Hand Nerves 01-22, 24 Flashcards
A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of a traumatic laceration to the dominant right wrist after punching a window 4 weeks ago. He has numbness and weakness in the median nerve distribution. On operative exploration of the wound, there is a complete transection of the median nerve and a 4-cm gap between the proximal and distal ends. Which of the following is the best method of nerve reconstruction?
A) Polyglycolic acid nerve tube placement
B) Saphenous vein grafting
C) Sural nerve grafting
D) Transposition of the median nerve and primary nerve coaptation
The correct response is Option C.
The best method of nerve reconstruction is sural nerve grafting. An autologous sural nerve graft is the best choice for a nerve gap of 3 cm or greater. Multiple cables would likely be required to reconstruct the entire diameter of the median nerve and restore sensory and motor function.
Transposition of the median nerve and primary nerve coaptation is incorrect since the nerve gap is too large for a tension-free nerve repair, even with transposition of the median nerve at the wrist.
Saphenous vein grafting is incorrect since the size of the nerve defect warrants nerve grafting rather than vein grafting. Vein grafting could be used for an associated vascular injury of this size to the radial or ulnar artery.
Polyglycolic acid (PGA) nerve tube placement would be more appropriate for a nerve gap less than 3 cm. This serves as a scaffold for nerve regeneration. The indications for nerve allograft reconstruction are expanding the subject of ongoing research.
A 29-year-old man who is a laborer presents with significant pain of the nondominant left hand. Medical history includes a laceration of the ring and small fingers palmarly over the proximal phalanx 1 year ago. At the time of the injury, he underwent repair of the flexor digitorum profundus to the small finger and direct repair of the ulnar digital nerve to the ring finger. All other nerves were intact. On examination, the patient reports pain over the nerve repair site that interferes with work-related tasks. There is no sensation distal to the repair. Positive Tinel sign over the ulnar extent of the scar on the ring finger is noted. Which of the following surgical techniques is most appropriate in this patient?
A) Excision of neuroma alone
B) Excision of neuroma and nerve implantation into bone
C) Excision of neuroma and nerve repair with allograft
D) External and internal neurolysis of the neuroma in continuity
E) Targeted muscle reinnervation or nerve transfer to nearby motor nerve
The correct response is Option C.
Injuries to the extremities are extremely common, and with the close proximity of the digital nerve to the palmar surface of the digits, these nerves are commonly lacerated. Initial treatment includes primary repair or grafting, depending on the extent of injury and the ability to perform direct repair with minimal tension. Despite repair, patients may develop neuroma in continuity and fail to recover meaningful sensation distal to the level of injury.
In this scenario, the patient has developed a neuroma in continuity at the site of digital nerve repair. Many treatment options exist for the treatment of neuroma in the extremities where the distal nerve target is present. These include: direct repair, the use of a nerve conduit, allograft, or autograft. Where the distal nerve target is absent, as with amputation, techniques to limit or treat neuroma include: excision alone, excision with amputation into muscle or bone, nerve graft to nowhere, nerve capping, centro-central coaptation, end to side neurorrhaphy, targeted muscle reinnervation (nerve transfer), or regenerative peripheral nerve interface (RPNI).
In the study by Moran et al., where authors retrospectively reviewed 127 patients following surgery for symptomatic neuroma, they found that patients who underwent neuroma excision followed by repair had significantly lower DASH scores, compared with implantation into muscle or bone or with simple excision alone (p = 0.03).
Lans et al. demonstrated that patients who underwent neuroma excision followed by repair/reconstruction had lower numeric rating pain scores, lower PROMIS pain interference scores, and higher PROMIS upper extremity scores.
While targeted muscle reinnvervation is a useful technique to prevent or treat neuroma pain, it is more commonly performed in the setting of amputation.
Which of the following structures is a potential site for compression of the ulnar nerve?
A) Anconeus epitrochlearis
B) Lacertus fibrosis
C) Ligament of Struthers
D) Pronator teres
E) Supinator
The correct response is Option A.
Ulnar nerve compression at the elbow is the second most common compression neuropathy of the upper extremity (after carpal tunnel syndrome). There are several sites in this region that can contribute to ulnar nerve compression, including the arcade of Struthers, medial intermuscular septum, Osborne ligament, fascia between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU), and fascial bands within the FCU distally. The anconeus epitrochlearis is an anomalous accessory muscle that can cause compression of the underlying ulnar nerve at the elbow. The anconeus epitrochlearis, present in 4 to 34% of individuals, originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts into the olecranon. If identified during cubital tunnel surgery, this structure is typically released or excised.
