Flaps 01-22, 24 Flashcards
An 18-year-old man is scheduled to undergo free fibula flap for mandible reconstruction. The patient reports that he is a track and field athlete. Regarding the function of his great toe, which of the following is the most likely outcome?
A) Abduction deformity
B) Decreased flexion strength
C) Neuropathic pain
D) Normal extension
The correct response is Option B.
The fibula free flap is commonly used for mandibular reconstruction because of the availability of up to 25 cm of bone. However, donor site morbidity is a significant consideration and is common with this flap. Common motor morbidity includes impaired flexor hallucis longus (FHL) function, with a significant reduction in strength between the affected and unaffected legs. As a result of loss of the FHL and decreased opposition to the long toe flexors, claw toe deformity and weakened dorsiflexion are also common. Gait may be affected by these deformities.
Sensory deficits typically include the peroneal nerve distribution and may cause pain at the operative site or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.
A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever and neck pain 2.5 weeks after undergoing posterior cervical spine fusion. Clinical examination shows peri-incisional edema and erythema. CT scan shows a deep posterior fluid collection. The orthopedic surgery team plans surgical treatment with debridement and washout and consults the plastic surgeon for obliteration of an anticipated dead space. A Mathes and Nahai type II muscle flap is planned for reconstruction. Which of the following arteries is most likely involved in this reconstruction?
A) Circumflex scapular
B) Occipital
C) Thoracoacromial
D) Thoracodorsal
E) Transverse cervical
The correct response is Option E.
The transverse cervical artery is the main pedicle to the trapezius muscle flap (type II muscle), which is particularly suitable for high cervical defects since the paraspinous muscles are of limited size and mobility at this level. The main pedicle of the trapezius flap enters the deep aspect of the muscle approximately 8 cm from the midline at the level of C7. Following identification of the main pedicle, the lateral aspect of the muscle is divided to permit transposition into the defect.
Postoperative wound complications following spinal procedures approach 40% in high-risk patients. Thus, combined reconstructive approaches with orthopedic surgery and neurosurgery are common for management of these complex soft-tissue defects. Key management principles include timely debridement, bony fixation, and dead space obliteration. Therefore, muscle flaps are particularly suitable for reconstruction.
A branch of the occipital artery is the dominant pedicle to the sternocleidomastoid flap, which is not a suitable reconstructive option for coverage of a posterior cervical defect. The circumflex scapular artery is the dominant pedicle to the scapular/parascapular fasciocutaneous (not muscle) flaps. The thoracoacromial artery is the dominant pedicle to the pectoralis major muscle (type V muscle). The thoracodorsal artery is the dominant pedicle to the latissimus dorsi muscle (type V muscle).
A 24-year-old man presents with a burn contracture of the third web space of the hand. A jumping man (five flap) plasty is planned. In this technique, the final position of the central flap is achieved through which of the following techniques?
A) 45-degree transposition
B) 60-degree transposition
C) 75-degree transposition
D) V-Y advancement
E) Y-V advancement
The correct response is Option E.
In the jumping man or five flap plasty, the central flap is advanced through a Y to V method where the tip of the V is advanced into an incision made in the opposing tissue. There are different modifications to this technique for local flap lengthening of flexion contractures. Traditionally, the lateral limbs are designed with 60-degree angles to the central limb and the opposing limbs are designed more obtusely to prevent ischemia at the base. This type of reconstruction requires laxity of the surrounding skin and is therefore most often employed in places like the medial canthus, web spaces of the feet and hands, or the axilla.
A V-Y advancement is commonly used in pressure ulcer repair where the base of the V is advanced into the defect to create a Y. This is the opposite of what one is trying to achieve in a jumping man plasty. Transpositions of 75, 60, and 45 degrees are all different variations of z-plasties and are utilized in this local rearrangement, but the central flap is advanced, not transposed/rotated.
An otherwise healthy 55-year-old man is diagnosed with a soft-tissue sarcoma of his mid-anterior leg. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy is performed, followed by wide local excision. A superficial circumflex iliac perforator-based flap is planned for reconstruction of the 10 × 5-cm defect. Which of the following is the main advantage of this flap over a radial forearm flap?
A) Ability to neurotize the flap
B) Ease of flap harvest
C) Length of pedicle
D) Lower donor site morbidity
E) Thickness of flap
The correct response is Option D.
