Abdominoplasty/Liposuction 01-22, 24 Flashcards
A 26-year-old woman presents for buttock augmentation. BMI is 19.1 kg/m2. Due to lack of donor sites for autologous fat transfer, gluteal augmentation with silicone implants is planned. Which of the following is the most common complication following this procedure?
A) Fat embolism
B) Hematoma
C) Infection
D) Seroma
E) Wound dehiscence
The correct response is Option E.
Silicone implants can be used to augment the buttocks, especially when there are limited donor sites for autologous fat transfer. The use of silicone implants confers a greater risk for perioperative complications than fat grafting alone. The most common complication is wound dehiscence, which has been reported to occur in 9.6% of patients. Efforts to reduce wound complications have included the use of bilateral parasacral incisions as opposed to one gluteal cleft incision. Complications are more common after subfascial placement than after intra- or submuscular placement. Seroma, infection, and hematoma occur in 4.6, 1.9, and 0.6% of patients, respectively. Fat embolus is a rare but dangerous complication associated with fat grafting, not silicone implants.
A 35-year-old woman presents with midline wound dehiscence with tissue necrosis 2 weeks after undergoing uneventful abdominoplasty. A photograph is shown. The patient reports that she did not stop smoking before surgery as instructed. Which of the following mechanisms has the greatest impact on delayed wound healing in this patient?
A) Decreased catecholamine production
B) Decreased leukocyte function
C) Decreased levels of hemoglobin
D) Increased fibrinogen production
E) Increased microvascular vasoconstriction

The correct response is Option E.
Cigarette smoking is a leading cause of preventable death and disability in the United States. Over the past 20 years, several studies have demonstrated an increased risk of postoperative complications following plastic surgical procedures including rhytidectomy, breast reconstruction, digital replantation, muscle flaps, and body contouring procedures.
Tobacco smoke is a complex mix of particulate matter, volatile acids, and gases. There are over 4000 different compounds in cigarette smoke, many of which are toxic, mutagenic, and carcinogenic. Tobacco-induced vasoconstriction is mediated directly and indirectly by nicotine, a colorless, odorless, and poisonous alkaloid.
Elevated cellular levels of nicotine cause direct microvascular vasoconstriction. Indirect pathways of vasoconstriction include the enhancement of thromboxane A2 and stimulation of catecholamine release. Random skin flaps, such as abdominoplasty, rhytidectomy, and mastectomy flaps, are predominantly supplied by the subdermal plexus, which is very sensitive to sympathomimetic agonists such as catecholamines.
Smoking also increases carboxyhemoglobin levels, which shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to the left. The net result is decreased oxygen-carrying capacity by direct competitive inhibition from carbon monoxide. Other effects caused by smoking include decreased prostaglandin I2 (prostacyclin) production, increased platelet aggregation and blood viscosity, decreased collagen production, decreased red blood cell deformability, increased fibrinogen production, and decreased leukocyte function (mediated by hydrogen cyanide). The net effect is a prothrombogenic state with impaired inflammation that also contributes to slow wound healing. Although fibrinogen production is increased and leukocyte function is reduced, the primary mechanism by which wound healing is impaired is related to the nicotine-induced vasoconstriction of the subdermal plexus.
Rhytidectomy patients who smoke are 12.5 times more likely to develop skin necrosis compared with nonsmokers. One study showed a 47.9% rate of wound healing problems in abdominoplasty patients who smoked compared with 14.8% in nonsmokers. Another large study of patients undergoing free transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) breast reconstruction showed no difference in free flap survival in those patients who smoked, but the smoking population had a significantly higher rate of mastectomy skin flap loss, abdominal donor site complications, and hernias. Active smoking is not only a risk factor for wound complications, but the overall number of cigarettes smoked in a lifetime can affect the rate of wound infections. One study showed a risk for infection of 14.3% in patients who claimed to have stopped smoking 4 weeks before their abdominoplasty compared with 1.2% of nonsmokers. This study also showed higher infection rates were associated with more years of smoking, a higher number of cigarettes smoked per day, and a higher number of estimated cigarettes smoked during a lifetime. Current recommendations for smokers who desire elective cosmetic surgery are to avoid smoking and all nicotine products for 2 to 4 weeks before and after surgery.