The proximal leading edge of the supinator (arcade of Fröhse) can compress the posterior interosseous nerve.
The pronator teres muscle is a potential compression site of the median nerve in the proximal forearm.
The lacertus fibrosis (bicipital aponeurosis) is a potential compression site of the median nerve at the antecubital region.
The superficial radial nerve can be compressed between the tendons of the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus in the forearm.
The ligament of Struthers is a fibrous band that runs from the tip of the supracondylar process to the medial epicondyle. The median nerve and brachial artery can run through the passage created by the ligament and can be compressed when running through this passage. The arcade of Struthers differs from the ligament of Struthers in that the arcade is a fascial band that runs from the triceps fascia to the medial intermuscular septum, and it is a potential site of compression of the ulnar nerve.
A 30-year-old man presents with an injury to the ulnar nerve at the elbow. Examination shows an 8-cm nerve gap. Reconstruction with distal nerve transfers at the level of the wrist (motor) and palm (sensory) is planned to restore intrinsic function and finger sensation. If the proximal nerve gap is not repaired, which of the following deficits will most likely persist?
A) Decreased elbow flexion strength
B) Decreased finger extension strength
C) Decreased sensation in the first web space
D) Decreased sensation on the dorsal hand
The correct response is Option D.
Distal to the elbow, the ulnar nerve supplies motor innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris as well as the flexor digitorum profundus to the ring and small fingers, before heading toward the hand, where it supplies most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand (hypothenar muscles, ulnar two lumbricals, interossei, adductor pollicis, deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis). Along the way, it sends off a sensory branch to the dorsal hand; this branch arises about 7 cm proximal to the wrist crease. The most common nerve transfer for motor restoration is transfer of the nerve to pronator quadratus (distal anterior interosseous nerve) to the ulnar motor branch at the wrist. Sensory nerve transfers within the palm can restore sensation to the ulnar digits. However, these distal reconstructions will not restore sensation to the dorsal ulnar hand.
A 35-year-old, right-hand–dominant man presents with a 4-month history of right upper extremity weakness. The patient reports a history of sudden onset shoulder pain that began without trauma. The pain improved, but he has developed difficulty abducting the shoulder, externally rotating the shoulder, and flexing the elbow. MRI shows hourglass constrictions of the brachial plexus. Electrodiagnostic studies demonstrate the involvement of multiple peripheral nerves. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Brachial plexus avulsion
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Parsonage-Turner syndrome
D) Rotator cuff injury
E) Transverse myelitis
The correct response is Option C.
Acute brachial neuritis, also known as neuralgic amyotrophy or Parsonage-Turner syndrome, is an uncommon but well-recognized clinical entity. Patients characteristically present with acute-onset unilateral severe shoulder and/or arm pain that radiates, followed by progressive weakness and atrophy of the muscles in the shoulder girdle and arm. Pain is the initial symptom for 90% of patients. The etiology of the syndrome is thought to be idiopathic; however, it has been reported in various clinical situations, including post surgery, post infection, during pregnancy, during vigorous exercise, post trauma, and post vaccination. Patients exhibit significant variability in presentation regarding nerve involvement, muscle involvement, the extent of recovery, and recurrence. Diagnosis is made by clinical examination and supported by electrodiagnostic studies and imaging. Electrodiagnostic studies show multiple peripheral nerve lesions, rather than a brachial plexus localization. Parsonage-Turner syndrome is considered self-limited and is often managed conservatively; however, recovery may be protracted and incomplete, and a large percentage of patients never fully recover (30%). Surgical exploration has become more common for patients who do not show clinical or electrodiagnostic signs of recovery after several months. Nerve imaging will demonstrate hourglass constrictions, which are neurolysed at the time of exploration, sometimes in conjunction with nerve transfer.
These patients usually have full shoulder range of motion; additionally, imaging does not correlate with rotator cuff injury.
Avulsion of the brachial plexus would have a prodrome of trauma, and diagnosis would point to root involvement as opposed to more distal nerve pathology.
Guillain-Barré syndrome is usually preceded by infection or other immune stimulation that induces an aberrant autoimmune response targeting peripheral nerves and their spinal roots. These patients traditionally present with symmetric acute flaccid paralysis that can progress to respiratory failure.