The main advantage of the superficial circumflex iliac perforator-based (SCIP) flap over the radial forearm flap (RFF) is the improved donor site outcome. The SCIP flap can be primarily closed in most cases, whereas most RFF donor sites need a split skin graft to get closure. Additionally, the groin donor site is in a relatively hidden area compared with the RFF. The SCIP flap is a more difficult flap to raise compared with the RFF, and also has a smaller diameter and length of pedicle. Both flaps are known for being raised as thin flaps and can potentially be neurotized, with the SCIP utilizing an intercostal nerve branch, whereas the RFF uses the lateral and/or medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve(s).
A 65-year-old woman presents with a malignant melanoma of the right ankle that requires resection resulting in exposed bone. Her thighs are too bulky as donor sites for ankle skin resurfacing. Reconstruction with a free fascio-cutaneous scapular flap is planned. Through which of the following anatomic landmarks will the pedicle for this flap pass?
A) Anterior triangle of the neck
B) Posterior triangle of the neck
C) Quadrangular space
D) Subclavian triangle
E) Triangular space
The correct response is Option E.
The pedicle for the scapular fasciocutaneous flap is the circumflex scapular artery arising from the subscapular system. The circumflex scapular artery travels through the triangular space bordered laterally by the long head of the triceps, the teres minor above and teres major below. The posterior circumflex humeral vessels travel within the quadrangular space, which is adjacent to the triangular space and is bordered by the teres minor above, teres major below, long head of the triceps medially, and the humerus laterally. The anterior triangle of the neck is bordered superiorly by the mandible, laterally by the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and medially by the midline of the neck. The contents of the anterior triangle include cranial nerves VII, IX to XII, and the carotid arteries and internal jugular vein. The posterior triangle of the neck is bordered by the trapezius muscle posteriorly, the sternocleidomastoid muscle anteriorly, and the middle third of the clavicle inferiorly. The posterior triangle of the neck contains the external jugular vein, the brachial plexus, regional lymph nodes, third part of the subclavian artery, as well as the suprascapular vessels and cervical branches of thyrocervical trunk. The posterior triangle of the neck is divided by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle into the occipital triangle above and subclavian triangle below. The subclavian triangle is bounded by the sternocleidomastoid, omohyoid, and the clavicle.
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic 3 years after she sustained large, full-thickness burns to the anterior neck. She has undergone reconstruction with a fasciocutaneous free flap. She does not like the contracture and webbing along the margin of the reconstruction. Two contiguous 45-degree Z-plasties are planned over a total length of 10 cm. The expected increase in scar length is which of the following?
A) 2.5 cm
B) 5.0 cm
C) 7.5 cm
D) 10.0 cm
E) 12.5 cm
The correct response is Option B.
A 45-degree Z-plasty is expected to lengthen the total scar by 50%. If each Z-plasty covers 5 cm of scar, then each Z-plasty will increase scar length by 2.5 cm, for a total increase of 5 cm. Theoretical gains in length for Z-plasty angles are as follows:
The Z-plasty was the first flap introduced using a mathematical approach to correct a skin defect or scar. A standard Z-plasty design uses three incisions of equal length and two angles of equal degree. The primary principle is to transfer lateral skin excess to lengthen and reorient tight scars or contractures. The central incision is oriented parallel to the long axis of the scar, or the scar may be incorporated as an excision acting as the central incision. The resultant triangular skin flaps are transposed with each other, resulting in a new central incision that is perpendicular to the original orientation.

A 32-year-old man sustains a burn to his hand, resulting in a first web space contracture. A four-flap Z-plasty is planned for release of the contracture. Which of the following best describes the flap reconstruction for this defect?

The correct response is Option F.
Random pattern flaps are generally classified based on the primary motion of the flap. There are three basic types of tissue movement: transposition, advancement, and rotation. Transposition flaps incorporate noncontiguous skin into a defect by lifting the flap over normal skin for inset into a defect. Advancement flaps recruit adjacent tissue to close a defect via soft-tissue movement in a linear direction. Rotation flaps move adjacent tissue around an axis to close a defect, rotating soft tissue into the defect. Advancement and rotation flaps recruit adjacent lax tissue and move in either a linear or arced motion (respectively) to fill the defect. Transposition flaps recruit noncontiguous tissue, which is lifted over intact soft tissue and placed into the defect. Random pattern flaps lack a defined named arterial vascular supply. Because of their lack of an axial vascular supply, they are subject to dimensional restrictions. In general, they are designed to not exceed a length:width ratio of 2:1. An axial pattern flap is a single pedicled flap that has an anatomically named arterial blood supply running along its long axis. Because of the presence of a named arterial blood supply, axial pattern flaps are not subject to the length:width ratio restrictions that apply to random pattern flaps.
