FALSE!! Older patients who are taking anticholinergic drugs are prone to be delirious

111
Q

Fill in the blanks “ ________ is reversible while __________ is not reversible”

A

Delirium and Dementia

112
Q

What are some symptoms of Dementia?

A

MAAAE’s
Memory impairment ( acute)
Aphasia( loss of certain words)
Apraxia (inability to carry out motor activity despite intact motor function)
Agnosia (failure to recognize objects despite intact sensory function)
Executive function impaired (SOAP)

113
Q

Who discovered the three stage model of memory?

A

Richard Atkinson and Richard Shiffrin in 1968
“ the Richards”

114
Q

What are the three distinctive stages of memory ?

A

Sensory
Short -term
Long -term

115
Q

What is sensory memory?

A

A brief visual stimulus triggers a sensory
response in the nervous system.

116
Q

What is short term memory?

A

This is the information that has been transferred from sensory store to this short-term store of memory.

117
Q

What are the three stages that involves working memory?

A

Encode
Storage
Retrieval

118
Q

What is Explicit Memory?

A

This is the conscious recollection of events that occur in a particular time and place.

Declarative: General factual information
Episodic: Personal autobiographical memory

119
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

This is the unconscious recollection of various types of information related to skills.

Procedural:riding a bike, driving a car (skill learned)
Conditioning effects: classical and operant conditioning

120
Q

What is Semantic Memory?

A

This stores facts and generalised information. Also
contains verbal information, concepts, rules,
principles and problem solving skills.

121
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Stores information as images, captures “what”
“when,” and “where.” A snapshot of ones past
experience.

122
Q

True or false? Retrieval is the process of bringing stored information from short -term memory to the conscious level in long-term memory.

A

FALSE!! Retrieval is the process of bringing stored information from LONG -term memory to the conscious level in SHORT -term memory.

123
Q

Which part of the brain becomes activated during encoding?

A

The LEFT hemisphere

124
Q

Which part of the brain becomes activated during retrieval?

A

The RIGHT hemisphere

125
Q

What is used to transfer information from working memory to long term memory?

A

Rehearsal

126
Q

Fill in the blanks “________ is active efforts to hold information in working memory”

A

Maintenance

127
Q

True or False? Elaboratives are efforts used to encode information in long term memory .

A

TRUE!!

128
Q

What is proactive interference?

A

Proactive interference causes people to
forget knowledge and ideas that have been
learned recently because of interference
from old memories.

129
Q

What is Retroactive interference?

A

Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information makes the mind forget previously learned
information.

130
Q

What is the function of the hipocampus?

A

It is important in encoding memories, memory consolidation and semantic memory.

131
Q

True or False? The hippocampus is important in Episodic memory.

A

FALSE!!

132
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Plays a role in Procedural memory, motor learning, skills and fine motor control

133
Q

Fill in the blank “ ______ helps to focus our attention on different stimuli at the same time and also assists in working memory.

A

Parietal lobe

134
Q

Which part of the brain helps in memory ( to identify an object that was once previously identified)?

A

Temporal lobe

135
Q

Which part of the brain focuses on our emotions?

A

Amygdala

136
Q

Fill in the blank “_______ is mostly used in Working memory.”

A

Frontal Lobe

137
Q

True or False? The Basal Ganglia is associated with Cognition, learning, motor control and activities also unconscious memory processes and implicit memory.

A

TRUE!!

138
Q

When does the hippocampus fully develop?

A

By the second year of birth

139
Q

Who discovered the g factor?

A

Charles Spearman

140
Q

Intelligence is a cluster of 7 primary mental
abilities was discovered by who?

A

Louis L.Thurstone

141
Q

Fill in the blanks” Howard Gardner discovered ________”

A

Multiple intelligences

142
Q

What are the 5 elements of Emotional Intelligence

A

Social Skills
Self- Awareness
Self-Regulation
Motivation
Empathy

143
Q

Who came up with the Triarchich Theory ?

A

Robert Sternberg

144
Q

What are Sternberg’s subtypes of Intelligence?

A

Componential(Analytic), Contextual( Practical)and Experiential (Creative)

145
Q

What is the general IQ?

A

100

146
Q

True or False? Individuals who are average will generally have an IQ of 100 because their mental age equals their chronological age.

A

TRUE!!

147
Q

What are factors influencing Intelligence?

A

The Child’s ( Nature)
- Genetics
-Genotype-Envrionment Interaction
- Gender

The Intermediate Environment’s Influence
- Family environment
-School Environment

The Society’s Influence
-Poverty
-Race/Ethnicity

148
Q

What is Motivation ?