Transverse myelitis describes a heterogeneous group of inflammatory disorders that are characterized by acute or subacute motor, sensory, and autonomic (bladder, bowel, and sexual) spinal cord dysfunction (traditionally bilateral), which does not correlate with this patient’s presentation.
A Froment sign is created by retained function of which of the following muscles?
A) Adductor pollicis
B) Extensor pollicis brevis
C) Extensor pollicis longus
D) Flexor pollicis brevis
E) Flexor pollicis longus
The correct response is Option E.
Ulnar nerve injuries are particularly devastating and have significant sensory and motor functional consequences. Proximal to the elbow, the expected motor deficits include absence of the flexor carpi ulnaris, the flexor digitorum profundus to the middle/ring/small fingers, the hypothenar muscles (opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis), the third and fourth lumbrical muscles, the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, the adductor pollicis, and the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis. A Froment sign is observed when the patient attempts to pinch but is unable to activate the adductor pollicis (ulnar innervated) and compensates by activating the flexor pollicis longus by flexing the interphalangeal joint (median nerve innervated). Extensor pollicis longus (EPL), extensor pollicis brevis (EPB), and flexor pollicis brevis (FPB) are not involved in the thumb interphalangeal joint flexion that produces Froment sign.
Targeted muscle reinnervation allows for increased type of which of the following prosthetic controls for an above-elbow amputee?
A) Cable
B) Electromyographic
C) Passive
D) Switch
The correct response is Option B.
Upper limb amputation is a devastating loss, more so than lower limb amputation. The level of amputation portends increased functional loss, i.e., forearm-level amputees maintain more functional capacity than above-elbow amputees. Many patients with upper extremity amputations rely on their prosthetic for daily functional demands. Patients with an above-elbow amputation have less muscles to exert control of a prosthetic, which makes multiple simple movements difficult and compound movements especially challenging.
There are multiple types of prostheses for the upper extremity. There are passive prosthetics, which are frequently cosmetic but may allow for a stable post for the other extremity. Functional prosthetics are body-powered (via cable controls) or externally powered (myoelectric, switch control). Body-powered prostheses use the remnant body motions through a harness (i.e., scapular and humeral motion for a transhumeral amputee) via cable to control motion and the force of a terminal device. These are simple devices that do not require as much maintenance and have more longevity, but they are limited in terms of functionality.
Myoelectric prostheses use the remnant muscle contractions via electromyographic (EMG) capture for prosthetic control. The more independent discrete electromyographic signals there are, the more potential functional options of the prosthetic there are. If there are minimal/limited EMG sensor options, then switch control can be used. Switch control is when small switches are turned on/off to increase control for separate components of a prosthetic. Switch control can be combined with myoelectric control to increase functionality for higher level amputees. For example, a transhumeral-level amputee can use switch control to position the elbow, while EMG signals from the biceps and triceps control wrist/hand motion.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) uses nerve transfers to “hyperreinnervate” muscles to allow for increased distinct electromyographic signals as well as increased amplification of signals, increasing control sites for prosthetic functionality. A good example is using residual peripheral nerves of transhumeral amputees, such as the median, radial, and ulnar nerves, to increase independent control of each biceps and triceps head as well as brachialis. TMR therefore allows for increased EMG control of a myoelectric prosthetic.
An upper trunk (C5-C6) brachial plexus injury is most likely to result in dysfunction of which of the following muscles?
A) Biceps
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
C) Pectoralis minor
D) Trapezius
E) Triceps
The correct response is Option C.
Upper trunk brachial plexus injuries are associated with the classic “waiter’s tip” posture: the shoulder is adducted and internally rotated at rest. The elbow is extended, the forearm is pronated, and the wrist and digits are held in flexion. Impacted nerves include the axillary, musculocutaneous, and suprascapular nerves. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and brachialis muscle. Loss of function of these muscles results in deficits of elbow flexion and forearm supination.
The flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus and carries innervation from C8-T1.
The pectoralis minor is innervated by the medial pectoral nerve from the medial cord of the plexus and carries nerve fibers from C8 and T1.
The trapezius is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI).
The triceps is innervated by the radial nerve, which originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and has contributions from C5-T1.
