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Special Operations Test Dcfd > Hazwoper Questions > Flashcards

Hazwoper Questions Flashcards

1
Q

• When can a Hazardous material become a waste?

A

When there is no use for it

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2
Q

• A substance that destroys metals, plastics, other materials, and human tissue as a result of direct physical contact is categorized as ______.

A

Corrosive

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3
Q

• ______ describes the ability of a substance to cause harm or death when ingested or absorbed.

A

Toxicity

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4
Q

• A persistent waste fails to _______.

A

Biodegrade or break down in the environment

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5
Q

• Hazardous Materials “events” differ from other types of emergency events because ______.

A

Of the Dangerous nature of the materials involved

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6
Q

• Aqueous substances with a pH greater than or equal to 12.5 (extremely _____) or less than or equal to 2.0 (extremely _____) are defined as corrosive waste.

A

Alkaline, Acidic

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7
Q

• The Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard (29 CFR 1910.120) is regulated by which of the following Agencies?

A

The Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA)

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8
Q

Which if the following acts gives the EPA the authority to regulate hazardous wastes from cradle-to-grave?

A

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976

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9
Q

• An ignitable waste can be liquid , non-liquid, compressed gas, or and oxidizer. Oxidizers are a substance that _____.

A

Readily yield oxygen to simulate the combustion of organic matter

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10
Q

• The Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (HMTA) is enforced by which of the following Agencies?

A

The Department of Transportation (DOT)

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11
Q

• Wastes are considered_____ if they are unstable under “normal” conditions.

A

Reactive

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12
Q

• Ignitable wastes are considered to be flammable, spontaneously combustible, or have a flashpoint ______.

A

Less that 140F (60C)

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13
Q

• Which of the following statements regarding hazardous wastes is true?

A

Hazardous waste require a hazardous waste manifest for tracking purpose

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14
Q

• When responding to hazardous materials “events” it is important to consider the chemicals and the quantities involved, the types of hazards present, the response efforts required, the number of responders needed, and _____.

A

Whether immediate control measures or long-term remedial actions needed to be taken

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15
Q

• What type of information would be most important to include in an environmental impact statement?

A

The pros and cons of a proposed government action as it relates to the impact it will have on the environment.

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16
Q

• A waste is considered bioaccumulative if it______.

A

Builds up in living things

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17
Q

• The lowest temperature required for a material to ignite is called the ______.

A

Flashpoint

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18
Q

• Which of the following is the proper definition of a hazardous material as defined by the EPA?

A

A substance that harms humans, animals, and/or environment

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19
Q

• Which of the following act is a nicknamed the Superfund Law and creates response plans for the release and threatened release of hazardous substance, including short-term removals, and long-term remedial response actions?

A

The comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) of 1980

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20
Q

• It is important to know what hazardous materials and wastes are used in your facility because it will help you_____.

A

Prevent and prepare for hazardous incidents

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21
Q

• Batteries, mercury-containing equipment, and lamps, are all examples of which type of hazardous waste?

A

Universal wastes

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22
Q

• A waste that contains both radioactive and hazardous waste components is categorized as a ________.

A

Mixed waste

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23
Q

• Solvents such as alcohols, acetones, methyl ethyl ketone, and petroleum based solvents are all examples of _______.

A

Ignitable waste

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24
Q

• Which of the following substances would be considered a corrosive waste?

A

Potassium hydroxide with a ph of 13

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25
Q

• The toxic pesticides DDT, chlordane, and malathion are all neurotoxins which means that they _____.

A

Damage the nervous system

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26
Q

• Which of the following correctly illustrates and examples of reactivity?

A

Calcium oxide combines with water to produce heat

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27
Q

• Common use and misuse of hazardous materials and waste can result in _________.

A

Events such as emergencies and incidents

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28
Q

• The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was established to_____?

A

Preserve the environment and keep the earth clean and healthy for the benefit of all living things

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29
Q

• Ignitability, corrosivity, reativity, toxicity are examples of which type of hazardous waste?