A 41-year-old woman is evaluated for abdominoplasty and liposuction in the outpatient setting. Surgery is expected to take 2 hours. Caprini score is 2. Which of the following is the approximate risk for venous thromboembolism in this patient?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
E) 25%
The correct response is Option A.
There have been many studies aimed at risk stratification for venous thromboembolism (VTE) in plastic surgery patients. Despite this, the topic remains controversial. There are no specific recommendations for patients undergoing abdominoplasty and liposuction; as such, management strategies are case-specific and vary widely between practitioners. It is, however, well-known that abdominoplasty has a higher risk for VTE events compared with other procedures. Though the specific rates of VTE vary per study, the average risk is about 1%. Interestingly, in one study using Internet Based Quality Assurance Program data, the rate was found to be 0.15%. This particular study did not find an increased incidence of VTE in those undergoing multiple procedures, and this has been corroborated by multiple authors. That being said, it is important to calculate a Caprini score and treat each patient on a case-by-case basis. At the least, sequential compression devices should be used for every patient undergoing abdominoplasty, and for those with higher Caprini scores, one should consider using low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin for VTE prophylaxis. The risks of 10%, 15%, 20%, and 25% are too high, and thus they are incorrect.
A patient who underwent cryolipolysis develops paradoxical adipose hyperplasia (PAH). Which of the following is the minimum amount of time that should pass after the procedure before surgically treating the PAH?
A) 1 Month
B) 3 Months
C) 6 Months
D) 1 Year
E) 2 Years
The correct response is Option C.
Paradoxical adipose hyperplasia is a rare complication of cryolipolysis that may occur more frequently than in the manufacturer’s reported data. Treatment is best delayed until the affected area has softened, which normally occurs in 6 to 9 months after the initial cryolipolysis procedure. Power-assisted liposuction is the preferred method of treatment, but in some cases, abdominoplasty may be necessary. Secondary treatments might be needed for recurrence or persistent bulge.
A 45-year-old woman who underwent lipoabdominoplasty 6 weeks ago comes to the office. She is pleased with the contour and the low placement of the scar; however, she has persistent pain along the inferior portion of the incision with numbness in the thigh. On examination, pain is elicited with light pinching or pressure over the affected area along the lower portion of the incision, with a positive Tinel sign present along the anterior superior iliac spine. Nerve entrapment is suspected. Which of the following nerves is most likely involved?
A) Anterior femoral cutaneous
B) Genitofemoral
C) Ilioinguinal
D) Lateral femoral cutaneous
E) Lateral thoracic
The correct response is Option D.
Meralgia paresthetica is the term for compression of a branch of the nerves that gives normal sensation to the lateral upper thigh. In a review of the literature by Ducic et al., the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) was the nerve most commonly injured after abdominoplasty, with the pooled risk calculated for injury to the LFCN being 1.36% (n = 28/2061 patients). The LFCN is best protected by understanding the relationship with the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and by leaving a swath of undissected loose areolar tissue covering this region. Overly wide dissection, blind dissection between planes, and randomly placed “deep bites” of tissue (during muscle plication or near the ASIS) all have the potential to create direct nerve injury. The ilioinguinal, anterior femoral cutaneous, lateral thoracic, genitofemoral nerves can be injured during an abdominoplasty; however, none fit the anatomic location and nerve distribution described.
