Cosmetic Rhinoplasty 01-22, 24 Flashcards
A patient presents for consultation for reconstruction of a saddle deformity following nasal trauma. Structural support for dorsal augmentation and lengthening of the nose is required. Which of the following is most likely to result in secondary development of nasal asymmetry during the early postoperative period?
A) Alloplastic implant
B) Cantilevered costal bone graft
C) Cantilevered cranial bone graft
D) Carved costal cartilage graft
E) Diced cartilage graft
The correct response is Option D.
Multiple techniques have been described for dorsal augmentation in rhinoplasty. Carved costal cartilage offers structural support for both dorsal augmentation and lengthening of the nose. There is a large amount of donor material available, but carved rib cartilage is prone to warping and may result in the development of secondary deformity. Techniques, such as concentric carving and insertion of a k-wire into the graft, have been used to mitigate this, but success is very technique-dependent. Dorsal augmentation with bone grafts, such as cranial bone graft and rib, are more subject to bone resorption than warping. Diced cartilage grafts offer dorsal augmentation but do not offer structural support to lengthen the nose. These grafts are malleable in the postoperative period and potentially allow correction of minor asymmetries.
Nasal augmentation with alloplastic implants is common in Asian countries. These implants carry a risk for infection, extrusion, capsule contracture, and malposition. While rare, these complications can be severe and result in secondary deformity.
A 28-year-old woman undergoes a septorhinoplasty. Fracture of the septal L-strut will most likely result in which of the following complications?
A) Bossa formation
B) Open roof deformity
C) Pollybeak deformity
D) Rocker deformity
E) Saddle-nose deformity
The correct response is Option E.
The keystone area of the nose is the junction of the cartilaginous and bony dorsum where the paired upper lateral cartilages, septal cartilage, bony septum, and paired nasal bones meet. Much like the keystone in an archway, if this area is damaged, the archway collapses. In the case of the nose, a fracture of the septal cartilage and the bony cartilage can result in instability and collapse of the septal cartilage and middle third of the nose into the pyriform, resulting in the saddle-nose deformity. When performing a septoplasty, preservation of a 1- cm caudal × 1-cm dorsal L-strut is recommended to preserve structural integrity. Regardless of the size of the L-strut, an unrecognized intraoperative fracture can result in a saddle-nose deformity.
Bossa are knob-like projections of alar cartilage irregularities through the skin. These can form as a result of overaggressive suturing, resulting in buckling or flexing of the cartilage, cutting of the cartilages, or scar tissue contraction of the cartilages.
An open roof deformity can be seen after a dorsal hump reduction. This is the result of seeing the separation between the sidewalls of the nose and the septum through the nasal skin as the skin falls unsupported into the grooves. This deformity can be corrected either by narrowing the separation by infracture of the nasal bones or by filling the defect with spreader grafts.
A pollybeak deformity is fullness in the supratip region of the nose. This can appear as a result of ptosis of the tip in relationship to distal dorsal septum, resection of the distal dorsal septum, or scar formation in the supratip region.
A rocker deformity can occur after nasal osteotomies that go into the thicker bones above the level of the canthus and into the nasofrontal region. When the distal nasal bone is infractured medially, the superior portion of the segment moves (rocks out) laterally.
A 39-year-old man undergoes rhinoplasty at the practice. Six months after the procedure, he is displeased with the outcome and notes mild persistent tip deviation. After seeking three opinions from plastic surgeons in the community who all agree to care for him, he returns to the practice and insists that the original surgeon fix his nose because he knows that surgeon is “the best.” This patient most likely has which of the following psychological disorders?
A) Bipolar disorder
B) Body dysmorphic disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder
The correct response is Option D.