A 55-year-old woman who is an administrative assistant is referred because of a 2-month history of numbness of the middle finger on the dominant hand. Splinting has not improved the symptoms. Electrodiagnostic studies show borderline mild carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Carpal tunnel release
B) Corticosteroid injection
C) Exercises with tendon and nerve gliding
D) Guyon canal release
E) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
The correct response is Option B.
The answer is corticosteroid injection. A 3-month history of persistent symptoms is one indication for surgical intervention; the patient in this scenario has a history of 2 months. The patient has not had a trial of nonsurgical management. The electrodiagnostic studies show borderline or mild positive carpal tunnel syndrome. Corticosteroid injection has shown improvement in 32% of affected patients who did not have to go on to surgery. Corticosteroid injection should therefore be considered prior to surgical intervention. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation as well as exercise has not been shown to be beneficial in the management of carpal tunnel syndrome. Besides corticosteroid injections, nonsurgical splinting by an occupational therapist and ultrasound have also been shown to improve symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome.
A 29-year-old man is evaluated 15 months after a motorcycle collision in which he sustained a left humerus fracture and a complete left brachial plexus avulsion. He has not recovered any motor or sensory function of the left arm but desires the ability to actively flex the elbow. Which of the following procedures is most likely to restore active elbow flexion in this patient?
A) Free functioning gracilis muscle transfer
B) Pedicled bipolar latissimus dorsi muscle transfer
C) Proximal transfer of the flexor-pronator mass onto the humerus
D) Triceps-to-biceps transfer
E) Ulnar nerve to musculocutaneous nerve transfer
The correct response is Option A.
Adult traumatic brachial plexus injuries are devastating and life-altering injuries. Evaluation includes a detailed physical examination and radiologic and electrodiagnostic studies. Knowledge of injury patterns, timing of surgery, prioritization in restoration of function, and management of patient expectations are key components of management. In general, options for treatment of brachial plexus injuries include neurolysis, nerve grafting, or nerve transfers and should be performed within 6 months of injury. Free functioning muscle transfers (FFMT) and tendon transfers are typically used in patients who present late (greater than 12 months from injury), because the time for the nerve to regenerate after reconstruction is greater than the survival time of the motor end plates after denervation.
FFMT is the transplantation of a muscle and its neurovascular pedicle to a new location to assume a new function. The muscle is innervated by transferring an intact uninjured donor motor nerve; circulation is restored to the muscle through microsurgical anastomosis of the artery and vein to donor vessels (typically the thoracoacromial artery and cephalic vein). Within 6 to 9 months, the transferred muscle reinnervates, eventually gaining independent function. Although initially indicated in patients who presented late or as a salvage procedure with failed previous nerve reconstruction, the success with FFMT has led to use in early reconstruction to obtain elbow flexion and rudimentary grasp in patients with pan-plexus injuries. The gracilis muscle is the most commonly used donor because of its proximally based neurovascular pedicle and its long tendon length (which can reach distally into the forearm). Spinal accessory or intercostal nerves could be used as donor nerves for a free gracilis transfer.
Steindler flexorplasty, pedicled latissimus dorsi muscle transfer, triceps-to-biceps transfer, and Oberlin transfer each require remaining function of the brachial plexus and would be contraindicated in this patient with long-standing total brachial plexus palsy.
A 7-year-old boy falls and sustains the fracture in the x-ray study shown. He undergoes closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of the fracture that night. Postoperatively, he cannot flex his thumb at the interphalangeal joint or his index finger at the distal phalangeal joint. He has normal sensation of his thumb and other fingers. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured in the fall?
A) Anterior interosseous
B) Musculocutaneous
C) Posterior interosseous
D) Radial
E) Ulnar
The correct response is Option A.
The median nerve travels ulnarly to the brachial artery at the distal humerus. Because of the close proximity of the median and anterior interosseous nerves, they can be injured in pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures. This is often the result of strain on the brachial artery and median nerve at the time of injury, and nerve injuries occur in 11 to 16% of these fractures. Contusions of the median and anterior interosseous nerves often recover over time with conservative management. Patients can present with pure median nerve injury, pure anterior interosseous nerve injury, or injury to both nerves. In some cases of pulseless supracondylar humerus fractures, exploration is warranted. In this patient, motor deficits are indicative of an anterior interosseous nerve contusion.
