Hand Tendons and Tendon Transfer 01-22, 24 Flashcards
A 25-year-old woman presents with Volkmann contracture. Examination shows the patient has supple fingers but no active flexion of the wrist or digits. MRI shows fibrosis of the volar forearm compartment. Electromyography shows no motor action potentials in the forearm flexor musculature. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient to restore extrinsic finger flexion?
A) Flexor digitorum superficialis to flexor digitorum profundus tendon transfer
B) Flexor pronator slide
C) Free gracilis functioning muscle transfer
D) Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon transfer
E) Z-lengthening of the flexor tendons in the forearm
The correct response is Option C.
This patient has developed Volkmann ischemic contracture, and there has been muscle fibrosis resulting from ischemia of the volar compartment. At this point, there is no functioning flexor muscle. The most appropriate management is thorough debridement of the volar forearm muscles and free functioning muscle transfer to restore extrinsic finger flexion.
Flexor digitorum superficialis to flexor digitorum profundus tendon transfer is a useful treatment to open a nonfunctional hand due to severe spasticity. Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon transfer is a tendon transfer used to restore wrist extension, not flexion. Flexor pronator slide or lengthening of the flexor tendons is only indicated when there is a contracture but still some functioning muscle. Z-lengthening of the flexor tendons also relies on a mild to moderate contracture and the presence of functioning flexor muscle.
A 35-year-old man presents with a laceration to the dorsum of his nondominant hand sustained with a kitchen knife. Examination shows a laceration to the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the long finger. There is no obvious joint involvement, but the patient has an extensor lag of 30 degrees at the MCP joint. Surgical repair of the Zone 5 extensor digitorum communis tendon is performed. Postoperatively, which of the following treatment plans is most likely to provide this patient with the most motion and best outcome?
A) 1 week of immobilization followed by relative motion splint and short arc motion
B) 2 weeks of immobilization followed by dynamic extension splint
C) 3 weeks of immobilization followed by full motion
D) 4 weeks of immobilization followed by protected motion
E) No postoperative orthosis and released to full motion immediately
The correct response is Option A.
Traditionally, extensor tendon injuries were treated with 4 to 6 weeks of immobilization that would subsequently lead to decreased flexion and stiffness. More recently, short arc motion protocols with relative motion splints have been utilized and demonstrate improved outcomes. To do this, a thermoplastic yoke splint is constructed by placing the digits of the repaired extensor tendon in approximately 15 to 20 degrees more metacarpophalangeal extension than the adjacent digits for 6 weeks while allowing full interphalangeal joint motion. The wrist is typically placed into an extension splint for 3 weeks at approximately 20 degrees extension to decrease tension on the repair site. Dynamic splinting following extensor tendon repair still limits gliding of the tendon by keeping the digit in a relative static position.
A 67-year-old woman underwent cast immobilization for treatment of a minimally displaced left distal radius fracture 5 weeks ago. Two weeks after cast removal, she is unable to extend her thumb. On examination, she is unable to perform retropulsion of the thumb with her palm placed flat on the examination table. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Electrodiagnostic studies
B) Immobilization
C) Primary tendon repair
D) Tendon transfer
E) X-ray study
The correct response is Option D.
This patient is presenting with a rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, which occurs in as much as 5% of patients with mildly displaced distal radius fractures about 7 weeks after the initial injury. This is thought to be due to attritional rupture secondary to decreased vascularity. The treatment for this problem is a tendon transfer of the extensor indicis proprius to the EPL. Although some surgeons use a tendon graft, a primary repair is not feasible due to fraying of the EPL. Occupational therapy, immobilization, and further diagnostic studies (including electrodiagnostics and x-ray study) are not appropriate.
A 23-year-old man sustains a stab injury to the volar wrist in the region of the carpal tunnel. Examination shows absence of flexion function at the proximal interphalangeal joint of the index finger when the remaining fingers are held in extension. He retains flexor function of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. A diagram of the carpal tunnel contents is shown. Which of the following is the most likely location of the injured tendon?

The correct response is Option C.