A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4 x 4-cm elliptical defect on the vertex of the scalp after resection of a trichilemmal cyst. Local advancement flaps are planned for closure with wide undermining. Division of which of the following layers is important during scalp flap advancement?
A) Dermis
B) Galeal aponeurosis
C) Innominate fascia
D) Pericranium
E) Subgaleal fascia
The correct response is Option B.
During a scalp advancement flap, release of the galeal aponeurosis is important, as this layer provides the majority of resistance to scalp advancement. Often scoring of the galea is performed in parallel 1-cm intervals to provide adequate release.
The layers of the scalp include: skin, dense connective tissue, galeal/epicranial aponeurosis, loose areolar connective tissue, and pericranium. Release of the other layers listed is not effective, as they do not provide appreciable resistance. The innominate and the subgaleal fascia are the same layer, otherwise known as the subaponeurotic layer or the loose areolar layer. Release of this layer does not offer appreciable laxity when performing advancement flaps.
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department 4 hours after he sustained an amputation of his left index finger when it was slammed in a door. The parents brought the amputated digit in a plastic bag on ice. The amputation is at the level of the mid proximal phalanx. Which of the following is the most important reason to attempt replantation?
A) The amputation is proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis insertion
B) The cold ischemia time is less than 6 hours
C) It is the index finger
D) It is a single-digit amputation
E) The patient is a child
The correct response is Option E.
Digital replantation should almost always be attempted in a child, except when the amputated part is severely crushed or there are other life-threatening injuries that preclude surgery. Replantation in children is technically more challenging due to the smaller size of the vessels. However, functional outcomes are more superior than in adults. The replanted parts have better sensory return and can have normal growth. Amputations through joints also exhibit remarkable joint remodeling.
A single digit amputation, especially proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) insertion is considered a contraindication to replantation. Digit replantations proximal to the FDS insertion have a poor range of motion as compared to amputations distal to the FDS insertion. This is, thus, an important landmark when making decisions about amputation versus replantation. Multiple digit amputations are an indication for replantation as the functioning deficit with loss of multiple digits is great. The thumb is responsible for 40% of the function of the hand and should always be replanted, if possible. Even if it is stiff and insensate, a replanted thumb will act as a post for opposition.
Index finger amputations at or proximal to the proximal interphalangeal joint are considered by many to be an indication for amputation. A stiff and painful index finger is likely to be excluded by the patient; amputation will result in better global hand function.
Digits tolerate longer ischemia times than more proximal level amputations, due to absence of muscle. Amputated digits tolerate warm ischemia times of 6 to 12 hours and cold ischemia times of 12 to 24 hours. Digital replantation has been reported with warm ischemia time of 33 hours and cold ischemia time of 94 hours. Cold ischemia time is thus not a major consideration in the decision-making process for amputation versus replantation.
To reconstruct a traumatic soft-tissue defect of the hand, a lateral arm fasciocutaneous flap is chosen for free tissue transfer. The vascular pedicle for this flap is located between which of the following structures?
A) Brachioradialis and brachialis
B) Lateral head of the triceps and biceps
C) Lateral head of the triceps and the brachialis
D) Lateral head of the triceps and the extensor carpi radialis longus
E) Lateral head of the triceps and the humerus
The correct response is Option C.
The lateral arm flap is a reliable fasciocutaneous flap used for reconstruction of small to medium size soft-tissue defects of the forearm and hand. It provides thin tissue of excellent quality and a satisfactory aesthetic outcome with the ability for primary closure of the donor site.
The dominant pedicle is the posterior radial collateral artery. This vessel originates from the radial collateral artery which is a branch of the brachial artery in the upper arm and emerges between the brachialis muscle anteriorly and the lateral head of the triceps posteriorly to supply the skin and soft tissue of the lateral arm.
In addition, the anatomic relationships between the vascular pedicle and radial nerve are important to understand when dissecting this flap. The radial nerve courses posterior to the humerus before wrapping around the lateral aspect of the humerus from posterior to anterior. The antebrachial cutaneous nerve of the forearm branches from the radial nerve to join the vascular pedicle (posterior branch of radial collateral artery). This cutaneous nerve can be preserved with careful dissection and helps to identify the radial nerve proximally during flap elevation. Segmental perforating vessels emerge within the septum separating the triceps and brachialis muscles.