Given the maintained sensation of the hand, the median nerve would be incorrect. The ulnar nerve does not provide motor innervation for thumb IP or index DIP flexion.The radial and posterior interosseous nerves do not innervate the flexor pollicis longus or index finger (flexor digitorum profundus) muscles and do not cross over the volar humerus. Also, the musculocutaneous nerve has no motor innervation distal to the elbow and is only sensory to the forearm.
A patient presents with an unresectable sarcoma of the proximal forearm. An elective transhumeral amputation is planned. Which of the following are the main advantages of performing targeted muscle reinnervation at the time of amputation in this patient?
A) Decreased pain in residual limb and improved control of myoelectric prosthesis
B) Greater length of residual limb and improved soft-tissue coverage over bone
C) Improved sensation in residual limb and greater range of motion in native elbow
D) Improved shape of residual limb and greater range of motion in native shoulder
E) Increased muscle bulk of residual limb and improved control of myoelectric prosthesis
The correct response is Option A.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) has been a major advance in the care of amputees and involves nerve transfers in the residual limb. Benefits of targeted muscle reinnervation include improved control of myoelectric prostheses for transhumeral amputees and an improvement in residual limb pain for amputees. There appears to be greater effect when TMR is performed acutely at the time of amputation. With this and other contemporary techniques for amputees, the nerves are provided a functional destination. TMR does not substantially alter the range of motion in the shoulder or elbow, and does not provide additional length of the limb. It does not appear to increase the muscle bulk in the residual limb.
Which of the following diagnostic findings is most consistent with a recovering motor nerve injury?
A) Decreased motor unit potential amplitude
B) Decreased motor unit recruitment
C) Fibrillation potentials
D) Nascent potentials
E) Positive sharp waves
The correct response is Option D.
Electrical studies of a recovering nerve injury would show nascent potentials. This finding usually precedes the onset of clinically evident voluntary movement in the muscles innervated by the injured nerve. Nascent potentials appear several months after injury and result from axonal regeneration. Decreased motor unit potential amplitude, fibrillation potentials, positive sharp waves, and decreased motor unit recruitment are possible diagnostic findings in the setting of a nerve injury, but they are not indicative of recovery. Nerve lesions that spontaneously recover are usually treated nonsurgically, whereas those without recovery are explored and reconstructed. As a general rule, nerve regrowth occurs at approximately 1 inch per month or 1 millimeter per day. Motor endplates degrade at about 1% per week, hence the maximum length that a nerve can grow to restore motor function is approximately 13 to 18 inches. Repairs at the brachial plexus level rarely result in the recovery of any intrinsic muscle function. Sensory end organs, however, remain viable and can be reinnervated even after many years.
A 20-year-old woman presents for repair of a significant degloving injury to her dominant right thumb. During the soft-tissue repair, a 4-cm defect is noted in the radial proper digital nerve. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique for nerve repair?
A) Autologous nerve graft
B) Autologous vein graft
C) Collagen conduit
D) Nerve transposition
The correct response is Option A.
For nerve gaps 3 cm or longer that are not amenable to repair, peripheral nerve grafts are the most reliable choice. Proper microsurgical nerve repair requires meticulous, atraumatic technique with appropriate magnification, instrumentation, and sutures. Primary repair is recommended when a tension-free anastomosis is possible. In this case, primary repair is not possible, even with nerve mobilization or transposition. Use of these autologous grafts is limited by donor site supply and morbidity, loss of sensation, and possible neuroma formation.
Various nerve conduits such as silicone tubes, biologic tubes such as vein grafts, and biodegradable conduits such as collagen or polyglycolic acid are limited to small diameter nerves with shorter nerve gaps (2 to 3 cm). There appears to be no significant regeneration beyond 3 cm. Nerve transpositions are not performed for digital nerve repair.
A male newborn is evaluated in the newborn nursery because of limited movement of the right arm. Maternal history includes gestational diabetes, but routine prenatal monitoring and ultrasound examinations were normal. The patient’s delivery was difficult, and he weighed 10.5 lb (4.8 kg) at birth. He was noted to have no spontaneous movement of the right arm. The right upper extremity was warm, pink, and supple. Pulsations of the radial and ulnar arteries were palpable at the wrist. X-ray studies of the affected shoulder show no obvious fractures. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Angiography of the extremity
B) Anticoagulation
C) CT scanning of the extremity
D) Measurement of compartment pressures
E) Observation
The correct response is Option E.