Finger flexion results from the actions of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons. The FDS tendon inserts into the middle phalanx and provides for flexion at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The FDP tendon inserts into the distal phalanx and is the only tendon that provides flexion at the DIP joints. Because it also crosses the PIP joint, the pull of the FDP tendon can result in flexion at the PIP joint as well. To independently examine the flexor tendons, the FDP tendon can be neutralized by holding the remaining fingers in extension. Due to a common muscle belly, the FDP will not act upon the finger, allowing inspection of the FDS tendon function by evaluating PIP joint flexion in this situation.
The patient has sustained a flexor tendon laceration in the region of the carpal tunnel. On physical examination, there is absence of flexion function at the index finger of the PIP joint when the remaining fingers are held in extension, indicating laceration to the flexor digitorum superficialis of the index finger.
At the level of the carpal tunnel, the flexor tendons travel through a fibro-osseous canal, which contains nine flexor tendons along with the median nerve. The FDS tendons of the middle and ring fingers are most superficial, with the FDS tendons of the index and small fingers deep to them. The FDP tendons lie parallel to each other at the deepest aspects of the carpal tunnel along the bone. The flexor pollicis longus is the most radial structure within the carpal tunnel. The cross-sectional anatomy of the wrist at the level of the carpal tunnel is diagrammed, along with the corresponding tendon locations in the two images shown:
A – FDS middle
B – FDS ring
C – FDS index
D – FDS small
E – FDP index
F – FDP middle

A 25-year-old woman presents with a Zone II laceration of the left index finger flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP). Repair of the FDP and only one slip of FDS is planned. Compared with repairing both slips of FDS, repair of only one slip of the FDS will result in a decrease of which of the following?
A) Range of motion
B) Rate of tendon healing
C) Resistance
D) Risk for infection
E) Strength of FDP repair
The correct response is Option C.
There is a close proximity of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons in Zone II lacerations. Due to this, adhesion formation is common after injury. Repairing only one slip of the FDS tendon allows for more room within Camper chiasm during motion, which has been found to decrease resistance and improve glide during motion. It has also not been found to limit active range of motion when compared with repairing both FDP and FDS in Zone II. Due to the improvement in glide and decreased resistance, fewer adhesions occur. This also decreases the work of flexion as well. Due to increased adhesion formation with repair of both FDP and FDS in Zone II, there is an increased rate of secondary surgeries for tenolysis. There is no change in the risk for infection or change in the rate of tendon healing with this type of repair compared with repairing both slips of FDS.
Which of the following best describes the origin and insertion of the lumbrical muscles?

The correct response is Option A.
The lumbrical muscles are intrinsic muscles of the hand. They arise from the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and insert into the radial lateral band of the extensor mechanism. Their origin and insertion both attach to muscle/tendon rather than bone, which makes them unique compared with other muscles, which typically originate from and insert into bone.
No muscles arise from the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon. The interosseous muscles originate from the metacarpal shafts and insert into the proximal phalanges.
A 26-year-old man presents with silicone rods in the flexor tendon sheaths of middle and ring fingers. Medical history includes saw injury resulting in flexor tendon debridement. Second stage flexor tendon reconstruction using an expendable donor tendon graft from the lower leg is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the location for this tendon at the ankle?
A) Anterior to the lateral malleolus
B) Anterior to the medial malleolus
C) In the anterior compartment
D) In the lateral compartment
E) Lateral to the Achilles tendon
F) Medial to the Achilles tendon
The correct response is Option F.
The most appropriate description of the location of the tendon at the ankle is medial to the Achilles tendon.
The plantaris tendon can present an expendable donor tendon from the lower leg for tendon grafting. The plantaris is a small, thin rudimentary muscle with a long tendon. It acts in plantar flexion at the ankle and flexion at the knee, and harvesting does not leave any donor site deficits.
The plantaris originates in the popliteal fossa and travels along the posterior aspect of the calf between the soleus and gastrocnemius muscles to insert in the medial calcaneus. Although there may be some variability in the nature of its insertion, typically the plantaris tendon joins with the Achilles tendon and is found just medial to the Achilles tendon at the ankle in the superficial posterior compartment.