Identification of various personality or psychiatric disorders prior to administering aesthetic care for patients can minimize social issues that can arise with the physician-patient relationship. Body dysmorphic disorder is hallmarked by pervasive and intrusive thoughts about a physical element (arm contour, for example) and may occupy several hours a day, causing severe distress and impairing one’s otherwise normal activities. The diagnosed individual is often the only person who can see the affliction. Histrionic personality disorder (HPD) is characterized by a pattern of excessive attention-seeking behaviors. This includes inappropriate seduction and an excessive desire for approval. People diagnosed with HPD are often lively, dramatic, vivacious, enthusiastic, and flirtatious. Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) patients have a grandiose sense of self-importance and are preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, brilliance, beauty, or ideal love. These patients have a sense of entitlement (i.e., unreasonable expectations of especially favorable treatment or automatic compliance with their expectations). The ironic hallmark of the patient with NPD is that they often return for cosmetic surgery even if they are dissatisfied with the initial results. Bipolar disorder patients have extremes in mood/behavior: mania and depression. This mental illness is hallmarked by severe high and low moods and changes in sleep, energy, thinking, and behavior. These patients have periods of feeling overly happy and energized and other periods of feeling very sad, hopeless, and sluggish.
A 32-year-old man wants both cosmetic and functional improvement of his nose. He is scheduled for open rhinoplasty, submucous resection of the septum, spreader grafts, and submucous reduction of the inferior turbinates. Which of the following can be mixed with the local anesthesia to best decrease intraoperative bleeding during the rhinoplasty?
A) Aprotinin
B) Hyaluronic acid
C) Ketorolac
D) Tissue plasminogen activator
E) Tranexamic acid
The correct response is Option E.
Tranexamic acid inhibits fibrinolysis, which strengthens clots and decreases bleeding. Tranexamic acid has been shown to decrease bleeding in many plastic surgical procedures including rhinoplasty, rhytidectomy, liposuction, reduction mammaplasty, and abdominoplasty, as well as others. The method of giving tranexamic acid includes intravenous, oral, topical, and local infiltration. Studies have failed to show an increased risk for thromboembolic events. The therapeutic results last for at least 17 hours. When mixed with local anesthesia, the most common doses are 1 to 2 mg/mL. Use of tranexamic acid in plastic surgery is increasingly popular but is presently off-label.
Aprotinin also prohibits fibrinolysis; however, this drug was removed from the market in the United States because of increased mortality associated with its use. Tissue plasminogen activator activates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which dissolves clots and can increase bleeding. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and inhibits platelet function. Hyaluronic acid has not been shown to decrease bleeding.
A 62-year-old married man presents for rhinoplasty with concerns for airway obstruction. He reports that he is generally unhappy with his nasal tip and that the appearance interferes with his work relationships. Which of the following patient characteristics is the strongest indicator for body dysmorphic disorder?
A) Age
B) Concerns of airway obstruction
C) Marital status
D) Report that nose affects his work relationships
E) Unhappiness with nasal tip
The correct response is Option D.
Surgeons should avoid patients who are described as “SIMON,” single, immature, male, overly expectant, and narcissistic. Male patients can have more difficulty describing their specific concerns with the aesthetic appearance of their noses, and it can be very challenging to meet expectations. They may also disguise their true motives involving rhinoplasty.
The correct answer is the patient’s report that his nose affects his work relationships. People with body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) will place a very large emphasis on the physical area that they are focused on and believe that changing the area will improve their relationships.
Concerns of airway obstruction are incorrect because male patients may disguise their true motives for seeking a rhinoplasty; this is a valid concern and can be investigated during the clinical examination.
This patient is married, which is not known to be risk factor for male rhinoplasty patients and BDD. v His age is not a known risk factor for male rhinoplasty patients and BDD.
Having a complaint about a specific part of the nose is not a known risk factor for BDD
A 45-year-old man presents 1 year after a “nose surgery” for a crooked nose and reports subjective nasal obstruction. He is diagnosed with empty nose syndrome. Overresection of which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Inferior turbinates
B) Lower lateral cartilage
C) Middle turbinates
D) Septal cartilage
E) Upper lateral cartilage
The correct response is Option A.
Empty nose syndrome is characterized by a subjective sensation of nasal obstruction in the context of adequate nasal space. The differential diagnosis includes chronic rhinosinusitis, atrophic rhinitis, and autoimmune processes, and it can be diagnosed, in part, by alleviation of symptoms after the placement of a moist piece of cotton in the nose. Empty nose syndrome occurs in patients who have had turbinate surgery, and overresection of the inferior turbinates is the most common cause; some authors describe inferior turbinate resection as the “classic” cause. While middle turbinate resection can also be associated with empty nose syndrome, the middle turbinates are rarely resected during rhinoplasty. Instead, they are resected during endoscopic sinus surgery.