A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, presents to the office for consultation for abdominal contouring. Current BMI is 22.5 kg/m2. She has lost 20 lb (9 kg) since the birth of her last child 2 years ago, and her weight has been stable for the past 6 months. Examination of the abdomen shows lipodystrophy in the lower abdomen with skin laxity both above and below the umbilicus, and a small overhanging panniculus below the umbilicus. She has mild diastasis recti with no hernias noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Abdominoplasty with rectus plication
B) Fleur-de-lis abdominoplasty
C) Radiofrequency skin tightening
D) Reverse abdominoplasty
E) Suction-assisted liposuction
The correct response is Option A.
The best choice for this patient will address all of her concerns and physical examination findings. These findings include upper and lower abdominal skin laxity, lower abdominal lipodystrophy, and rectus diastasis.
Radiofrequency skin tightening is not reliable or predictable. It will not address the concerns with lipodystrophy or narrow the rectus diastasis. Additionally, of note, there is little higher-level evidence in peer-reviewed literature demonstrating the effects or benefits of radiofrequency for skin tightening in the abdomen.
Suction-assisted liposuction will address the lower abdominal lipodystrophy but will not address the supraumbilical skin laxity or the rectus diastasis. Reverse abdominoplasty will primarily address the skin laxity above the umbilicus but is not as helpful for laxity below the umbilicus.
The best choice for this patient among the options listed is an abdominoplasty with rectus plication. This will address all her areas of concern. A fleur-de-lis abdominoplasty is typically indicated in a patient who has sustained massive weight loss and has both horizontal and vertical truncal laxity. The trade-off of a noticeable vertical scar with clothing such as a bikini would not be worth the benefit of any additional skin tightening, and it is typically not indicated in the typical postpartum woman with a BMI in the normal range who does not have a history of massive weight loss.
A 26-year-old man with history of lipodystrophy of the abdomen and flanks undergoes suction-assisted lipectomy under general anesthesia. The surgeon anticipates 3 L of lipoaspirate. In the superwet technique, which of the following is the most appropriate amount of fluid for the patient to receive in the form of subcutaneous tissue infiltration?
A) 0 mL
B) 900 mL
C) 1500 mL
D) 3000 mL
E) 6000 mL
The correct response is Option D.
Originally, liposuction was performed without wetting solutions. However, this technique was associated with reported estimated blood loss of up to 45% of aspirate. Infiltrating wetting solutions with a base of normal saline or Ringer’s lactate with additives (epinephrine and lidocaine) prior to suctioning improves hemostasis and pain control. The current options for wetting solutions are dry, wet, superwet, and tumescent. The dry technique is rarely employed, and no wetting solution is infused. The wet technique employs injecting a standard 200 to 300 mL per anatomic area to be treated, irrespective of the anticipated lipoaspirate. The superwet technique is predicated on a 1:1 ratio of instilling 1 mL of solution per 1 mL of aspirate. True tumescent infiltration involves infiltration at a ratio of 2:1 to 3:1 of wetting solution per mL of expected lipoaspirate.
0 mL is used for a dry technique. 900 mL is used for a wet technique. 1500 mL does not fall into any category. 6000 mL is used in a tumescent technique.
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing an abdominoplasty. The plastic surgeon plans to perform a regional block to target the anterior divisions of the spinal segmental nerves. Which of the following is the most appropriate abdominal plane for injection of the numbing medication?
A) Between the external oblique muscle and the internal oblique muscle
B) Between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle
C) Between the skin and the external oblique muscle
D) Between the transversus abdominis muscle and the peritoneum
The correct response is Option B.
A transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block is best performed between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle, and it is often used during abdominoplasty surgery and abdominal wall reconstruction surgery.
The three major muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall are the external oblique muscle, the internal oblique muscle, and the transversus abdominis muscle. The innervation of the anterolateral abdominal wall is provided by the thoracoabdominal nerves and the ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves. The TAP block targets these nerves in the plane between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle.
A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, presents with abdominal laxity and rectus diastasis. An abdominoplasty is planned, utilizing a transversus abdominis plane block for pain control. Which of the following dermatomes will demonstrate the densest level of anesthesia?
A) L2
B) L5
C) T3
D) T6
E) T10
The correct response is Option E.
The transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block is a regional anesthetic that blocks sensory afferent nerve fibers that supply the anterior/lateral abdominal wall dermatomes of T7 to L1. The T10 dermatome innervates the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and would demonstrate the highest level of anesthesia out of the dermatome levels listed above. The sensory nerves travel below the internal oblique muscle in the plane above the transversus abdominis muscle. Traditionally, the technique is performed blindly by placing a needle through the triangle of Petit posteriorly until the needle reaches the TAP. Once in the appropriate plane, 20 mL of a long-acting local anesthetic, such as bupivacaine, are injected. More recent modifications include the use of ultrasound guidance to optimize precise placement and the use of diluted long-acting multivesicular liposomal bupivacaine (Exparel). Several studies have demonstrated the benefits of a TAP block during abdominal surgery. These benefits include decreased pain, opioid use, and nausea/vomiting, as well as faster return of bowel function. Complications include potential systemic toxicity due to dose of anesthetic delivered/inadvertent intravascular injection and intraperitoneal injection with possible injury to intra-abdominal organs such as the liver or spleen.
A 35-year-old woman presents for liposuction of the anterior and posterior trunk under general anesthesia. Using a super-wet infiltration technique, 4 L of fat/liquid will be aspirated. The plastic surgeon plans to administer tranexamic acid 10 mg/kg intravenously as an off-label treatment to further reduce intraoperative blood loss. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of tranexamic acid?
A) Active menorrhagia
B) Color blindness
C) Elevated liver enzymes
D) Known allergy to milk products
E) von Willebrand disease
The correct response is Option B.
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is a powerful antifibrinolytic agent that can be administered intravenously, orally, topically, or by injection, mixed with local anesthetic. While approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding, it has many off-label uses in surgery, including cardiac surgery, spinal surgery, total-knee arthroplasty, and elective cesarean delivery. In plastic surgery, preliminary studies have shown TXA to be effective in reducing blood loss in craniofacial surgery, orthognathic surgery, and reduction mammaplasty. In aesthetic surgery, it has been found to be useful in face lift, rhinoplasty, and liposuction to reduce bleeding and hematoma. In one randomized study of super wet liposuction, blood loss in the liposuction aspirate was reduced by 37% in the TXA-treated group.
Transient changes in color vision have been reported following administration of TXA, and ophthalmalogic monitoring, including color vision assessment, should be a part of care for patients who receive TXA for longer than a few days as a part of toxicity monitoring. Because patients with color blindness cannot be monitored for changes, the manufacturer lists color blindness as a contraindication to TXA use.
Other contraindications to TXA use include known allergy to TXA, intracranial bleeding, known history of venous or arterial thromboembolism or active thromboembolic disease. Renal insufficiency may require dosage adjustment.
TXA can be used in the treatment of certain bleeding disorders, including von Willebrand disease. Milk allergy and elevated serum liver enzyme levels are not contraindications.
A 36-year-old woman developed numbness in the distribution identified in the picture shown. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured?
A) Lateral antebrachial
B) Medial antebrachial
C) Medial brachial
D) Posterior antebrachial
E) Posterior brachial

The correct response is Option C.
The posterior brachial nerve innervates the dorsal aspect of the upper arm. The lateral antebrachial nerve innervates the radial side of the forearm. The medial antebrachial nerve innervates the ulnar side of the forearm and medial upper arm.
The medial brachial nerve innervates the medial aspect of the upper arm between the medial antebrachial cutaneous (MABC) and intercostobrachial nerves.
The posterior antebrachial nerve innervates the lateral posterior aspect of the forearm.
When comparing the traditional bicipital groove brachioplasty with the posterior-incision approach, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Excision-site liposuction should not be used with the posterior incision brachioplasty
B) Injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is unlikely with the posterior incision brachioplasty
C) Most patients rate the postoperative scar appearance as “unsatisfactory” with the posterior incision brachioplasty
D) A posterior-incision brachioplasty cannot be easily extended down the lateral chest wall, if needed, to deal with lateral chest laxity
E) Tailoring of skin excess is more complex with the posterior incision approach
The correct response is Option B.