It is present in about 90% of people and is found at a higher incidence than the palmaris longus tendon. The plantaris can provide up to double the length of tendon graft compared with the palmaris longus, and it would be a good choice for reconstructing multiple tendon defects where greater length is needed.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a laceration of the left middle finger from a kitchen knife. Wound exploration in the emergency department prior to closure demonstrates partial flexor tendon laceration. Which of the following is an absolute indication for operative exploration?
A) Digital artery injury
B) Injury to the A4 pulley
C) 20% Laceration of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon
D) 40% Laceration of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon
E) Triggering
The correct response is Option E.
In one large meta-analysis, tendon lacerations up to 90% were managed with early protected range of motion. The only absolute indication for surgery from the list is triggering. There is no evidence that repairing the sheath or pulley without bowstringing is necessary. Isolated A4 laceration would not result in bowstringing. Single digital artery injury in the setting of a perfused digit does not necessitate repair.
A 26-year-old man undergoes acute flexor pollicis longus laceration repair at the interphalangeal (IP) joint level. The proximal stump cannot be retrieved through the laceration. An incision at the distal forearm is performed. After identifying the flexor pollicis longus at this level, an attempt to retrieve the proximal stump is initially prevented by an attachment of the flexor pollicis longus to an adjacent tendon. Which of the following tendons is most likely involved in this anomalous connection?
A) Abductor pollicis longus
B) Brachioradialis
C) Flexor carpi radialis
D) Flexor digitorum profundus index
E) Flexor digitorum superficialis index
The correct response is Option D.
An anomalous connection between flexor pollicis longus (FPL) and the profundus tendon to the index finger (flexor digitorum profundus-II) was initially described by Linburg and Comstock in 1979. In their initial report, the Linburg-Comstock anomaly was detected on physical examination in one extremity in 31% of patients and in both extremities in 14%. Dissection of 43 cadavers demonstrated the anomaly in at least one extremity of 25% and in both extremities of 6%. This anomalous tendon connection has been described as a source of tenosynovitis, which is alleviated with surgical division of the connection. The connection typically occurs at the level of the distal forearm, proximal to the carpal tunnel. This connection has been blamed for failure of FPL repair due to transmission of inadvertent tension to the repair site.
A 24-year-old man presents with a Leddy and Packer type III avulsion injury to the ring finger flexor digitorum profundus tendon sustained while trying to make a tackle during a pick-up football game. At which of the following levels will the tendon most likely be found during surgical exploration?
A) A4 pulley
B) Carpal tunnel
C) Lumbrical origin
D) Metacarpal head
E) Proximal interphalangeal joint
The correct response is Option A.
Avulsion injury of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon represents a flexor tendon injury within zone 1 of the flexor tendon sheath. The anatomy of the pulley and vincular systems affects both the level of FDP tendon retraction and the ultimate prognosis. FDP avulsion injuries were classified into three types by Leddy and Packer in 1977. A type I injury describes tendon retraction into the palm, with the tendon tethered by the lumbrical origin. With this injury, both the vinculum profundus longus (VLP) and brevis (VBP) are ruptured. As a result, there is a substantial loss of both the intrinsic (periosteal) and extrinsic (vincular) vascular supply to the tendon. In type II injuries, the FDP tendon retracts to the level of the proximal interphalangeal joint. In this scenario, the VBP is disrupted, but the VLP remains preserved as it arises at the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) volar plate. In type III injuries, retraction to the level of the A4 pulley of the middle phalanx is seen; these injuries are usually defined by an associated large bony fragment incarcerated within the A4 pulley. In direct contrast with type I injuries, both vincula are usually intact in type III injuries because the VBP originates at the distal portion of the middle phalanx. The Leddy and Packer classification has been expanded to include and better classify distinct injury patterns. Type IV injuries are rare and unique in that they include a large avulsion fragment incarcerated at the A4 pulley, along with rupture of the FDP tendon insertion off this osseous fragment, with secondary tendon retraction into the finger or palm. Type V injuries are complex and defined by the presence of concomitant osseous distal phalanx avulsion and distal phalanx fracture.
A 45-year-old, left-hand–dominant man presents to the emergency department with right thumb pain after a fall while hiking. X-ray studies are shown. Physical examination shows the thumb is swollen, bruised, and tender to palpation. The metacarpophalangeal joint demonstrates laxity of 40 degrees with a firm endpoint on valgus testing. To determine if nonoperative management is an option, which of the following additional tests should be ordered?