A

Motivation describes the wants or needs that direct behaviour toward a goal.

149
Q

What are the different types of motives?

A

Biological motive- Innate (inborn) motives based on biological needs that must be met to survive e.g., hunger, thirst.
Stimulus Motive- Needs for stimulation and information; appear to be innate, but not necessary for survival, overcoming boredom
Learnt Motive - Based on learnt needs, drives, and goals e.g., blogging, facebook updates

150
Q

Who theorized that behaviour was driven by a number of
instincts, which aid survival?

A

William James (1842-1910)

151
Q

Who popularised the Drive Reduction Theory ?

A

Clark Hull

152
Q

What are the types of Extended Family?

A

Horizontally extended: two or more brothers live in the same household with their respective wives and children.

Vertically extended: a daughter who lives with her husband in the household or a daughter and a son with their respective families in the household.

153
Q

What are the different Host Factors?

A

Genetic and Prenatal factors
Age
Gender
Ethnic origin
Immunological state
Physiological state
Mental state
Concept of, and attitudes towards health

154
Q

True or False? The hypothalamus regulates may aspects of emotions and motivation including thirst , hunger,sexual behaviour

A

TRUE!!

155
Q

What is drive theory?

A

Drive theory of motivation implied that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs.

156
Q

What is Hull’s Drive Reduction Theory ?

A

Bodily needs (food, water) can create a state of tension called a drive. The motivated behaviour is the need to
reduce this unpleasant state and return to a place of homeostasis.

157
Q

Who discovered Instincts?

A

William James (1842-1910)

158
Q

What is the difference between Primary Drive and Secondary Drives?

A

Primary Drives: Unlearnt drives based on
physiological states. Found in all animals
including humans

Secondary Drives learnt drives such as
ambition not based on physiological states

” Primary = Physiological …. Secondary = not physiological”

159
Q

Fill in the blanks” ___________ states that arousal and performance are directly related”

A

Yerkes-Dodson law

160
Q

The general term for all types of plural marriages or unions; where a spouse has more than one partner is known as?

A

Polygamous

161
Q

Fill in the blanks “ _________ is known when a woman is married to two or more husbands at the same time”

A

Polyandry

162
Q

What is Endogamy?

A

This is marriage between people of the same social category. It limits prospects of marriage to people of the same age, race, religion or social class.

163
Q

True or False? Exogamy mandates marriage between people of different social categories.

A

TRUE!!

164
Q

What are the Stages in the Family Life Cycle ?

A
  1. Leaving Home
    2.Joining of Families via marriage
    3.Families with young children
    4.Families with Adoloscents
    5.Launching children and moving on
    6.Families in the later life
165
Q

In impact of illness on the family , illnesses cause a ripple effect on families, creating instability. All family members therefore have to play a part in stabilizing the family can be described as?

A

Role Dissonance

166
Q

What are companionate unions?

A

Companionate unions cohabitating for less than three years.

167
Q

Who believed that individuals move through a series of eight (8) psycho - social stages throughout the lifespan?

A

Erik Erikson

168
Q

What is Ego identity?

A

Ego identity is the conscious sense of self that is developed through social interaction

169
Q

What are Health risks for young adults?

A
  • Inactivity / obesity
  • Having unprotected sex
  • Tobacco use
  • Drug abuse
  • Alcohol use / abuse
  • Exposure to violence – one of the leading cause of death among
    young adults particularly males
  • Non use of seat belts
170
Q

In what model was health was seen as a state of normal function that could be disrupted from time to time by disease?

A

Biomedical model

171
Q

What is emotional growth?

A

Emotional growth, involving accepting one’s self, making room for others, and having a sense of purpose in life

172
Q

What is optimal social health?

A

Optimal social health includes knowing self; establishing, maintaining healthy boundaries and respecting the boundaries of others

173
Q

What is another name for Spiritual health?

A

Personal Health

174
Q

What are the five key areas to keep in balance in order to achieve optimal health?

A

Physical, emotional, social, intellectual and spiritual.

175
Q

What are the seven components of the Wellness wheel?

A

P- Physical Wellness
O- Occupational Wellness
I- Intellectual Wellness
S - Spiritual Wellness
S- Social Wellness
E- Environmental Wellness
E - Emotional Wellness

” wellness wheel is poissee”

176
Q

What are Health Determinants?

A

Host Factors
Environmental Factors
Lifestyle factors
Health service factors
Non-modifiable factors
Modifiable factors

177
Q

What is a reactive/ curative approach to Health?