Posterior-incision brachioplasty has a number of advantages over the standard design. The incision runs from the posterior elbow region, straight up the midline posterior surface of the arm, when marked with the arm abducted at 90 degrees and the elbow flexed. The incision is placed in the posterior axillary fold, not the dome of the axilla, extending down the posterior surface of the arm. A simple ellipse of skin is resected, making tailoring of the skin excess straightforward. Preliminary liposuction of the excisional site is helpful, and a skin-only excision may be performed, sparing deeper structures and facilitating closure.The design may be extended down the lateral chest, when needed for patients with skin excess in that region. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) is unlikely to be injured with this incision design. Concurrent liposuction of the arm with the posterior incision brachioplasty can facilitate shaping and skin resection with predictable results and good outcomes, as published by Nguyen and Rohrich. Elkhatib’s study found an 88.8% patient satisfaction rating with the quality of the resultant incisional scar.
References
A 43-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss a circumferential body lift. Medical history includes massive weight loss following Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery 3 years ago. Current medications include a daily multivitamin. The patient has not consistently kept follow-up appointments with her gastric bypass team and reports that she has not rigorously adhered to diet and supplementation recommendations. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
A) Folate
B) Iron
C) Magnesium
D) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
E) Vitamin E
The correct response is Option B.
Iron deficiency is common after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and is difficult to correct with only multivitamin supplementation. Folate deficiencies after gastric bypass are usually corrected by multivitamin supplementation. While other B-complex vitamin deficiencies are encountered after gastric bypass, vitamin B6 deficiencies have not been linked to gastric bypass. Magnesium deficiencies are not commonly encountered as a result of gastric bypass. Vitamin E, while a fat soluble vitamin, is not routinely noted to be deficient following gastric bypass, unlike the other fat-soluble vitamins.
A 52-year-old man underwent a single session of cryolipolysis. BMI before the session was 28.5 kg/m2. The session lasted 1 hour and a large applicator was used over the infraumbilical abdominal region. After the procedure, mild edema with cutaneous erythema was noted. Two months after cryolipolysis, the treated area progressively increased in size. The area was painless but firmer and thicker than the surrounding abdominal tissue. These findings are most suggestive of which of the following conditions?
A) Hematoma
B) Lymphocele
C) Paradoxical adipose hyperplasia
D) Seroma
E) Weight gain
The correct response is Option C.
Cryolipolysis is a minimally invasive technique for decreasing localized areas of adiposity using thermal cooling. It was approved for use on the abdomen by the Food and Drug Administration in 2010. Paradoxical adipose hyperplasia (PAH) is a known complication of cryolipolysis and is usually characterized by localized hypertrophy of fat in a treated area. Risk factors identified that increase the development of PAH include male sex, large applicator size, abdominal treatment and previous history of cryolipolysis in the area being treated.
According to Poiseuille’s law, with all other factors being equal, which of the following is the approximate amount of fat extraction per unit time through a 5-mm liposuction cannula compared with a 4-mm cannula?
A) 1.25 times more
B) 1.5 times more
C) 2 times more
D) 2.5 times more
E) 4 times more
The correct response is Option D.
Poiseuille’s law governs the flow of liquids through a tube. Flow is related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. Doubling the radius of a tube increasing flow by a factor of 16. Thus the ratio can be calculated as (r1 / r2)4.
In this case, the calculated answer is (2.5/2)4 is 2.44, or approximately 2.5 times more flow. Thus, during liposuction, smaller cannulas extract the fat more slowly, allowing for finer work.
In practice, calculation of the actual fat extraction rate also varies with the cannula tip design, length of tubing and homogeneity of the fatty aspirate. Computerized models for flow calculations exist.