A) Arthrography
B) CT scan
C) Electrodiagnostic studies
D) Triple-phase bone scan
E) Ultrasonography
The correct response is Option E.
An ultrasound will be the most effective way to diagnose a Stener lesion, which would necessitate surgical intervention for this patient. Stener lesions are a unique type of ulnar collateral ligament injury in which the dorsal adductor aponeurosis becomes interposed between the ruptured distal end of the ligament and its insertion at the proximal phalanx. This prevents healing of the ligament, and thus these injuries cannot be treated closed. Ulnar collateral ligament injuries that demonstrate no endpoint on valgus stress testing generally require operative management. Those that demonstrate some laxity with a firm endpoint can be treated with cast immobilization as long as there is no Stener lesion. Stress view x-ray study will show full versus partial disruption of the ligament but will not identify the presence or absence of a Stener lesion. Some consider MRI to be the most sensitive modality for detection of these lesions; however, criticisms of MRI include its cost and delay in availability. Arthrography can be used to identify capsular injury but cannot detect the collateral ligament displacement with high accuracy. CT scan will not be able to resolve the ligament position clearly. Ultrasonography is cost-effective, dynamic, and easy to obtain. Ultrasonography has been shown to have a positive predictive value of 87 to 100% when used to identify Stener lesions. On the imaging examination, an uninjured collateral ligament will appear as a hypoechoic arc. In a Stener lesion, the arc will be disrupted with displacement or a large gap between the two ends, as seen in the image.

Under normal conditions, the intrinsic muscles of the hand move the metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and distal interphalangeal joints in which of the following ways?

The correct response is Option D.
The intrinsic muscles are those with an origin and insertion within the hand and include the muscles of the thenar and hypothenar compartments, interossei, and lumbricals. They account for approximately 53% of grip strength and 85% of pinch strength. In general, the intrinsic muscles produce metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and interphalangeal joint extension, which occurs because the tendons of lumbrical and interosseous muscles are volar to the metacarpophalangeal axis of rotation but dorsal to the interphalangeal axis of rotation. The exception is when the metacarpophalangeal joint is hyperextended when the dorsal interosseous tendon is capable of producing extension. Tightness of these intrinsic muscles can be evaluated by the Bunnell-Littler test, whereby the force required to passively flex the proximal interphalangeal joint increases with extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
A 23-year-old man presents with a deep volar distal forearm laceration after striking a window. He is taken emergently to the operating room for repair of multiple flexor tendon, nerve, and arterial transections. Which of the following best describes the anatomical relationship of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendons so that the proximal and distal stumps can be correctly matched and repaired?
A) Index and middle superficialis tendons are volar to the ring and small superficialis tendons
B) Index and small superficialis tendons are volar to the middle and ring superficialis tendons
C) Index, middle, ring, and small superficialis tendons are arranged side-by-side
D) Middle and ring superficialis tendons are volar to the index and small superficialis tendons
E) Ring and small superficialis tendons are volar to the index and middle superficialis tendons
The correct response is Option D.
The superficial location of numerous, tightly packed vital structures at the volar aspect of the wrist/distal forearm makes them susceptible to injury with penetrating trauma. The patient presents with a “spaghetti wrist,” a term used to describe these devastating injuries that may result in transection of multiple flexor tendons and neurovascular structures.
A thorough knowledge of the anatomy in this region is required in order to appropriately align and repair all transected critical structures. In particular, the flexor digitorum superficialis tendons are arranged such that the middle and ring superficialis tendons are superficial to the index and small finger superficialis tendons. Of note, the flexor digitorum profundus tendons are arranged in a side-by-side fashion deep to the superficialis tendons. The median nerve is located between the superficialis and profundus musculotendinous units at this level.
The other options do not describe the correct arrangement of the superficialis tendons at the distal forearm/wrist level.
Surgical reconstruction of the oblique retinacular ligament is primarily used to treat which of the following?