A

Characteristic waste

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30
Q

• Companies should maintain an updated ______ and conduct a hazard risk evaluation to protect employees from harm caused by hazardous materials in their facility.

A

Chemical inventory

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31
Q

• Hazardous waste as defined as substances that because of their quantity, concentration, physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics possess a substantial hazard to human health,_________, and the environment.

A

Wildlife

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32
Q

• In addition to providing information regarding the physical and health hazards associated with specific hazardous chemicals, Safety Data Sheets include which of the following items?

A

Safety precautions to take during an emergency

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33
Q

• OSHA now requires that Safety Data Sheets follow a ________ format, that is utilized by both the ANSI standard and the GHS

A

16-section

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34
Q

• The Department of Transportation regulates_______.

A

Hazardous materials in commercial transport

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35
Q

• The Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS) for labeling hazardous substances is typically used for which of the following types of containers?

A

Secondary/workplace containers

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36
Q

• According to the NFPA 704 system for labeling hazardous chemicals, the white quadrant represents the chemical’s________.

A

Special information

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37
Q

• OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) regulates which of the following regarding hazardous chemicals

A

OSHA’s HCS regulates how hazardous chemicals are communicated to employees in the workplace

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38
Q

• A hazardous Chemical is classified as pyrophoric.

A

REVIEW PICTOGRAMS

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39
Q

• Which of the following labeling systems was specifically developed to communicate the risk of hazardous chemicals to emergency response personnel, and is often referred to as the “Fire diamond”

A

NFPA 704

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40
Q

• The initial response phase in a hazardous materials incident is considered to be ________.

A

The first 30 minutes following the incident

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41
Q

• If it is required that a Hazardous material container has both DOT markings and an HCS label, the two sets of markings_______.

A

Can either be combined or presented separately

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42
Q

• The__________ is a useful source for becoming more familiar with the hazardous materials most commonly shipped in the US.

A

Hazardous Materials Table

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43
Q

• Primary container labels of hazardous chemicals must contain one of two signal words. What are these signal words?

A

Danger; Warning

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44
Q

• Which of the following statements is true regarding Safety Data Sheet?

A

SDSs must be written in English, but can be translated into additional languages, if needed.

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45
Q

• According to the NFPA 704 system for labeling hazardous chemicals, the red quadrant represents the chemical’s_____________.

A

Flammability

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46
Q

• According to the NFPA 704 system for labeling hazardous chemicals, the blue quadrant represents _________.

A

Health

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47
Q

• The North American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a resource for first responders who may be the first to arrive at a hazardous materials incident, particularly those that occur _______.

A

On the Highway or Railroad

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48
Q

• Within the blue, red, yellow, quadrants of the NFPA 704 fire diamond is a number (0-4) indicating the particular hazard’s severity. In this labeling system, which of the following indicates the most severe hazard risk?

A

4

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49
Q

• According to the NFPA 704 system for labeling hazardous chemicals, the white quadrant represents the chemical’s__________.

A

Special information

50
Q

• OSHA has adopted the GHS’s system for categorizing hazardous chemicals. According to this method, which of the following indicates the slightest hazard risk?

A

4

51
Q

• A workplace must have a Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical employees could potentially be exposed to in the work place. Safety Data Sheets should be kept_________.

A

In an easily accessible place to all employees, during all work shifts

52
Q

• Pesticide labels should include one of the three signal words: Danger, Warning, and ____________.

A

Caution

53
Q

• According to the NFPA 704 system for labeling hazardous chemicals, the yellow quadrant represents the chemical’s________.

A

Reactivity or Instability

54
Q

• Which of the following is a diamond-shaped sign at least 250 mm (9.84 inches) on all sides, displayed point on end, on a vehicle or container, typically during transport, to identify hazardous material contents?

A

A Placard

55
Q

• DOT hazardous chemical placards are designed according the chemical’s hazard class. This is demonstrated on the placard with the chemical’s class number, and the appropriate class pictogram. DOT placards also include the chemical’s 4-digit identification what will either appear in the center of the placard, or _______.