A 43-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation and treatment of excess subcutaneous tissue in the lower abdomen following cryolipolysis treatments 6 months ago in this area. The area is nontender, soft, mobile, and not discrete. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
A) Liposuction
B) Massage
C) Repeat cryolipolysis
D) Steroid injection
The correct response is Option A.
This patient has paradoxical adipose hyperplasia (PAH) which is a rare side effect of cryolipolysis. This rare complication usually presents several months after the initial therapy, and the incidence is less than 1%. Treatment of larger areas of PAH usually involves waiting 6 to 9 months for soft tissue to soften and then performing liposuction and/or abdominoplasty to remove the affected area.
While massage following cryolipolysis is commonly described to improve efficacy, there are no data to support massage for PAH.
There are no data to suggest injection of steroids has any effect on PAH.
A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic desiring body contouring surgery. She underwent gastric bypass surgery 2 years ago and has excess skin involving the arms, thighs, breasts, and abdomen. Circumferential body-lift and mastopexy using barbed sutures for dermal closure are planned. Which of the following outcomes is an advantage of using running barbed sutures compared to traditional interrupted suture techniques in this patient?
A) Decreased major postoperative complications
B) Decreased operative time
C) Improved scar aesthestics
D) Improved scar strength
The correct response is Option B.
Barbed sutures are available today from several manufacturers and in several styles. They have gained popularity due to advantages over traditional suture techniques.
Several studies utilizing barbed suture versus traditional closure have demonstrated decreased length of surgery leading to overall decreased operative time and improved surgeon satisfaction. Barbed suture itself is more expensive, but overall cost savings may be noted due to shorter total duration of surgery.
There are no studies demonstrating significant differences in tensile strength of the scar. Several studies have demonstrated scar aesthetics are equivalent. Overall, major complication rates are similar; although studies have suggested higher rates of suture extrusion and minor wound healing complications.
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office for large-volume liposuction of the abdomen, back, hips, and thighs. She has no history of medical issues. Tumescent liposuction using an infiltrate that contains lidocaine is performed. Thirty minutes into the procedure, the patient is noted to have tremors and a seizure. Several minutes later, the anesthesiologist states that the patient has a ventricular arrhythmia. Administration of which of the following agents is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Dantrolene
B) Flumazenil
C) Lipid emulsion
D) Naloxone
E) Steroids
The correct response is Option C.
The patient is experiencing local anesthetic systemic toxicity related to the lidocaine infiltration. Patients experience nervous system effects and can progress to cardiovascular effects. Early findings associated with lidocaine toxicity include perioral numbness, metallic taste, anxiety, muscle twitching, and seizures. Cardiovascular findings can include tachycardia and hypertension that can progress to ventricular arrhythmias and, ultimately, asystole.
Treatment of lidocaine toxicity includes advanced cardiac life support and administration of a bolus of 20% lipid emulsion.
Dantrolene is used for the treatment of malignant hypothermia. Flumazenil is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose. Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, is used to treat an overdose due to opioids. Corticosteroids have been proposed along with supportive therapy for the treatment of fat embolism.
A 48-year-old man presents with a history of 140-lb (63.5-kg) weight loss and moderate upper extremity adiposity with skin excess. Brachioplasty is performed. One week postoperatively, the patient reports numbness of the area in the image shown. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected in this patient?
A) Inferior lateral
B) Lateral antebrachial
C) Medial antebrachial
D) Posterior antebrachial
E) Posterior brachial

The correct response is Option C.
The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve represents the sensory distribution shown in the illustration of the arm. This includes the skin of the anterior and medial surface of the forearm as far down as the palmar side of the wrist. This nerve also innervates the medial and posterior sides of the elbow area. Due to its anatomical course, the nerve may become easily injured.