This patient has an obstetrical palsy of the right upper extremity. The likelihood of recovery depends on the severity of the injury, but statistically over 70% of patients have complete or near complete recovery of upper extremity function without any surgical intervention. Thus the most appropriate next step for this newborn is observation. MRI of the shoulder and neck are helpful to discern evidence of anatomical injury to the cervical roots and/or portions of the brachial plexus, but CT scanning is unnecessary and of little use in this regard. Angiography and anticoagulation would be appropriate steps if there was clinical evidence of subclavian or brachial artery thrombosis, but the physical examination does not support this diagnosis. Similarly, the examination is inconsistent with neonatal compartment syndrome, a rare condition that usually presents with arm swelling, immobility, reduced arm perfusion, and purple cutaneous areas. Therefore, measurement of compartment pressures is unnecessary.
A 65-year-old man presents to the office with symptoms and examination findings consistent with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome. Medical history includes recent rupture of the left biceps tendon and several trigger fingers. Biopsy of the tenosynovium is performed during carpal tunnel release and the pathology report shows a positive Congo red stain. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely and should prompt further consultation?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Fibromyalgia
D) Malingering
E) Rheumatoid arthritis
The correct response is Option A.
A recent study showed that 10% of men over 50 years old and women over 60 years old with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome had positive tenosynovial biopsies for amyloid. This can be a devastating disease if left to affect the heart or other organs and can be diagnosed with a simple biopsy during carpal tunnel release. Other findings suggestive of amyloidosis include a spontaneous biceps rupture, trigger finger, and spinal stenosis.
Patients with diabetes and rheumatoid disease have a higher incidence of carpal tunnel syndrome than the general population but the mention of biceps rupture points to the diagnosis of amyloidosis. Fibromyalgia and malingering have not been shown to be related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department for evaluation of a laceration of the right wrist sustained when he punched a glass window 1 hour ago. Physical examination shows a 2-cm transverse laceration of the volar ulnar wrist crease. Wound exploration shows complete laceration of the ulnar nerve. On physical examination of motor function, LOSS of which of the following functions is most likely in this patient?
A) Adduction of the thumb carpometacarpal joint
B) Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint of the ring and small fingers
C) Extension of the thumb interphalangeal joint
D) Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the index and middle fingers
E) Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the ring and small fingers
The correct response is Option A.
The ulnar nerve is the terminal branch of the medial cord of the brachial plexus. It enters the forearm between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). In the forearm, the ulnar nerve innervates the FCU and flexor digitorum profundus of the small and ring fingers. It courses distally under the FCU to enter Guyon’s canal at the wrist. The dorsal cutaneous nerve, which gives sensation to the dorsoulnar hand, arises approximately 5 to 7 cm proximal to the ulnar styloid. In Guyon’s canal, the ulnar nerve splits into a deep motor and a superficial sensory branch. The deep motor branch innervates the hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, and flexor digiti minimi), as well as the lumbricals to the ring/small fingers, dorsal and palmar interossei, flexor pollicis brevis (deep head), palmaris brevis, and adductor pollicis. The superficial sensory branch in the palm innervates the small finger and the ulnar aspect of the ring finger.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled through activation of the ulnar-innervated adductor pollicis muscle. In the small and ring fingers, extension of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is performed through activation of the radially innervated extensor digitorum communis and extensor digiti minimi muscles. In the index, middle, ring, and small fingers, flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is performed through activation of the median-innervated flexor digitorum superficialis.
While flexion of the ring and small finger distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints is produced by the ulnar-nerve innervated FDP tendons to the ring and small finger, the ulnar nerve provides branches to this muscle proximal to this patient’s injury. Extension of the thumb MCP joint is via the radial nerve innervated extensor pollicis brevis muscle.
In a transhumeral amputee, targeted muscle reinnervation can be utilized to improve control in a myoelectric prosthesis. Which of the following nerve transfers can be performed to provide intuitive prosthetic control for hand closure?
A) Median nerve to short head of biceps
B) Musculocutaneous nerve to long head of biceps
C) Radial nerve to lateral head of triceps
D) Radial nerve to long head of triceps
E) Ulnar nerve to lateral head of triceps
The correct response is Option A.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) utilizes a set of nerve transfers in order to allow intuitive prosthetic control for upper extremity amputees. Functioning nerves that no longer have their distal muscle target can be transferred to intact proximal muscles and generate a novel electrical signal that can be picked up by a myoelectric prosthesis. Another benefit of TMR is the potential to prevent or treat painful neuromas.