Resection of the upper lateral cartilage can be performed to correct middle vault deviation, and the upper lateral cartilage can be affected during dorsal hump reduction. The internal nasal valve is comprised of the nasal septum and the upper lateral cartilage; it does not contribute to empty nose syndrome. Resection of septal cartilage—both for septal cartilage graft harvest and to correct underlying septal pathology—can lead to complication, including hematoma, adhesions, structural deformity, and septal perforation, among others. It is not, however, associated with empty nose syndrome. Overresection of the lower lateral cartilage can lead to structural problems, such as inadequate tip support or alar ptosis. The lower lateral cartilage is not involved in empty nose syndrome.
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic with difficulty breathing. Clinical examination shows a septal deviation with contralateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy. On application of topical nasal decongestant, there is no resolution of the inferior turbinate hypertrophy. In addition to surgical correction of the deviated septum, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the contralateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy?
A) Complete inferior turbinectomy
B) Inferior turbinate outfracture
C) Submucosal resection
D) No additional correction is needed
The correct response is Option C.
Nasal septal deviations are commonly associated with nasal obstruction. Septal deviations can lead to compensatory hypertrophy of the contralateral inferior turbinate. It is important to differentiate between mucosal and bony hypertrophy. Mucosal hypertrophy typically responds well to topical nasal decongestant. This patient had no response with topical decongestant, signifying a primarily bony hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate.
While treating airway obstruction related to nasal septal deviations, it is important to address both the nasal septal deviation and the contralateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy, because straightening of the nasal septum will lead to narrowing of the airway if the contralateral inferior turbinate hypertrophy is not addressed.
The inferior turbinate has an important role in normal nasal physiology, and complete inferior turbinectomy is not advised since it leads to dryness, bleeding, mucosal crusting, ciliary dysfunction, chronic infection, malodorous nasal drainage, or atrophic rhinitis. In patients with nasal airway obstruction secondary to bony hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate, submucosal resection is the more appropriate treatment.
In patients with primarily mucosal hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate, inferior turbinate outfracture is usually adequate.
A 25-year-old man is concerned about the drooping tip of his nose. On physical examination, he has a dorsal hump, poor tip support, a drooping tip, excessive columella show, and a long caudal septum. Which of the following surgical maneuvers is best to correct this patient’s nasal deformity?
A) Caudal septal tongue-in-groove technique
B) Columellar strut graft
C) Lateral crura spanning sutures
D) Medial foot plate excision
E) Transdomal suture
The correct response is Option A.
To correct this patient’s deformity, control of tip support, projection, and rotation is essential. A septal tongue-in-groove technique will provide more reliable control of the tip. This is similar to a tongue-in-groove septal extension graft; however, because this patient has adequate caudal septal length, the medial crura can be elevated and rotated onto the native caudal septum. If the septum has too much length, which is rare, the caudal septum can be shortened. The tradeoff in this technique is stiffness of the tip.
Columella strut is much less reliable and unnecessary because there is adequate septal length. Medial foot plate excision (removes prominent foot plates) will not correct a drooping tip. Transdomal sutures (narrow nasal tip) and lateral crura spanning sutures (straighten convex/concave lower lateral cartilages) will not correct this deformity.
A 36-year-old woman presents for cosmetic rhinoplasty. Examination shows a retracted columella, underprojection, and underrotation of the nasal tip, along with a prominent dorsal hump. An open rhinoplasty is planned. Which of the following grafts is most likely to preserve tip rotation with time in this patient?
A) Batten
B) Columellar strut
C) Onlay
D) Septal extension
E) Spreader
The correct response is Option D.
Nasal tip refinement is one of the most critical aspects of rhinoplasty surgery. Control of the position is critical for long-term results. It is influenced by surgical approach, maneuvers, and postoperative healing. Tip support is reliant on not only the crura and ligaments holding them together, but also on the grafts utilized to support the repair. The two most common grafts that provide a great deal of support for the tip are the columellar strut graft and the septal extension graft. Although both will result in some degree of loss of projection and rotation in the immediate postoperative period, both will have similar preservation of tip projection. However, the septal extension graft is noted to have better preservation of tip rotation with time in comparison with the columellar strut graft. The remaining grafts listed do not affect the projection and rotation of the nasal tip as powerfully. Septal extension graft will more effectively lengthen a shortened caudal septum more effectively than a columella strut alone.