A 44-year-old man presents with a 20-degree extension deformity of his wrist because of burn scarring. Z-plasty for contracture release is planned. Which of the following (A-D) is the most appropriate placement of the central limb for this procedure in this patient?
A) (see image above)
B) (see image above)
C) (see image above)
D) (see image above)

The correct response is Option A.
Z-plasty is a fundamental and common reconstructive technique used to elongate scars or contractures, narrow scars, rearrange tissues into relaxed skin tension lines, camouflage scars, or releasing tension. This is a form of rotation and advancement whereby a central limb of the Z-plasty is drawn parallel to the line of maximal tension, and subsequent limbs are drawn anywhere from 30 to 90 degrees from this. Wider angles give greater scar elongation at the expense of greater transverse tension.
In this scenario, the line of maximum tension is longitudinal, creating an extension deformity. Maximal contracture release will occur with a central limb of the Z-plasty drawn longitudinally.
A 43-year-old man presents for reconstruction of a soft tissue deficit of the antecubital fossa with a reverse lateral arm pedicled flap. Which of the following arteries is the blood supply for this flap?
A) Anterior interosseous
B) Persistent median
C) Posterior interosseous
D) Radial recurrent
E) Ulnar
The correct response is Option D.
Although the lateral arm flap has predominantly been used in free tissue transfer for distant defects based on the posterior radial collateral artery, transfer as a pedicled reverse-flow flap based on the radial recurrent artery has been both anatomically and clinically proven. Occasionally, it is performed with a delay procedure at an intermediate stage.
The anterior and posterior interosseous arteries can provide circulation to perforator flaps. The ulnar artery has been occasionally used for an ulnar artery based fasciocutaneous flap. The persistent median artery passes through the carpal tunnel and runs with the median nerve.
A 10-year-old boy with osteosarcoma is undergoing resection of 8 cm of proximal tibia. Reconstruction with a vascularized bone flap is planned. Which of the following arteries is the primary blood supply for this flap?
A) Anterior tibial
B) Dorsalis pedis
C) Peroneal
D) Popliteal
E) Posterior tibial
The correct response is Option C.
The peroneal artery is adjacent to the fibula. It arises from the tibioperoneal trunk, immediately distal to the takeoff of the anterior tibial artery. It perforates the interosseous membrane. The peroneal artery also gives perforators to the skin of the lower leg. The length of the pedicle is usually short, but can be increased substantially by dissecting the peroneal artery from the fibula and using the distal bone for reconstruction.
The popiteal artery is proximal to the other arteries mentioned. After crossing the knee, it branches into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries. The posterior tibial artery then gives off the peroneal artery.
A 75-year-old man with a history of renal transplantation presents with a rapidly growing squamous cell carcinoma involving his anterior scalp and forehead. A photograph is shown. Wide excision results in a 20 × 20-cm defect with exposed calvarium. Which of the following flaps is most appropriate for coverage of this wound?
A) Anterolateral thigh free flap
B) Gracilis free flap
C) Lateral arm free flap
D) Radial forearm free flap
E) Rectus abdominis free flap

The correct response is Option A.
The anterolateral thigh (ALT) free flap (shown) is the only option listed with the requisite tissue characteristics, size, and pedicle length necessary to repair a defect of this size and location. The ALT flap has rapidly become a first-line option for covering large or irregular head and neck defects. It is an extremely versatile flap with chimeric options allowing for multiple skin paddles, muscle bulk (vastus lateralis) if needed for dead space obliteration, as well as bone (iliac crest) for midface or small mandibular defects. The tissue thickness is well suited for large scalp defects. Flaps as large as 35 × 25 cm have been described, although defects larger than 10 to 12 cm in width generally require skin grafting the donor site. Pedicle lengths of 12 to 16 cm have been described, which is often long enough to reach the upper neck if necessary.
The radial forearm free flap is an excellent option in many cases, providing a pedicle length up to 18 to 20 cm with maximal dimensions up to 12 × 30 cm. A major criticism of this flap is the poor cosmesis of the donor site and lack of subcutaneous tissue necessary to match the surrounding cutaneous defect. The lateral arm flap based on the radial collateral artery is useful for smaller defects in the head and neck but is limited in this situation by a short pedicle (6 cm) and smaller skin paddle (6 × 12 cm).