A

Only worrying about your health when you’re sick.

178
Q

What is a proactive approach to health and wellness?

A

Adopting lifestyle habits that will promote good health.

179
Q

What factors are sense of Wellness influenced by?

A

Family
Culture
Media
Peers

180
Q

What are broad approaches to Health Enhancement

A

Treatment
Behavioural
Socio- Environmental

181
Q

What does the Treatment approach entail?

A
  1. Deals with the problems defined by diseases
    2.Concerned about disease process and physical factors
    3.Use medical interventions for solving problems
182
Q

What is the Socio-environmental approach?

A

Priority is given to conditions in which people have no control of.

183
Q

What determinants of Health is looked at in the Socio-Environmental Approach?

A

*Develop infrastructure
*Healthy public policies
*Inter-sectoral partnerships
*Equitable distribution of resources

184
Q

What is the main aim of the Healthy Public policy?

A

The main aim of healthy public policy is to create a supportive environment to enable people to lead healthy lives. Such a policy makes health choices possible or easier for citizens’.

185
Q

True or False? Public Healthy policies define a vision for the future.

A

TRUE!!!

186
Q

True or False? Public Healthy policies builds consensus and informs the people.

A

TRUE!!!

187
Q

What are examples of Public Healthy policy?

A

Immunization policy
Breastfeeding policy
Chronic Diseases Control Policy
Food Safety Policy
Anti Tobacco Legislation

188
Q

What is Combination in Health promotion?

A

The importance of matching determinants of health with multiple interventions

189
Q

What is Health Education?

A

A combination of learning experiences designed to achieve voluntary actions supportive of health

190
Q

What is Combination on Health Education?

A

The importance of using a variety of approaches & engaging the senses

191
Q

True or False? In voluntary actions , Change is more lasting when it is self imposed.

A

TRUE!!

192
Q

What is the Primary Approach in Health Education?

A
  • Effective communication to improve health literacy

*Foster motivation, skills & confidence to take action

*Mobilize & organize participation in activities that impact health outcomes

193
Q

Fill in the blanks. “People have the ability to make decisions about their health. They are more likely to do so if: _____”

A

~ They are informed
~ Made to feel confident (self efficacy)
~ They are allowed to feel responsible
~ They are not coerced

194
Q

True or False? Changes in social conditions without changes in attitudes & behaviour can lead to success.

A

FALSE!! Changes in social conditions without changes in attitudes & behaviour can lead to FAILURE.

195
Q

What is a disorder?

A

A disorder is a functional abnormality or disturbance.

196
Q

What is morbidity?

A

Morbidity refers to a diseased state, disability or poor health due to any cause.

197
Q

True or False? Pregnancy can be described as a medical condition.

A

TRUE!!

198
Q

What are risk factors for diseases?

A

Genetic and Physiological Factors
Age
Environment
Lifestyle

199
Q

Which risk factor of disease is a major physical risk factor?

A

Heredity, or genetic predisposition to specific illness.

200
Q

After what age, does the risk of birth defects and complications of pregnancy increase in women bearing children.

A

Age 35

201
Q

What factors are included in the disease -causation epidemiological triad?

A

Host (Man)
Agent (Specific causative factor)
Environment (facilitates the interaction of host and agent)

Sometimes a vector is involved

202
Q

How are diseases classified?

A
  • According to aetiology
  • According to duration of onset
    *Other classifications of diseases
203
Q

What are subdivisions of diseases classified according to aetiology?

A

M- Metabolic
A- Allergy
T-Traumatic
C-Congenital
H- Hereditary
D- Deficiency
D -Degenerative
I- Iatrogenic- Results from the treatment of a disease.
I - Idiopathic - Cause is unknown; Self-originated; of spontaneous origin.
N- Neoplasm

“In the show perfect match, the disease couples are “MATCHDDIIN” - matched in

204
Q

What are the subdivisions of diseases classified according to duration?

A

Acute & Chronic

205
Q

What are other classifications of diseases?

A

P- Pandemic
O- Occupational
O-Organic
F- Functional
V-Veneral - Usually acquired through sexual relation
E-Epidemic
E- Endemic
S- Sporadic

206
Q

What are the stages of Illness?

A

1.Symptom Experience
2.Assumption of sick role
3.Medical Care contact
4.Dependent Patient Role

207
Q

What are the effects of Illness?

A

Financial burden
Family and significant others
Life-style
Autonomy
Privacy

” FFLAP”

Health Care Concepts (10 decks)

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