In the case of a transhumeral amputee, elbow flexion myoelectric prosthetic control is maintained by preserving musculocutaneous innervation to the long head of the biceps muscle. The distal remnant of the median nerve is transferred to the motor nerve of the biceps short head to create a signal for prosthesis hand closure. Elbow extension signals are maintained with radial innervation of the long head of the triceps. Signals for prosthesis hand opening are created with transfer of the distal radial nerve to the motor nerve of the triceps lateral head.
Resistance to which of the following maneuvers is most likely present in a digit that has intrinsic tightness?
A) Passive extension of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint with the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint held in hyperextension
B) Passive extension of the PIP joint with the MCP joint held in hyperflexion
C) Passive flexion of the DIP joint with the PIP joint held in hyperextension
D) Passive flexion of the PIP joint with the MCP joint held in hyperextension
E) Passive flexion of the PIP joint with the MCP joint held in hyperflexion
The correct response is Option D.
The intrinsic muscles (dorsal/palmar interossei and lumbricals) are responsible for much of the fine motor function of the hand. Contractures of these muscles lead to a loss of the delicate and complex balance of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles and typically results in the clinical picture of an intrinsic-plus hand. The intrinsics attach to the extensor mechanism through the lateral bands and facilitate force transmission from the muscles to the extensor mechanism on the proximal and distal phalanges. Because of their line of pull, the intrinsics are responsible for metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexion and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension. The intrinsic tightness test (i.e. Bunnell test) requires one to assess passive PIP joint flexion with the MCP joint extended. This is compared with passive PIP joint flexion with the MCP joint in flexion which assesses for extrinsic tightness. If there is a substantial increase in resistance to PIP joint flexion with the MCP joint in extension, then the test is considered positive and indicative of intrinsic tightness or adhesions of the lateral bands.
Trauma is the most common cause of intrinsic muscle contracture. Spasticity from an upper motor neuron lesion (e.g. traumatic brain injury, cerebrovascular accident, cerebral palsy) may also lead to intrinsic contracture. Arthritis may also lead to intrinsic contracture resulting from joint deviation or dislocation.
In trauma, initial treatment is directed at edema prevention and aggressive hand therapy. Patients with spasticity from an upper motor neuron disorder are also initially managed with therapy and splinting. If these modalities are insufficient, surgical release of the intrinsic muscles or tendons (proximal or distal depending on extent of involvement) may improve posture and function. Ulnar motor neurectomy is another option in severely affected individuals to decrease intrinsic muscle tone and improve posture and function, but is only effective in the absence of a fixed MCP joint contracture.
A 37-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a laceration to the mid humerus that she sustained in a motor vehicle collision. On examination, the patient is unable to extend the wrist, fingers, or thumb. Surgical exploration shows complete radial nerve transection; the median/ulnar nerves are intact. Direct neurorrhaphy is performed after debridement and mobilization of the nerve ends. Which of the following is the last muscle to be reinnervated during nerve recovery?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Abductor pollicis longus
C) Brachioradialis
D) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
E) Extensor indicis proprius
The correct response is Option E.
Radial nerve injuries may occur in the setting of humeral fractures, and transection is most common in the setting of an open injury. The most important components of functional recovery following radial nerve injury include wrist, finger, and thumb extension. The order of reinnervation of the radial-innervated muscles is most commonly brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, supinator, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum communis, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digiti quinti, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor indicis proprius. The abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the median nerve via the thenar motor branch.
A 37-year-old woman presents with sharp lateral elbow pain sustained when lifting a garbage bag out of a can at work. Which of the following muscles is the most likely cause of this patient’s pain?
A) Anconeus
B) Brachioradialis
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Extensor carpi radialis longus
E) Extensor carpi ulnaris
The correct response is Option C.
The common extensor tendon attaches the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB), extensor digitorum communis (EDC), extensor digiti minimi, and extensor carpi ulnaris to the lateral epicondyle. Among these forearm extensor muscles, pathology found in the attachment of ECRB and EDC at the lateral epicondyle (LE) is commonly cited as a reason for pain at the LE. While the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) is a wrist extensor and may be a source of lateral elbow pain with strain, it does not originate from the lateral epicondyle. The ECRL muscle was observed to originate from the distal aspect of the supracondylar ridge mainly as a muscular attachment. The brachioradialis is an elbow flexor and originates off of the lateral column of the distal humerus. It is not involved with lateral epicondylitis. The anconeus is a small muscle which originates off of the lateral epicondylitis and its main function is to assist with elbow extension.