The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve originates from roots C8 and T1, and it branches from the medial cord of the brachial plexus just distal to the medial brachial cutaneous nerve and just proximal to the ulnar nerve. The nerve descends into the arm anterior and medial to the brachial artery. It lies on the ulnar side next to the biceps muscle as it runs distally. The nerve branches into an anterior and posterior branch just proximal and anterior to the medial epicondyle. The nerve provides sensation to the medial forearm and includes an anterior and a posterior branch. The posterior branch provides sensation to the resting surface of the elbow and forearm. The anterior division is expendable for graft material. Injury to this nerve during surgical procedures can lead to sensory loss and painful neuroma formation.
The adjacent sensory distribution includes:
Lateral/anterior: lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Lateral/posterior: posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Distal/anterior: palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
Distal/posterior: dorsal cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is incorrect. It originates from C5, C6, and C7 and is the terminal part of the musculocutaneous nerve. It innervates the lateral forearm.
The inferior lateral cutaneous nerve arises from C5 and C6 and branches from the radial nerve to provide sensory and vasomotor innervation to the lower lateral aspect of the arm.
The posterior brachial cutaneous nerve arises from C5, C6, C7, and C8 and branches from the radial nerve to innervate the posterior aspect of the arm.
The posterior antebrachial nerve originates from roots C5, C6, C7, and C8 and branches from the radial nerve just distal to the posterior brachial cutaneous nerve in the axilla. It provides sensation to the posterior cutaneous aspect of the forearm.

A 28-year-old woman with history of lipodystrophy of the abdomen and waist is scheduled for suction-assisted lipectomy under general anesthesia. On the day of surgery, the anesthesiologist is planning intravenous fluid management of the patient and requests more information about the volume infusion plan for the wetting solution. The surgeon anticipates 1.5 L of lipoaspirate. For employment of a superwet technique, which of the following is the appropriate amount of fluid for the patient to receive in subcutaneous tissue infiltration?
A) 0 mL
B) 375 mL
C) 750 mL
D) 1500 mL
E) 3000 mL
The correct response is Option D.
Originally, liposuction was performed without wetting solutions, however, this technique was associated with a reported estimated blood loss of up to 45% of aspirate. Infiltrating wetting solutions with a base of normal saline or Ringer’s lactate with additives (e.g., epinephrine and lidocaine) prior to suctioning improves hemostasis and pain control. The current options for wetting solutions are dry, wet, superwet, and tumescent. The dry technique is rarely used and no wetting solution is infused. The wet technique employs injection of a standard 200 to 300 mL of wetting solution per anatomic area to be treated, irrespective of the anticipated lipoaspirate. The superwet technique is predicated on a 1:1 ratio of 1 mL of solution instilled per 1 mL of aspirate. True tumescent infiltration involves infiltration at a ratio of 2:1 or 3:1 of wetting solution per mL of expected lipoaspirate.
The use of 0 mL of fluid denotes a dry technique, 375 mL is a wet technique, 750 mL does not fall into any category, and 3000 mL is a tumescent technique.
A 28-year-old man presents with concerns of excess fullness of the lower abdomen and flanks. He is not interested in undergoing any surgical intervention. Noninvasive body contouring with cryolipolysis is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the mechanism of action of this treatment?
A) Adipocyte apoptosis with inflammatory cell infiltration
B) B cell lymphocytes tissue invasion at 3 months
C) Cellular edema and increased Na-K-ATPase activity
D) Cytosolic calcium level depletion
E) Peak cellular inflammation at 7 days
The correct response is Option A.
Cryolipolysis is one of the most recent forms of noninvasive fat reduction to emerge. “The development behind cryolipolysis stems from the clinical observation of cold-induced panniculitis.” In this technique, an applicator is applied to the targeted area and set at a 44 degrees Fahrenheit temperature for a preset period of time. This targets adipocytes while sparing the skin, nerves, vessels, and muscles.
The initial insult of crystallization and cold ischemic injury induced by cryolipolysis is further compounded by ischemia reperfusion injury, causing generation of reactive oxygen species, elevation of cytosolic calcium levels, and activation of apoptotic pathways.