Which of the following treatments for inferior turbinate hypertrophy is most likely to preserve mucosal function while maximizing symptom relief?
A) Electrocautery
B) Laser cautery
C) Partial turbinectomy
D) Submucous resection
E) Turbinate outfracture
The correct response is Option D.
Submucous resection of the inferior turbinate is the most likely treatment to provide symptom relief and preserve function.
The inferior turbinate warms and moisturizes the air during breathing. Surgery is indicated for patients who have nasal obstruction refractory to medical management. Surgical treatment has focused on tissue reduction.
Submucous resection removes some of the underlying bone with preservation of overlying mucosa. It provides the largest improvement in nasal airflow, and it is the only treatment that has been shown to restore mucociliary clearance and secretory production. Complications include synechiae, crusting, and bleeding.
Partial turbinectomy involves selectively trimming of the inferior turbinate. It provides long-lasting relief but it does not preserve the function of the mucosa and has high a complication rate.
Turbinate outfracture attempts to lateralize the inferior turbinate with a blunt instrument. No objective data have been found to support long-term improvement. Early recurrence occurred in more than 50% of cases.
Electrocautery and laser cautery work by creating tissue injury and subsequent fibrosis. Long-lasting results have not been reported.
A 27-year-old woman presents to the office because of difficulty breathing. Medical history includes closed rhinoplasty with dorsal hump removal and septoplasty 3 years ago. Physical examination shows a narrowed mid vault with an inverted V deformity. Which of the following grafts is most likely to correct the patient’s condition?
A) Alar batten
B) Dorsal onlay
C) Dorsal sidewall onlay
D) Shield
E) Spreader
The correct response is Option E.
This patient has collapse of the upper lateral cartilages onto the nasal septum. This is the result of the dorsal hump reduction that released the upper lateral cartilages from the septum and then unsupported allows the upper lateral cartilages to collapse inward. The inverted V deformity is the result of the upper lateral cartilages collapsing inward away from the nasal bones, exposing their underlying shape (the inverted V shape of the piriform aperture). This also results in narrowing of the lateral dorsal aesthetic lines of the nose. This narrowing of the mid-vault of the nose is seen internally as a narrowing of the internal nasal valve.
The placement of spreader grafts between the septum and upper lateral cartilages will correct the inverted V deformity, widen the dorsal aesthetic lines, and open the internal nasal valve.
Placement of an alar batten graft, dorsal onlay graft, dorsal sidewall onlay graft, and/or shield grafts will not correct the inverted V deformity, dorsal aesthetic lines, or open the internal nasal valve. Thus their placement will not correct the aesthetic or functional issue seen in this patient.
An alar batten graft can be used to support and strengthen the alae. They often will be used to strengthen an overresected lateral crura. These grafts can also correct collapse of the external nasal valve.
A dorsal onlay graft is used to augment the dorsum or hide asymmetries.
A dorsal sidewall graft is used to camouflage depressions or asymmetries of the upper lateral cartilages. These grafts, however, will not open the internal nasal valve and will not have an effect on breathing.
A shield graft is used to improve nasal tip aesthetics. It can project the tip and create tip defining points.
Which of the following structures is associated with the anatomical boundaries of the internal nasal valve?
A) Anterior edge of the vomer
B) Anterior middle turbinate
C) Caudal border of the upper lateral cartilage
D) Cephalic border of the lower lateral cartilage
E) Foot plate of the medial crus
The correct response is option C.
The internal nasal valve is the narrowest point along the upper airway. Its cross-sectional area is determined by the anatomical boundaries. These comprise the caudal border of the upper lateral cartilage superiorly, the anterior inferior turbinate posteriorly, the caudal septum medially, the nasal floor inferiorly and the pyriform margin laterally. Numerous techniques have been described to stabilize internal nasal valve narrowing by graft/stabilization of the upper lateral cartilage to prevent collapse medially
An otherwise healthy, 40-year-old woman has a nasal deformity requiring reconstruction. A composite auricular graft is planned. Problems in which of the following anatomic areas of the nose will most likely benefit from this kind of reconstructive method?