A

On an adjacent orange panel

56
Q

• Which of the following is a set of forms, reports, and procedures designed to seamlessly track hazardous waste from the time it leaves the generator facility where it is produced, until it reaches the off-site management facility that will store, treat, or dispose, of the hazardous waste?

A

Hazardous waste manifest

57
Q

• After being issued your tight-fitting, air purifying respirator (APR), you must get fit tested to ensure the respiratory equipment properly fits. In the course of your job duties, you are required to wear earmuffs and wear prescription eye glasses. During the fit test, you will be instructed to_______.

A

Wear your glasses and the earmuffs

58
Q

• Time weighted average (TWA) is determined by calculating the average concentration of a chemical workers are exposed to during a given period of time. A(n) _______ hour work day is usually used to calculated the TWA.

A

8

59
Q

• A person’s sensitivity to a chemical is often dependent on several factors including weight, race, lifestyle, diet, and __________.

A

Gender

60
Q

• Which of the following levels of protective equipment provides the highest level of skin, eye, and respiratory protection, should be worn when there is an immediate threat to life or health due to the presence, of hazardous materials, and consists of a fully encapsulating chemical protective suit?

A

Level A

61
Q

• When Chemicals react, there are four possibilities regarding how the chemicals will affect one another: additivity, potentiation, synergism, and antagomism. Which of the following is the most common type of drug interaction.

A

Additivity

62
Q

• You were just notified of a hazardous material release in your work area. The material is suspected to be a chemical asphyxiant, such as carbon monoxide, which displaces oxygen in the atmosphere. What signs and symptoms do asphyxiants normally cause?

A

Unconsciousness and / or death by asphyxiation

63
Q

• When the toxicity of one chemical is enhanced due to the presence of another, non-toxic chemical, this is called________?

A

Potentiation

64
Q

• In 1971, OSHA established legally enforceable standards regarding the level of a toxic chemical that individuals could be exposed to in the workplace. These limits are referred to as ___________.

A

Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs)

65
Q

• To preform a _________, cover the opening of the respirator’s canister, cartridges, or filters with the palm of your hand, and inhale gently so that the facepiece slightly collapses. To preform a ________, cover the exhalation valve of the respirator so no air can get through, and gently exhale into the facepiece.

A

Negative pressure check; positive pressure check

66
Q

• You are at the scene of a radiation exposure incident. It has been determined that no other hazards are present. Which level of PPE should you don?

A

Level C

67
Q

• You are exposed to an eye irritant in the workplace. As a result of the exposure you experience watering of the eyes, as well as burning and itching. However, shortly after you are removed from the hazardous area, your eyes return to normal. The symptoms you experienced were examples of what type of toxic effect?

A

Local

68
Q

• While at work, you notice a colleague wearing heavy PPE has fainted. His skin is dry, hoy, and mottled. You suspect he is suffering from which of the following conditions?

A

Heat Stroke

69
Q

• Which of the following is the study of poisons and their effects on living organism?

A

Toxicology

70
Q

• Exposure Limits are typically determined by calculating a chemical’s _________.

A

Time weighted Average

71
Q

• Which of the following levels of PPE should be worn when working in atmospheres with less then 19.5% oxygen and when there is an identified or suspected hazard requiring maximal respiratory protection, and a lower level skin hazard (this level of PPE does not protect from chemical vapors or gases)? It is the minimum level of protection recommended upon initial entry into a site until all hazards are identified.

A

Level B

72
Q

• PPE inhibits the wearer’s mobility, visibility, and _______.

A

Ability to communicate

73
Q

• You are preforming a fit test for a piece of respiratory protection you are required to wear on the job. This particular fit test relies on your sense of smell and taste to determine if a leak is present. The person conducting the test holds any one of four chemicals up to your facepiece and instructs you to breathe normally. You begin to get a very sweet taste in your mouth. What is the name of the fit test, and did you pass or fail?

A

Qualitative; Fail

74
Q

• A few weeks after a hazardous material release at work, you continue to experience nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and a loss of appetite. When you go to the doctor, they notice your eyes and skin are slightly yellowish in color, and your liver is enlarged. Your doctor informs you that you were most likely exposed to a ________ at work.