A) Boutonnière deformity
B) Flexor digitorum profundus tendon avulsion
C) Sagittal band rupture
D) Scapholunate ligament injury
E) Swan-neck deformity
The correct response is Option E.
Spiral oblique retinacular ligament (SORL) reconstruction is used to address digital swan-neck deformity. The procedure is predicated on surgically recreating the proposed function of the oblique retinacular ligament (ORL); linking proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint flexion and extension. The ORL arises from the flexor tendon sheath at the base of the proximal phalanx, extends distally and dorsally over the PIP joint, and fuses with the lateral extensor tendon. Because of the site of the ORL origin and insertion, PIP joint extension places the ORL under tension, which results in DIP joint extension. PIP joint flexion, however, decreases tension in the ORL and allows DIP joint flexion. Although anatomical studies are conflicting regarding the actual presence and function of the ORL, surgically recreating this proposed function has been used to treat swan-neck and mallet deformities. Thompson, Littler, and Upton described the dynamic SORL reconstruction in 1978 as an alternative to static techniques, such as transferring a single lateral band volarly to prevent PIP joint hyperextension. In a SORL reconstruction, a free tendon graft is fixated to the dorsal distal phalanx, passed over the radial aspect of the middle phalanx, and then “spiralled” palmarly across the PIP joint, where it is then secured to the ulnar aspect of the proximal phalanx.
A flexor digitorum profundus avulsion (i.e. Jersey finger) is typically managed by reinserting the tendon into the volar base of the distal phalanx. If delayed greater than 8 to12 weeks, interposition tendon reconstruction may be necessary. A boutonniere deformity generally occurs as a result of a central slip injury; this leads to a flexed posture of the PIP joint and an eventual hyperextended posture of the DIP joint as the lateral bands translate volarly. If closed, splinting is indicated. If the central slip was lacerated, an open repair is recommended. A sagittal band tear may cause pain and subluxation of the extensor mechanism at the MCP joint and can be treated with splinting or repair. A scapholunate ligament tear can be directly repaired if acute, or reconstructed using a variety of techniques in the absence of scapholunate advanced collapse and arthritis of the wrist. If arthritis has developed, then partial or total wrist fusion may be indicated.
During flexor tendon repair, which of the following is the optimal distance from the cut end of the tendon for placement of core sutures?
A) 1 to 2 mm
B) 3 to 4 mm
C) 7 to 10 mm
D) Greater than 15 mm
The correct response is Option C.
The fundamentals of flexor tendon repair are based on primary tendon repair principles, which include easy placement of sutures in the tendon, secure suture knots, smooth juncture of the tendon ends, minimal gapping at the repair site, minimal interference with tendon vascularity, and sufficient strength throughout healing to permit application of early motion stress to the tendon.
These fundamentals are best achieved by incorporating a few basic principles. Handling of the tendon should be minimized to decrease the occurrence of adhesion formation. The strength of the repair is proportional to the number of core sutures and the caliber of the sutures that cross the repair site. The core sutures should be placed 7 to 10 mm from the tendon edge; dorsal placement is biomechanically advantageous.
The distance of the tendon-suture junctions relative to the level of the tendon cut affects the strength of repairs of cut tendons. Strength of repair decreases significantly with purchase distance of less than 4 mm. No increase in strength is seen with purchase distances of greater than 7 mm, and attempts to increase the purchase distance more significantly (greater than 15 mm) will potentially require unnecessary pulley disruption to achieve and will predispose to bunching at the repair site.
A 44-year-old woman sustained a second-degree burn to the volar surface of the wrist and palm. She is sent to occupational therapy for fabrication of a splint, placing the wrist and fingers in an intrinsic plus position. Which of the following best describes the position of the wrist and fingers in this splint?

The correct response is Option C.
The position of safe immobilization (POSI), also called the intrinsic plus position, was described initially by J.I.P. James (British orthopedic surgeon) and is recognized as the correct position in which to immobilize the hand safely following injury or surgery. The wrist is placed in 0 to 30 degrees of extension, metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints in 70 to 90 degrees of flexion and interphalangeal (IP) joints in full extension. This position creates pretension on the collateral ligaments of the wrist and the MCP and IP joints of the hand, thereby decreasing the risk of stiffness and contracture.