A) Dorsum
B) Internal nasal valve
C) Sidewall
D) Tip
E) Vestibular lining
The correct response is Option E.
The anatomic area of the nose where a composite auricular graft would most likely be used is in the vestibular lining. In the event of alar retraction secondary to vestibular lining shortage, composite grafts have proven to be very effective in providing cartilaginous support in addition to lining. Alar retraction is caused by a shortage of vestibular lining. This shortage may be intrinsic, but more often it is secondary to contraction from scarring or prior surgery. If the alar retraction is caused by a shortage of vestibular lining, replacement or recruitment of nasal lining is required for adequate correction. The auricular composite graft is one method of replacing vestibular lining while also providing cartilaginous support. Following harvest of a composite graft of conchal cartilage and skin, an incision is placed within the vestibule parallel to the alar rim in the area of deficiency. Dissection is carried out to release scarring and facilitate mobility for caudal repositioning of the alar rim. The composite graft is then placed as an intervening graft within the incision and sutured in place.
The other options are usually not areas where such grafts are used.
A 45-year-old woman presents for rhinoplasty evaluation. The patient is dissatisfied with the downward movement of her nasal tip when she smiles. Which of the following muscles is responsible for this motion?
A) Alar nasalis
B) Depressor septi nasi
C) Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi
D) Procerus
E) Transverse nasalis
The correct response is Option B.
The muscles of the nose contribute to its dynamic motion. The depressor septi nasi originates from the incisive fossa of the maxilla and inserts into the nasal septum and posterior aspect of the alar nasalis. It depresses the nasal septum and causes the nasal tip to move downward on animation and narrows the columellar labial angle. Release of this muscle during rhinoplasty will reduce the nasal tip depression during animation, but can also cause upper lip ptosis.
The nasalis muscle consists of two parts: the alar nasalis and the transverse nasalis. The alar nasalis, also called the pars alaris or dilator naris, originates from the maxilla and inserts along the lateral crura. It has variable development and helps to open the external nasal valve.The transverse nasalis originates from the maxilla and traverses the nose, with a thin aponeurosis over the midline. It elongates the nose and constricts the nostrils.The levator labii superior alaeque nasi originates from the nasal bone and inserts into the nostril and upper lip, and dilates the nostrils and elevates the upper lip. It is also known as Otto’s muscle, and is the longest-named mammalian muscle.The procerus muscle depresses the glabella and assists in nostril flare.
A patient comes to the office because he is interested in rhinoplasty. He is generally satisfied with the shape of his nose when he is in repose, but he says that his nose becomes distorted when he laughs or talks. Which of the following muscles is the most likely cause of this finding?
A) Corrugator supercilii
B) Depressor septi nasi
C) Levator labii alaeque nasi
D) Orbicularis oris
E) Procerus
The correct response is Option B.
The depressor septi nasi originates on the upper lip and inserts at the base of the nose on both the septum and alae. When this muscle contracts in animation, it may pull the tip of the nose down, decrease the nasolabial angle, and elevate the upper lip. The labii alaeque nasi dilates the nostrils and lifts the upper lip. The procerus muscle lies between the eyebrows and functions to depress the medial eyebrows. Contraction creates the horizontal wrinkle at the nasion. Finally the corrugator supercilii is a pyramidal shaped muscle on the medial part of the supraorbital ridge which, when contracted, moves the eyebrows medially creating vertical wrinkles between the eyes.
A 17-year-old woman wants improvement of a large dorsal hump, hanging columella, and bulbous tip with vertically oriented lower lateral cartilages. The patient refuses the use of septal cartilage grafts. Which of the following surgical maneuvers will best avoid a dorsal inverted V deformity?
A) Internal silicone splint
B) Lateral crus mattress suture
C) Subdomalgraft
D) Tongue-in-groove tip support
E) Upper lateral spanning sutures
The correct response is Option E.