A

hepatoxin

75
Q

• Which of the following respirators provides the highest level of respiratory protection, with an APF 10,000, and is considered the minimum protection required when firefighters are responding to emergency Chemical spills?

A

SCBA

76
Q

• After employing all possible engineering and administrative controls in your work station, you are still unable to eliminate all physical and health hazards relating to the hazardous chemical in your area. What should you do to prevent exposure to the hazardous substances while on the job?

A

Always wear the appropriate PPE when in the hazardous area

77
Q

• Which of the following is the main route of entry for vapors, gases, and mists?

A

Inhalation

78
Q

• Which of the following statements regarding the effects of hazardous Materials exposure is correct.

A

A hazardous material can have both acute and chronic effects

79
Q

• Which of the following measures the actual amount of leakage of a substance into a respirator’s facepiece, by attaching the facepiece to a hose connected to a mechanical device?

A

Quantitative Fit test

80
Q

• _____________ protective equipment should only be worn when an atmosphere contains no known hazards, and there is a very low potential for unknown respiratory and skin hazard exposure. This level of PPE typically consists of a work uniform, coveralls, safety shoes or boots, or other situational protective clothing such as gloves.

A

Level D

81
Q

• The _________ of a chemical will dictate its route of entry, and what protective precautions you should take to prevent exposure.

A

Form

82
Q

• Which of the following is an atmosphere-supply respirator?

A

Airline Respirator

83
Q

• Once a chemical is absorbed into the body, it can be processed three different ways:

A

Excreted, metabolized, or stored

84
Q

• Which of the following makes heat stress a particularly dangerous condition for individuals working with hazardous materials?

A

PPE is heavy, hot, and constricting

85
Q

• You are required to enter into a confined area where potential hazards have not been fully characterized. Which level of PPE should you don while preforming this activity?

A

Level A

86
Q

• You are unsure of the proper storage, handling, and emergency response procedures for the chemical hydrogen sulfide. What resource should you turn to in order to acquire this kind of information regarding this hazardous chemical?

A

The north American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) and the chemical’s SDS

87
Q

• Signs and symptoms of _________ exposure are typically immediately apparent after a high level of exposure over a short period of time, whereas _________ exposures usually develop after repeated exposure over an extended period of time.

A

Acute; Chronic

88
Q

• Which of the following pieces of respiratory protective equipemt is an air purifying respirator?

A

Full-facepiece elastomeric respirator

89
Q

• The effects of chemical exposure, including information regarding the route and dosage, can be found in ___________’s Registry of Toic Effects of Chemical Substances.

A

NIOSH

90
Q

• A combination of several measures, such as employee awareness training; proper materials handling and storage; practicing emergency response procedures; and __________ will helps reduce the occurrence of hazardous materials release.

A

Emphasizing pollution prevention

91
Q

• In order to streamline communication across agencies, the incident command system recommends the use of ____________ in all communication changes.

A

Clear Text

92
Q

• Which of the following would be considered a hazardous materials release?

A

A toxic chemical leaking into a local river and entering the drinking water supply

93
Q

• Medical waste, aerosol cans, used oil filters, and _________ are all materials that shouldn’t be disposed of in traditional trash receptacles

A

Mercury containing items

94
Q

• In the event of a hazardous materials release, the first responder at the awareness level should remember the acronym S.I.N., which stands for ___________.

A

Safety, isolation, and notification

95
Q

• Which of the following is an accurate description of a unified command system?

A

Overall management of an incident is a shared responsibility between all parties/agencies involved

96
Q

• You are a first responder at the awareness level who discovers a hazardous material release in your work area that is too large and hazardous for you and your coworkers to manage. After notifying the proper authorities, you initiate evacuation, isolate the scene, deny access to the hazardous area. This area, immediately surrounding the hazardous materials release, will mostly likely be designated the ________ zone upon hazmat arrival.