Muscle flaps covered with skin grafts have also been described for scalp coverage. When necessary, a latissimus dorsi flap is a great option for near total scalp coverage. With the examples listed here, the gracilis flap is too narrow (5 to 6 cm) with too short a pedicle (medial femoral circumflex, 7 cm). While the pedicle for the rectus free flap (deep inferior epigastric, 8 to 10 cm) might be long enough in this situation, the muscle is not big enough (6 cm wide) to cover the defect.

A 4-year-old girl is evaluated for an axillary skin contracture from a burn. Z-plasty is planned to lengthen the scar in order to improve the contracture. If 45-degree angles are planned, the most likely expected increase in the length of the scar would be which of the following?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
E) 120%
The correct response is Option B.
The most likely expected increase in scar length is 50%. A Z-plasty is a technique using two triangular flaps which are interdigitated, producing a gain in length of the central limb placed along the line of contracture. The angles of the Z-plasty range from 30 to 90 degrees. The wider the angles, the greater the lengthening. A 30-degree angle is equal to a 25% increase in length, a 45-degree angle is equal to a 50% increase in length, a 75-degree angle is equal to a 100% increase in length, and a 90-degree angle is equal to a 120% increase in length. The most commonly used angle is 60 degrees, giving a 75% increase in length. This angle is optimal because angles less than 60 degrees may not provide enough lengthening, and angles greater than 60 degrees can produce significant tension inhibiting flap transposition.
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 15-cm open wound on the left hip and thigh after he was involved in an accident while using machinery at a construction site. Much of the skin of the lateral thigh is injured, and exposed bone is noted over the trochanter of the hip. Wound coverage using an anterolateral thigh flap from the right side is planned. When the flap is harvested, which of the following muscles must be identified in order to preserve perforators to the flap?
A) Gracilis
B) Inferior gluteal
C) Sartorius
D) Tensor fascia lata
E) Vastus lateralis
The correct response is Option E.
The anterolateral thigh flap is a versatile coverage tool because of its wide skin island (up to 8 x 25 cm) and long, accessible pedicle (up to 7 cm). The blood supply originates from the lateral femoral circumflex artery descending branch, and sends perforating branches through the vastus lateralis and rectus femoris muscles, and occasionally through the intermuscular septum.
The inferior gluteal muscle, while a common muscle flap, is further posterior and proximal. The tensor fascia lata is more lateral to the anterolateral thigh flap zone, though it also has a blood supply from the lateral femoral circumflex system, as the vessel terminates in the tensor fascia lata. The sartorius is more medial and proximal and has a segmental circulation based on the femoral artery branches. The gracilis is more medially based, and is supplied by the medial femoral circumflex.
A 40-year-old man sustains burns to 35% of his total body surface area, including the neck, chest, axillae, and upper extremities. After subsequent skin grafting, a right anterior axillary dome scar contracture develops. The patient is scheduled to undergo revision of the scar using Z-plasty. Which of the following lateral limb angles will result in a theoretical 75% gain in central limb length?
A) 30 degree
B) 45 degree
C) 60 degree
D) 75 degree
E) 90 degree
A 40-year-old man sustains burns to 35% of his total body surface area, including the neck, chest, axillae, and upper extremities. After subsequent skin grafting, a right anterior axillary dome scar contracture develops. The patient is scheduled to undergo revision of the scar using Z-plasty. Which of the following lateral limb angles will result in a theoretical 75% gain in central limb length?

A) 30 degree
B) 45 degree
C) 60 degree
D) 75 degree
E) 90 degree
The correct response is Option C.
The traditional standard Z-plasty consists of at least three incisions of equal length (two limbs and one central incision) and two angles of equal degree. Ideally, the central incision runs parallel to the long axis of the scar, or the scar itself may be completely excised with the fusiform defect acting as the central incision.
The resultant subcutaneous triangular skin flaps are transposed with each other such that the new, central incision lies perpendicular to the original central incision. After closure, the scar is reoriented along the limb incisions, and the new central incision lies within relaxed skin tension lines. The length of the original scar also increases after a Z-plasty, which is a useful characteristic when a surgeon desires release of a scar contracture, as in this specific example. In general, as the central incision lengthens (given a constant angle), so does the resultant scar. Additionally, as the angles between the limbs increase (given a constant limb length), so does the resultant scar.