The inverted V deformity refers to the visibility of the caudal edge of the nasal bones caused by collapse of upper lateral cartilages. Dorsal reduction rhinoplasty removes the structural support provided by the connection of the dorsal septum to the paired upper lateral cartilages. The lateral cartilages have a tendency to then splay, distort, and collapse posteriorly. This can narrow the internal nasal valve and cause airway narrowing as well as aesthetic distortion of the dorsal aesthetic lines. Following takedown of a dorsal hump, upper lateral spanning sutures are used to re-establish the proper relationship of the dorsal medial edges of the upper lateral cartilages and the septum.
Use of spreader grafts will also re-establish this anatomy; however, it requires harvesting cartilage from the septum, more extensive surgery, and increased complications. In patients who require a wider angle at the internal nasal valve, the excess dorsal aspect of the upper lateral cartilages can be folded over on itself to create its own spreader graft, avoiding the need for a septal graft.
Tongue-in-groove refers to overlapping the medial crura onto the caudal septum. With an adequate caudal septum, this replaces the need for a columella graft but it will not effectively prevent inverted V deformity.
A subdomal graft is used to control the shape of the nasal tip. The cartilage removed from the dorsal hump can be used for this purpose without formal septal harvesting but the risk for a dorsal inverted V deformity does not change.
Lateral crus mattress sutures are used to straighten a concave or convex lateral crus.
Internal nasal splints are used to provide temporary postoperative support of the septum following septoplasty.
Which of the following rhinoplasty techniques is most likely to result in alar rim notching, retraction, or collapse?
A) Cephalic trim of the lower lateral cartilages
B) Failure to place a columellar strut graft
C) Failure to place spreader grafts
D) Inadequate transdomal sutures
E) Migration of a cartilage tip onlay graft
The correct response is Option A.
Of all of the options, the only one that would affect the appearance of the alar rims is the maneuver that affects the lower lateral cartilages. Weakened or overly resected lower lateral cartilages would have a tendency to result in deformities of the alar rims.
Migration of a cartilage tip onlay graft, failure to place a columellar strut graft, and inadequate transdomal sutures would affect the appearance of the nasal tip.
Failure to place spreader grafts would affect the internal nasal valve but have minimal change to the appearance of the nose.
Which of the following deformities in a patient with nasal airway obstruction is best treated with a spreader graft?
A) Bulbous tip
B) Dorsal nasal hump
C) External orifice laxity
D) Inferior turbinate hypertrophy
E) Internal nasal valve narrowing
The correct response is Option E.
All of the options can create decreased airflow on inspiration and can be improved with surgical maneuvers. The spreader graft placed between the septum and upper lateral cartilages is used to increase the internal nasal valve angle, thereby increasing inspiratory nasal air flow. Septal deviation could cause airway obstruction, but would best be treated with a septoplasty to remove septal cartilage narrowing the airway on the affected side. Significant inferior turbinate hypertrophy would be treated surgically with either fracture or resection, and external skin laxity or external nasal valve collapse would best be treated with stabilization using a cartilage graft on the lateral alar segment. Placing a spreader graft to widen the internal valve would not improve airflow in any of the other choices. Dorsal nasal hump and bulbous tip are not addressed by this maneuver.
A 35-year-old woman is evaluated because of persistent nasal airway obstruction after undergoing nasal airway surgery and rhinoplasty 6 months ago. Physical examination, including anterior rhinoscopy, demonstrates a midline septum and nasal dorsum with no evidence of nasal valve collapse. Which of the following nasal airway procedures is most commonly associated with empty nose syndrome?
A) Inferior turbinate electrocautery
B) Inferior turbinate resection
C) Microdebrider inferior turbinoplasty
D) Radiofrequency ablation inferior turbinoplasty
E) Submucosal resection septoplasty
The correct response is Option B.
The nasal airway procedure most commonly associated with empty nose syndrome is inferior turbinate resection. Empty nose syndrome is a clinical syndrome characterized by recalcitrant and paradoxical symptoms of nasal obstruction and suffocation despite a widely patent nasal airway. It is encountered as a postsurgical phenomenon associated with the loss of nasal tissues. This condition is also associated with a significant psychological burden. While the etiology of the condition remains unclear, its association with nasal surgeries, particularly with surgical manipulation of the inferior turbinate, is well-documented. Appreciation of this potential clinical syndrome may help nasal surgeons avoid secondary interventions that are potentially low-yield.