A

Hot

97
Q

• _______________ decontamination is the process of cleaning responding personnel of contaminants as they can remove their protective equipment.

A

Technical

98
Q

• You are at the scene of a large-scale hazardous materials incident when you see a member of the response team equipment personnel with communication devices, medical equipment, and ensure proper lighting is available. This person is most likely part of which of the following ICS sections?

A

Logistics

99
Q

• A train containing the high toxic chemical, chlorine, derails in a heavily populated area, releasing a large amount of chemical into the atmosphere. What incident level would this hazardous materials release mostly likely be considered?

A

Level III

100
Q

• What type of incident command system has one person in charge of an incident, even if multiple agencies respond?

A

Single command system

101
Q

• The role of the “specialist” at a hazardous materials emergency incident is to ________.

A

Provide support to the technician and other responders (potentially in the hot zone), and identify unknown substances

102
Q

• Which of the following statements regarding decontamination is true?

A

Members of the decontamination team wearing PPE must ne decontamination before leaving the decon area.

103
Q

• When handling empty containers, it is important to remember to __________.

A

Make sure the container is actually empty, and that any remaining material is treated as waste.

104
Q

• Decontamination can be carried out by physically removing the contaminates through __________; by inactivating the contaminants through chemical detoxification or disinfection/sterilization __________; or by a combination of physical and chemical removal.

A

Absorption; emulsification

105
Q

• Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials release is true?

A

The size of the spill, the hazardous nature of the chemicals involved, and the location of the spill will determine who should handle the incident

106
Q

• ___________ decontamination consists of decontaminating a large number of civilians, typically with soup and water?

A

Mass

107
Q

• ____________ incidents may pose a threat to life, the environment, or property. Furthermore, additional resources and formal response personnel may be required to manage the incident.

A

Level II

108
Q

• Which of the following types of emergency responders are trained in a defensive fashion to protect nearby, persons, the environment, and property, and are not intended to take action to actually stop the release?

A

First responders at the operations level

109
Q

• Which of the following should be your primary concern in the event of a hazardous materials release?

A

Personal safety

110
Q

• Your employer should have a written safety and health program designed to ________.

A

Identify, evaluate, and control safety and health hazards

111
Q

• You are transferring a hazardous chemical from one container to another after you discover a crack in the chemical’s primary container. What is one thing you must do to the new container?

A

Appropriately label the new container

112
Q

• While at work, you discover a drum is leaking. The label is faded and torn, and you are unable to identity the substance. How should you proceed when handling this substance?

A

You should treat the substance as a hazardous until it is properly identified.

113
Q

• Which of the following best describes the person responsible for taking offensive action to control and stop the release of a hazardous material, while wearing specialized chemical PPE

A

Technician

114
Q

• __________ incidents pose little to no immediate threat to the life, the environment, or property, and can typically be handled by first responders.

A

Level I

115
Q

• The __________ was developed as a way to effectively manage large-scale incidents, by establishing a unified command structure, manageable span of control, modular organization, and integrated communication.

A

Incident Command System

116
Q

• The most desirable supervisor to worker span of control ratio in the incident command system is one supervisor for every ________ workers.

A

3-7

117
Q

• The __________ assumes control of a hazardous materials incident, establishes strategic objectives, develops a plan to manage the situation, preforms pre-entry briefings, monitors progress throughout the incident, and is ultimate authority in the incident command system.

A

Incident Commander

118
Q

• You are a first responder at the awareness level who has been evacuated from your building after a hazardous materials release in your work area. Unfortunately, at the time of the release, you were not donning any personal protective equipment, and the hazardous substance splashed onto your clothes and potentially your skin. After exiting the hot zone, you will most likely be ushered to which of the following types of decontamination zones?

A

Emergency

119
Q

• Upon discovering a hazardous materials release, it is your duty as an awareness level first responder, to _________.

A

Notify the proper authorities.

120
Q

• In the incident command system, the general staff is broken up into four sections that directly report to the incident commander. These four sections are:

A

Finance, Logistics, operations, and planning

Special Operations Test Dcfd (13 decks)

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