A right-hand–dominant, 72-year-old man presents with clicking, locking, and pain deep to the distal palmar crease of the right ring finger. Four weeks prior he had a 40 mg triamcinolone injection with incomplete resolution of his symptoms. How long should he wait after the corticosteroid injection before performing an A1 pulley release in order to mitigate the increased risk of surgical site occurrence?
A) 1 week from injection
B) 4 weeks from injection
C) 8 weeks from injection
D) 12 weeks from injection
E) There is no increased risk of surgical site occurrence
The correct response is Option D.
The risk of surgical site occurrence is mitigated at approximately 80 days (~12 weeks) from corticosteroid injection. In a retrospective review of 999 patients who underwent corticosteroid injection for trigger digit and subsequently underwent surgery, they carefully scrutinized rates of surgical site occurrence. Charts were queried for infection/occurrence by identifying “infection,” “suture abscess,” “worrisome for infection,”, or “return to the operating room for infection.” Those who did not develop an infection had a significantly longer time between corticosteroid injection and surgery (mean 260 days vs mean 79 days, p less than 0.05). There were no differences in infection rates between those who underwent one or multiple corticosteroid injections prior to surgery (Ng et al.).1
In male patients with a single involved digit, the average success rate for corticosteroid injection alone is low (35%). One may suggest that surgery is indicated in this patient population prior to attempting corticosteroid injection. When evaluating the treatment of trigger digit from a cost perspective, males with single digit involvement or multiple digit involvement and women with multiple digit involvement should forgo corticosteroid injection because of low success rates (35%, 37%, and 56%, respectively) (Brozovich et al. and Wojahn et al).2,3
The decision to treat trigger digit with corticosteroid injection versus surgery may also be a personal decision by the patient after informed discussion with the surgeon. It is important to remember that corticosteroid injection preceding surgery may increase the risk for surgical site occurrences.
A 56-year-old man is evaluated because of high radial nerve palsy 12 months after sustaining a gunshot wound to the upper arm with complete radial nerve transection. To restore wrist and digit extension, tendon transfers are considered. Which of the following transfers is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Brachioradialis to extensor indicis proprius
B) Flexor carpi radialis to extensor digitorum communis
C) Palmaris longus to extensor pollicis brevis
D) Pronator quadratus to extensor carpi radialis brevis
The correct response is Option B.
Tendon transfers for complete high radial nerve injuries are often performed within weeks after injury and allow restoration of wrist and digital extensor stabilization. If present, the palmaris longus tendon is transferred to the extensor pollicis longus tendon to allow for thumb extension. The flexor carpi radialis is transferred to the extensor digitorum communis for finger extension. The pronator teres is transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis to add support for wrist extension.
The brachioradialis is not generally a good transfer in a high radial nerve palsy as it is typically weak. The extensor indicis proprius does not usually receive a tendon for transfer as the extensor digitorum communis will provide extension to all digits, including the index. The extensor pollicis brevis does not normally receive a tendon transfer since thumb MP joint extension (in addition to IP joint extension) is normally restored with transfer to the extensor pollicis longus tendon.
Pronator quadratus is not used for tendon transfers for wrist extension and cannot reach the extensor carpi radialis brevis.
A 53-year-old woman is evaluated for stiffness of the right index finger. On physical examination, the range of motion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is 0 to 45 degrees when the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is in extension (at 0 degrees). With the MCP joint in flexion (at 90 degrees), the PIP joint range of motion is 0 to 80 degrees. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for these findings?
A) Contracture of the PIP joint capsule
B) Extensor tendon shortening
C) Flexor tendon adhesions
D) Intrinsic tightness
E) Palmar fascia hypertrophy
The correct response is Option D.
The condition most likely to account for these examination findings is intrinsic tightness.
This patient exhibits exam signs consistent with stiffness as a result of intrinsic tightness. The Bunnell test for intrinsic tightness involves comparing flexion at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint with the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint extended, to flexion at the PIP joint with the MCP joint flexed. In cases of intrinsic tightness, PIP joint flexion will decrease when the MCP joint is extended, and there is increased flexion of the PIP joint when the MCP joint is flexed.