A 63-year-old man has a full-thickness scalp defect following resection of a melanoma. Final pathology has confirmed clear margins. Which of the following criteria is an indication for coverage of the defect with a flap instead of a skin graft?
A) Alopecia of the surrounding skin
B) Exposed calvarium
C) Granulation tissue in the base of the wound
D) Intact pericranium
E) Posterior location
The correct response is Option B.
Exposed bone does not provide an adequately vascularized bed for skin graft take. Pericranium, in contrast, can support a skin graft. The presence of granulation tissue is a good sign that the wound bed is adequately vascularized for a skin graft to take. Surrounding alopecia decreases aesthetic concerns associated with reconstructive options that do not support hair growth. Defect location does not significantly affect the need for vascularized coverage.
Which of the following vessels runs within the pedicle of the reverse sural artery flap and serves as primary venous drainage?
A) Femoral
B) Greater saphenous
C) Lesser saphenous
D) Popliteal
E) Posterior tibial
The correct response is Option C.
The reverse superficial sural artery flap (RSSAF) is a distally based fasciocutaneous or adipofascial flap that is increasingly being used for coverage of defects that involve the distal third of the leg, ankle, and foot. First described by Donski and Fogdestam and later championed by Masquelet et al, RSSAF has become a popular option for these difficult wounds. The description of the RSSAF (Masquelet flap) has revolutionized the osteoplastic armamentarium of surgeons not conversant with microvascular free flaps. The reliability of septocutaneous perforators has been well documented. Hence, raising a flap based on this reliable anastomosis of peroneal artery and median sural artery, along with the sural nerve and lesser (short) saphenous vein has been described to be successful.
A significant advantage of this flap is that it does not require sacrifice of a major artery to the lower limb. Touted for its ease of dissection, the RSSAF is often reputed to have a favorable complication profile as evidenced by a recent meta-analysis that found 82% of flaps heal without any flap-related complications. The main complications include venous congestion of the flap requiring delay or leech therapy in some higher-risk patients.
The greater saphenous vein runs proximal and medial to the lesser saphenous vein, and it drains the medial and anteromedial portion of the lower leg.
The popliteal vein drains the lesser (short) saphenous vein, and it is therefore not the primary drainage of the reverse sural flap. The anterior and posterior tibial veins are the deep venous drainage of the lower leg and do not drain the RSSAF.
The femoral vein is the deep venous drainage system in the upper leg.
A 75-year-old man who had femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 2 weeks ago has an infection in the proximal groin. A muscle flap to fill the dead space is planned. Which of the following muscle flap options has a type IV Mathes-Nahai (multiple segmental vascular pedicles) vascular anatomy?
A) Gracilis
B) Rectus abdominis
C) Rectus femoris
D) Sartorius
E) Vastus medialis
The correct response is Option D.
The sartorius muscle classically has a type IV Mathes-Nahai vascular anatomy, which may limit its arc of rotation. In a recent study, even though the sartorius muscle has multiple segmental pedicles, there tend to be codominant superior and inferior pedicles that could possibly allow for the majority of the muscle to be raised on either the superior or inferior dominant pedicle.
Mathes-Nahai vascular anatomy classification for muscle flaps:
I – Single dominant vascular pedicle
II – Single dominant vascular pedicle with secondary minor vascular pedicles
III – Codominant major vascular pedicles
IV – Multiple segmental vascular pedicles
V – Dominant vascular pedicle with segmental secondary pedicles that can supply muscle if dominant is divided
Type II vascular anatomy is seen with the rectus femoris, vastus medialis, and gracilis muscles. The rectus abdominis has a type III vascular anatomy. Type V would be a latissimus dorsi muscle flap.
A 76-year-old woman with a history of left modified radical mastectomy and radiation therapy comes to the office because of a chronic wound of the left axilla associated with limitation of abduction and exposed rib at the wound base. A photograph is shown. Examination of a biopsy specimen excludes malignancy. In addition to appropriate debridement, which of the following is likely to be most effective in achieving wound closure?

A) Adjacent tissue transfer
B) Left latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap
C) Negative pressure wound therapy
D) Radial forearm fasciocutaneous free flap
E) Split-thickness skin graft
The correct response is Option B.