A 36-year-old man presents with weakness of the left wrist and limited finger extension 2 days after he underwent surgery for a closed fracture of the right humerus that he sustained in a motor vehicle collision. At the time of surgery, the radial nerve was found to be intact without any significant signs of trauma. On examination, the patient is unable to extend his wrist or digits but elbow extension is intact. Which of the following histopathologic features seen in neurapraxia (Sunderland Type 1) injury is most likely in this patient?
A) Disruption of perineurium
B) Endoneurial fibrosis
C) Increased axonal transport
D) Segmental demyelination
E) Wallerian degeneration
The correct response is Option D.
Peripheral nerve injuries can be classified into three main categories: Neurapraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. These groups have been further classified by several different classification systems, which include those by Seddon and Sunderland, among others.
Neurapraxia (Sunderland type 1) is an injury to the myelin sheath only, while axons are preserved. In trauma, these injuries are most frequently caused by compression or stretching. Although segmental demyelination occurs (leading to conduction block), there is no Wallerian degeneration of the nerve, and a full recovery can be expected within days to weeks. Axonotmesis (Sunderland type 2, 3 or 4) involves damage to axons, and is characterized by Wallerian degeneration. Sunderland type 2 injury involves only the axons, and usually there will be a full recovery without intervention, while types 3 and 4 involve injury to the endoneurium and perineurium respectively and fail conservative management. Neurotmesis (Sunderland type 5) is a complete disruption of a peripheral nerve. MacKinnon and Dellon described a type 6 injury that involves mixed Sunderland type injuries along the length of a damaged nerve. Axonal transport is not a relevant histopathological feature.
A 50-year-old woman previously diagnosed with left forearm compression neuropathy of the superficial radial nerve comes to the office for examination. The patient has not responded to 7 months of conservative management which consisted of NSAID therapy, steroid injection, a trial of splinting, and activity modification. Operative treatment is planned. Fascial release between which of the following two tendons is most appropriate in this patient?
A) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
B) Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Flexor carpi radialis and abductor pollicis longus
E) Flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis
The correct response is Option B.
Superficial radial nerve compression of the forearm occurs most frequently at the posterior border of the brachioradialis where the nerve transitions from a deeper, subfascial position to a more superficial, subcutaneous location. Also known as Wartenberg syndrome, patients may present with pain, numbness, or tingling over the dorsal radial hand radiating to the dorsal thumb and index finger.
Symptoms of superficial radial nerve compression may be confused with symptoms of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. In addition, both conditions may coexist simultaneously.
Patients diagnosed with superficial radial nerve compression are initially treated conservatively since this approach is successful in relieving symptoms in the majority of cases. Conservative management consists of rest, splinting, removal of external compression source (such as a tight wristwatch band, bracelet, or handcuffs), and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
Surgery is indicated when conservative measures fail. Surgical decompression involves release of the fascia between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus tendons. It is at this interval that the nerve transitions from deep to superficial and prone to compression. The other responses do not reflect the correct surgical anatomy of this condition.
A 45-year-old man who is a cyclist comes to the office because of tingling of the left ring and small fingers. Normal sensibility dorsally is noted. Guyon canal release is planned. Which of the following structures is a border of the Guyon canal?
A) Capitate
B) Dorsal distal radio-ulnar ligament
C) Lunate
D) Pisohamate ligament
E) Volar distal radio-ulnar ligament
The correct response is Option D.
Guyon canal, also known as ulnar canal and ulnar tunnel, allows passage of the ulna nerve and artery into the hand. It is a semi-rigid fibrosseous longitudinal tunnel, approximately 4 cm in length, beginning at the proximal edge of the transverse carpal ligament and ending at the hypothenar aponeurotic arch. The roof comprises the volar carpal ligament. The medial wall is the pisiform and pisohamate ligament. The lateral wall is the hook of the hamate. The floor is the flexor retinaculum and hypothenar muscles.
The volar and dorsal distal radio-ulnar ligaments are the thicker portions of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) and do not contribute to Guyon canal.
The capitate and lunate are part of the floor of the carpal tunnel and also do not contribute to Guyon canal.


