The intrinsic muscles are responsible for flexion at the MCP joints and extension at the PIP joints. When these are tight, PIP joint motion is decreased when the MCP joint is held in extension. There is increased PIP joint flexion possible when the MCP joint is placed in a flexed position because of the decreased tension on the intrinsic muscles that results with MCP flexion, allowing for improved PIP range of motion.
In cases of extensor tendon shortening or tightness (extrinsic extensor tendon contracture), the opposite effect is seen. MCP joint flexion will place additional tension on the extensor mechanism, tightening it and resulting in decreased flexor function at the PIP joint, when compared with an extended MCP joint.
Flexor tendon adhesions and contractures of the PIP joint capsule can result in stiffness but would give equal limitations to PIP flexion regardless of MCP joint position. Palmar fascia hypertrophy is seen in Dupuytren contracture. This contracture could potentially limit PIP extension, which might vary with MCP position, but would not limit flexion of the PIP joint as described in this item.
A 30-year-old man who works as an executive presents with a Zone II flexor tendon laceration. He undergoes immediate four-strand core suture flexor tendon repair and epitendinous suture. In the early postoperative period, which of the following approaches is recommended to optimize the outcome in this patient?

The correct response is Option B.
Advances in primary flexor tendon repair techniques and postoperative mobilization protocols have improved functional results for Zone II injuries. Repair strength has been shown to be related to the number of strands that cross the repair site. Other factors that contribute to repair strength include suture caliber, adequate core suture purchase (at least 0.7 to 1.0 cm), and the use of an epitendinous repair in addition to core suture placement. A forearm-based dorsal block splint is placed to protect flexor tendon repairs. Compared with passive mobilization protocols, early active mobilization protocols demonstrate better functional outcomes without a significantly increased rate of tendon rupture. A minimum of a four-strand core repair is necessary to tolerate an early active mobilization protocol. In this patient, a six-strand core repair with an epitendinous repair is appropriate for an active motion protocol. Although the flexor repair described in this scenario is strong enough to tolerate protected early active motion, complete absence of a protective splint with unrestricted use of the hand would be inappropriate and risks tendon rupture. The Kleinert splint is a dorsal extension block splint that allows active extension and utilizes rubber bands for passive flexion. This is not considered an early active flexion protocol. A relative motion extension splint with immediate controlled active motion is used following extensor tendon repairs/injuries. Cast immobilization following flexor repair would not be appropriate in this scenario if the goal is to maximize flexor function, but it may have a role in the postoperative management of flexor injuries in children or unreliable adults.
A 57-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department after sustaining a closed crush injury to the dorsum of the right hand. X-ray studies are negative for fracture or dislocation. Examination shows swelling and an inability to actively extend the middle finger at the metacarpophalangeal joint from a flexed position. However, when the finger is placed in extension by the examiner, the patient is able to maintain the finger in extension and resist force. Injury to which of the following structures is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A) Central extensor tendon
B) Juncturae tendinum
C) Lumbrical muscle
D) Oblique retinacular ligament
E) Sagittal band
The correct response is Option E.
Injury to the sagittal band is most likely to account for these findings.
The patient has sustained a closed injury to the dorsum of the hand, resulting in a sagittal band rupture. The sagittal bands are responsible for maintaining the position of the extensor tendon dorsally over the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. When this band is ruptured (commonly either via trauma or in rheumatoid arthritis), the extensor tendon can migrate laterally to the MCP joint and fall into the sulcus, causing difficulty in active initiation of extension. However, if the finger is placed in extension passively, the extensor tendon will resume its correct position and will then be able to hold the finger in extension and resist force.
Injury to the central extensor tendon will result in loss of active extension as well as an inability to maintain extension and resist force.
The juncturae tendinum connect the extensor tendons to each other at the dorsum of the hand. Pull via the juncturae may allow for some degree of extension function even in the presence of extensor tendon laceration, but injury to the juncturae should not create a deficit in extension if the tendon remains intact.
The lumbrical muscle is one of the intrinsic hand interosseous muscles. It functions to create flexion at the MCP joint and extension at the interphalangeal joints. Injury to the lumbrical muscle will not cause an extensor deficit at the MCP joint.