The best option to achieve wound closure in this patient is an ipsilateral latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap. For chronic wounds in an irradiated field, the best option is debridement followed by transfer of healthy, nonirradiated tissue. Negative pressure wound therapy is likely to result in a recurrent chronic wound, albeit a clean one. Split-thickness skin graft would be inappropriate in an irradiated wound bed with exposed bone. Autologous fat grafting can help improve the quality of irradiated tissues in the absence of a wound, and some studies have shown promise in the treatment of superficial radiation ulcers; however, this patient has necrotic rib, and following debridement the wound will be deep and large. Although wound management and fat grafting have been shown to promote healing in isolated cases, this approach is not yet an accepted standard of care. Adjacent tissue transfer will employ irradiated tissue, and is thus prone to necrosis, wound breakdown, and recurrent chronic wound formation. A free flap could be an option, but a forearm flap would not have the volume required for the expected defect. In addition, a free flap is more morbid than a local pedicled flap in this elderly patient.

A 55-year-old man who recently underwent a cardiac bypass procedure has a sternal infection that requires debridement. The defect is evaluated, and reconstruction using an omental flap is planned. Which of the following vessels provides the blood supply for this flap?
A) Gastroepiploic
B) Left gastric
C) Right gastric
D) Short gastric
E) Superior mesenteric
The correct response is Option A.
The omental flap is supplied by the gastroepiploic vessels. Common options for sternal wound reconstruction include the pectoralis major, rectus abdominis, latissimus dorsi, and omental flaps. The use of an omental flap for a mediastinal defect was described in the 1970s; however, muscle flaps became a popular choice for reconstruction in the 1980s. Based on the size of the defect, the omental flap can be used with or without a skin graft. The omentum has angiogenic and immunogenic properties that make it ideal for reconstruction of sternal wound infections.
The omentum is based on the left and right gastroepiploic vessels. In order to increase length, the flap can be based on one set of vessels, usually the right gastroepiploic vessels. The left gastroepiploic vessels are a branch of the splenic vessels; the right gastroepiploic vessels are a branch of the gastroduodenal vessels. Harvest can be performed through either an upper abdominal incision, transdiaphragmatic, or laparoscopically. There is a risk of donor site morbidity such as abdominal wound infections or symptomatic hernias.
The superior mesenteric vessels supply the lower part of the duodenum extending to the middle third of the transverse colon, as well as the pancreas. The left and right gastric vessels supply the lesser curvature of the stomach. The short gastric vessels supply a portion of the greater curvature of the stomach and are branches of the splenic vessels. The left and right gastroepiploic vessels supply the greater curvature of the stomach along with the omentum.
A 23-year-old man presents 2 years after sustaining full-thickness burns on the anterior neck. He has undergone tissue expansion and local flap reconstruction of the burn defect. He notes webbing and contracture at the margin of one of the prior flap reconstructions. Three identical 60-degree Z-plasties are planned over a total length of 12 cm. The expected gain in scar length is which of the following?
A) 3 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 8 cm
E) 9 cm
The correct response is Option E.
A 60-degree z-plasty lengthens a scar by 75%. If each z-plasty covers 4 cm of scar, each will lengthen the scar by 3 cm, for a total increase of 9 cm. In contrast, a 30-degree z-plasty lengthens an incision by 25%, and a 45-degree z-plasty lengthens an incision by 50%. To prevent undue tension, angles greater than 60 degrees should be avoided.
A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a dorsal hand injury. Physical examination shows a 6 × 4-cm full-thickness defect with exposed metacarpal bones. A medial sural artery perforator flap for soft-tissue coverage is planned. From which of the following vessels does the vascular pedicle for this flap originate?
A) Anterior tibial
B) Descending genicular
C) Peroneal
D) Popliteal
E) Posterior tibial
The correct response is Option D.
The vascular pedicle for the medial sural artery perforator flap arises from the popliteal vessels.
The medial sural artery flap is a thin, pliable perforator flap that can provide well vascularized soft-tissue coverage, especially for relatively small defects. It is commonly used for head/neck, hand, and lower-extremity defects. The first perforator is frequently found along a line connecting the mid-popliteal area to the medial malleolus at the 8-cm mark from the proximal end. Preoperative planning is facilitated with ultrasound identification of the perforators. Sub-fascial dissection is frequently performed to protect the perforator and blood supply and to allow for a gliding surface for tendon repairs. Donor sites that are narrower than 5 cm can frequently be closed primarily. The main benefit of the medial sural artery perforator flap over an anterolateral thigh flap is the relative thinness of the flap, which can be significant in overweight or obese patients.





