This cold ischemic injury may promote cellular injury in adipose tissue via cellular edema, reduced Na-K-ATPase activity, reduced adenosine triphosphate, elevated lactic acid levels, and mitochondrial free radical release.
Another mechanism proposes that, ultimately, crystallization and cold ischemic injury of the targeted adipocytes induce apoptosis of these cells and a pronounced inflammatory response, resulting in their eventual removal from the treatment site within the following weeks.
Most studies demonstrate an inflammatory response at different stages after cryolipolysis, with inflammatory cell infiltrates peaking at 30 days.
Histologic studies show that within 3 months, macrophages are mostly responsible for clearing the damaged cells and debris.
A 38-year-old woman undergoes abdominoplasty surgery. During the procedure, the surgeon notes significant midline diastasis recti abdominis and opts to repair the defect from the level of the xyphoid process to just above the symphysis pubis. To decrease the pain associated with the procedure, the surgeon decides to administer bupivacaine liposome injectable suspension. For optimal pain control, which of the following planes above the level of the umbilicus is the most appropriate site of injection?
A) At the anterior rectus sheath
B) Between the external abdominal oblique and internal abdominal oblique muscles
C) Between the internal abdominal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles
D) Between the transversalis fascia and preperitoneal fat
E) Between the transverse abdominal muscle and the transversalis fascia
The correct response is Option C.
A recent finding emphasizes the two-wound model after abdominal surgery. The first model is the somatic wound which corresponds to the abdominal wall. The second model is the autonomic wound which corresponds to the peritoneal layer and visceral component.
The intercostal nerves (arising from T6 to T12) and ilioinguinal/iliohypogastric nerves (arising from L1) provide sensation to the abdominal wall. These nerves are easily blocked throughout their course between the abdominal muscles.
After emerging from the paravertebral space, the intercostal nerves are located coursing between the transversus and the internal abdominal oblique muscles. This anatomic plane is called the transversus abdominis plane (TAP). At the anterior superior iliac spine, the ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves, which were previously located in the TAP move to the space between the internal abdominal oblique and external abdominal oblique muscles. These nerves provide sensation to the inguinal region along with the skin around the pubic symphysis.
A 39-year-old woman presents for an abdominoplasty. She has a family history of thrombosis. Her only current medication is an oral contraceptive. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Which of the following factors has the largest impact on this patient’s risk for deep venous thrombosis?
A) Abdominoplasty
B) Age
C) BMI
D) Family history of thrombosis
E) Oral contraceptive use
The correct response is Option D.
It is recommended that plastic surgeons use the 2005 Caprini scale to assess the risk for deep venous thrombosis. On the basis of this scale, the patient’s family history of thrombosis contributes three points to her overall Caprini score.
The patient’s age, BMI, and use of birth control pills each contribute 1 point to her score.
Abdominoplasty would be considered a major surgery since the time for surgery is longer than 45 minutes. As a result, this would contribute two points to the patient’s Caprini score. While many surgeons consider abdominoplasty to carry one of the highest risks for deep venous thrombosis, this conclusion has not been supported by a review of the literature.
A post-bariatric surgery patient with excess medial arm skin is scheduled to undergo posteromedial scar-approach brachioplasty. Which of the following is the most likely advantage of this method of brachioplasty compared with other techniques?
A) Hidden location of the surgical scar
B) High mechanical stress on the surgical incision and scar
C) High risk for surgical scar widening and hypertrophy
D) Long surgical scar length
The correct response is Option A.
The brachioplasty or arm reduction approach for this type of patient would entail making a longitudinal excision of skin and subcutaneous fat running the full length of the arm, from axilla to elbow.
Brachioplasty is a body-contouring procedure often done in bariatric surgery patients who demonstrate laxity and tissue excess of the arms following weight loss.
The brachioplasty approach utilizing the posteromedial incision has been shown to minimize tension on the surgical incision, which leads to better scarring and less visibility of the arm scars.