The oblique retinacular ligament is in the finger, originating at the base of the proximal phalanx and inserting into the distal phalanx. It is believed to coordinate proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal motion but should have no bearing on motion at the MCP joint.
A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after sustaining an avulsion injury of the right ring finger proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. A photograph is shown. Examination shows the central slip is disrupted, and the inside of the PIP joint is visible through the dorsal wound. The patient is able to actively extend the PIP joint. Which of the following anatomical structures allows the patient to extend the PIP joint?
A) Extrinsic extensor tendon
B) Interosseous muscle tendon
C) Lateral conjoined tendon
D) Oblique retinacular ligament
E) Sagittal band

The correct response is Option B.
The central slip of the extensor mechanism is the terminal direct extension of the extrinsic extensor tendon (extensor digitorum communis and extensor digiti quinti) and is the primary extensor of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. Injury to the central slip will normally produce flexion of the PIP joint due to unopposed action of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons and is called a boutonniere deformity.
The intrinsic extensor mechanism, via the middle band of the interosseous muscles, also inserts on the dorsal base of the middle phalanx and causes extension of the PIP joint. In an open injury, the central slip may be injured without concurrent injury to the interosseous muscle tendon, allowing the patient to still actively extend the PIP joint even in the presence of a disruption of the central slip.
The oblique retinacular ligament connects the flexor tendon sheath volarly to the terminal extensor tendon dorsally. When a patient sustains a laceration to the extensor mechanism over the body of the middle phalanx bone, the oblique retinacular ligament may prevent the occurrence of an extensor lag and a mallet deformity.
The lateral conjoined tendon is formed by the lateral bands of the interosseous muscles and the lateral slips of the extrinsic extensor and produces extension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.
The sagittal band keeps the extrinsic extensor tendon centralized over the dorsal metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint by connecting to the volar plate. Disruption of the sagittal band on one side of a finger would allow the extrinsic extensor tendon to dislocate and impair its ability to extend the MP joint.
A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a laceration of all extensor tendons at Zone VII of the right upper extremity. Which of the following tendons has the most distal muscle belly when attempting to reappose the tendon ends?
A) Extensor carpi radialis longus
B) Extensor carpi ulnaris
C) Extensor digitorum communis to long finger
D) Extensor indicis proprius
E) Extensor pollicis longus
The correct response is Option D.
Zone 7 extensor tendon injuries are those over the dorsal wrist. The extensor indicis proprius tendon typically has the most distal muscle belly and this fact can frequently be used to uniquely identify this tendon. Extensor tendon zones are useful for describing the locations of injuries:
Distal interphalangeal (DIP)
Central slip to DIP
Proximal interphalangeal (PIP)
Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) to PIP
MCP
Carpometacarpal (CMC) to MCP
Wrist and proximal
A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a stab wound to the right forearm. A photograph is shown. She is taken to the operating room and general anesthesia is administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate examination, in this intubated patient, to assess for tendinous injuries to the fingers?
A) Passively extend the fingers
B) Passively extend the wrist
C) Passively flex the fingers
D) Passively flex the wrist
E) Place hand in cold water

The correct response is Option D.
This patient has sustained a dorsal mid forearm laceration. Common injuries within this location include injuries to the musculotendinous units of the extensors to the wrist, fingers, and thumb. Additionally, the radial sensory nerve and dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve could be injured depending on the location and vector of the object that caused the injury. Passive flexion as demonstrated in the photograph demonstrates the effect of tenodesis. With passive wrist flexion, intact digital extensors should be put under tension and bring the metacarpophalangeal joints into extension. However, in this patient the long and ring fingers do not extend with wrist flexion.
In an uninjured hand, when the wrist is passively flexed the fingers and thumb will extend. With wrist extension, the fingers are brought into flexion and the thumb is brought toward the small finger.
Bringing the wrist into extension would help with a volar wound as it would help establish injuries to digital flexors.
Putting the hand in cold water is a better test for sensory nerve injury as loss of wrinkling will be demonstrated.
Passive flexion or extension of the fingers will not reliably demonstrate which specific tendons are injured in this patient.