While empty nose syndrome has been reported after a great variety of nasal surgeries, it is most commonly associated with over-aggressive resection of the inferior turbinate. Patients with empty nose syndrome have a significantly smaller inferior turbinate volume compared to control groups on CT analysis. While any inferior turbinate surgery could potentially result in empty nose syndrome, it is much less commonly associated with submucosal reductions of the glandular tissue of the inferior turbinate. Microdebrider inferior turbinoplasty, radiofrequency inferior turbinoplasty, and electrocautery inferior turbinoplasty all represent different energy sources to accomplish the submucosal reductions from inferior turbinate hypertrophy.
All inferior turbinoplasties, compared with inferior turbinate resections, are less commonly associated with empty nose syndrome and maintain the bony structure and mucosal coverage of the inferior turbinate. A recent meta-analysis suggests there are no differences between the two most common techniques, microdebrider and radiofrequency, in overall efficacy for nasal obstruction. Similarly, the risk for complications, including persistent nasal obstruction (including the possibility of empty nose syndrome), between these two techniques is similar. Septoplasty is the most common nasal surgery for nasal obstruction, and the submucosal technique is the most frequently employed. This technique has the advantage of maintaining the nasal mucosa while repairing the structural causes of nasal airway obstruction.
Submucosal resection septoplasty is incorrect because there are limited reports of empty nose syndrome associated with septoplasty.
A 26-year-old woman is evaluated because she has difficulty breathing out of her right nostril. Physical examination shows the nasal septum is deviated to the right. The nasal dorsum is straight, and the nasal tip is slightly underprojected. A septoplasty is planned. Which of the following incisions is most appropriate for accessing the septum?
A) Intercartilaginous
B) Killian
C) Marginal
D) Rim
E) Weir
The correct response is Option B.
A Killian incision is made 1-2 cm posterior to the caudal edge of the septum and provides access to the septum for a septoplasty. It is the most appropriate of the choices listed. While the Killian incision does not provide access to the caudal septal angle, it preserves tip support. The transfixion incision, which obtains access to the septum by incising both sides of the membranous septum at its junction with the caudal septum, is sometimes used. Both provide access to the septum, but the transfixion incision disrupts the septal ligaments, which can deproject the nasal tip inversely. When nasal tip deprojection is desired, the transfixion incision is used, and when the nasal tip is slightly under projected, a Killian incision can be considered.
The Weir incision is made at the alar base. The marginal incision is made at the caudal aspect of the lower lateral cartilage, and the rim incision is made at the rim. Though often grouped together, these incisions are distinct. The intercartilaginous incision is made between the upper lateral and lower lateral cartilages. These incisions are not used for septoplasty.
The septum can also be accessed through a transcolumellar approach, which is an open approach.
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for correction of an irregularity of the nasal dorsum following rhinoplasty performed 1 year ago. The patient wants nonsurgical treatment. Hyaluronic acid filler (0.6 mL) is injected into the upper third of the nasal dorsum. Immediately after injection, the patient reports partial loss of vision and pain in the right eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Application of apraclonidine eye drops
B) Intravenous infusion of tissue plasminogen activator
C) Nasal subcutaneous injection of hyaluronidase
D) Percutaneous lateral canthotomy
E) Retrobulbar injection of hyaluronidase
The correct response is Option E.
This patient has symptoms of an intravascular injection of hyaluronic acid (HA) causing occlusion of the central retinal artery. This complication is extremely rare; however, when it occurs, treatment must be immediately instituted because the retinal circulation needs to be restored quickly (within 60 to 90 minutes) for possible reversal of symptoms.
The first line of treatment is to bathe the retinal circulation with hyaluronidase. This is achieved with a retrobulbar injection. Using a 25-gauge needle or cannula, enter the orbit along the orbital floor between the inferior and lateral rectus muscles. Advance the needle along the orbital for at least 1 inch beyond the orbital rim and inject 2 to 4 mL of undiluted hyaluronidase. Hyaluronidase adjacent to an occluded vessel can dissolve an HA embolus.
The likely mechanism of vascular occlusion is an intra-arterial injection of filler under pressure. In this case, the filler would have entered the dorsal nasal artery and traveled retrograde to the ophthalmic artery. Once the injection pressure is released, the filler would then flow antegrade into the central retinal artery which is the terminal branch of the ophthalmic artery.
Tissue plasminogen activator would be indicated for hematologic thrombosis or blood clot embolism, not HA embolus.
Subcutaneous injection of hyaluronidase is indicated for treatment for filler-related vascular compromise secondary to extravascular compression. The goal is to dissipate the extravascular compression of the artery. However, in patients with symptoms of vision loss, the likely diagnosis is a HA embolus and therefore the first injection should be retrobulbar.
Lateral canthotomy is indicated for decompression or a retrobulbar hemorrhage. Reassurance is not a reasonable treatment option as this is an emergency. Apraclonidine is a sympathomimetic eye drop use to stimulate Müller muscle and improve botulinum toxin type A–related ptosis.
A 25-year-old man who underwent septorhinoplasty 6 weeks ago is evaluated because of clear nasal discharge. He notes that the drainage worsens when he bends forward or strains, and the discharge tastes salty. Physical examination shows a small amount of watery drainage from the right nostril. Examination with a nasal speculum shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) MRI of the skull base
B) Testing of fluid for beta-2 transferrin
C) Testing of fluid for glucose
D) Trial of a corticosteroid nasal spray
E) Trial of an oral antihistamine
The correct response is Option B.
The patient in question presents with a history that is suggestive of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak following septoplasty. Patients with such a leak typically have unilateral clear nasal discharge that tastes salty or metallic. Straining, Valsalva maneuver, or leaning forward typically make the drainage worse.
Commonly, rocking or twisting forces applied during the septoplasty cause a traumatic injury to the cribriform plate, with a resultant CSF leak. The injury is more common (2:1) on the right side and is more common in men.
Beta-2 transferrin testing on the CSF fluid is very specific for the injury. This protein is only found in CSF, but the test is not available in all centers. Testing the fluid for glucose is not specific and has a high false-positive rate. MRI of the skull base is not particularly helpful for CSF leaks. High-resolution CT is preferred.
Steroid nasal spray and antihistamines are not used in the management of CSF rhinorrhea.
A 32-year-old woman is evaluated for rhinoplasty. In the course of evaluation, the Cottle maneuver is performed. This test is most likely performed to evaluate which of the following?
A) Collapse of the external nostrils
B) Hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate
C) Patency of the internal nasal valves
D) Presence of septal perforation
E) Septal mucosal thickening
The correct response is Option C.
Nasal airway obstruction is a common symptom among patients presenting for rhinoplasty. Evaluation of the nasal airway should be performed in all patients presenting for rhinoplasty. The key structures that affect nasal airflow include the external and internal nasal valves, the inferior turbinates, and the nasal septum. The patient should be examined for collapse of the external nasal valves on deep inspiration, and a Cottle maneuver should be performed to evaluate patency of the internal nasal valves. Internal nasal examination is aided with the use of a nasal speculum. Oxymetazoline nasal spray facilitates mucosal constriction if mucosal edema is present. Narrowing or collapse of the internal valves with inspiration should be noted, along with inferior turbinate hypertrophy, which typically occurs on the side opposite septal deviation.
When a cephalic trim is performed during primary rhinoplasty, which of the following is the minimum width of caudal lower lateral cartilage that should be left behind?
A) 4 mm
B) 6 mm
C) 8 mm
D) 10 mm
E) 12 mm
The correct response is Option B.
The nasal tip represents a complex nasal tripod. The paired lower lateral cartilages work synergistically to provide the main structural support for the nasal tip. Tip refinement is of course common in rhinoplasty, and a cephalic trim of excess lower lateral cartilage is a classic maneuver utilized in primary rhinoplasty. The cephalic trim acts to decrease vertical height of the lateral crura and to debulk to tip. It is crucial that enough cartilage be left behind when removing excess lower lateral cartilage from the cephalic portion. Classically, 6 mm (5 to 7 mm) of rim strip is the accepted standard of how much should be left behind at minimum to prevent stability compromise of the lower lateral cartilages. Resection in excess of this can weaken the lateral crus and cause retraction, notching, and/or external valve dysfunction.

