Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCP Part 1 > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of TTP

A

Features (ask the FAT RN): Fever, anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, renal impairment, neurological involvement [e.g. confusion])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment of TTP?

A

Plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are thymomas associated with?

A

myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients with thymoma)
red cell aplasia
dermatomyositis
also : SLE, SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First line treatment CML?

A

Imatinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Commonest type of hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Nodular sclerosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s seen on blood film in hyposplenism?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

siderocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

follicular lymphoma translocation

A

t(14;18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the gold standard test for paroxysmal nocturnal haemaglobinuria? (COMMON Q)

A

flow cytometry of blood to detect low levels of CD59 and CD55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of VTE if patient has cancer?

A

6 months DOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VTE treatment length if provoked VTE?

A

DOAC Stop after 3 months (6 months if active cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VTE treatment length in unprovoked VTE?

A

DOAC 6 months total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug is first line in VTE?

A

DOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should you use LMWH in VTE? (i.e. when is DOAC contraindicated)

A

Severe renal impairment

Antiphospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in haemolytic disease/anaemia, what blood level is low and why?

A

Haptoglobin (as it binds to free haemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Key investigation/gold for CLL?

A

Flow cytometry (immunophenotyping)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a leukamoid reaction? how can you distinguish it from leukaemia?

A

reactive leucocytosis, often secondary to infection or inflammation

High leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what cytotoxic agent is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment for aplastic anaemia?

A

Supportive: blood + products
Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) and anti-lymphocyte globulin (ALG)
Stem cell Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In addition to vit K, what blood product should be given in emergency reversal of anticoagulation in patients with severe bleeding or a head injury?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In major haemorrhage what blood product should be given if fibrinogen level is low <1.5?

A

Cryoprecipitate

21
Q

When should FFP be used in haemorrhage?

A

prothrombin time (PT) ratio or activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) ratio > 1.5

22
Q

3 types of paraprotinaemias

A

myeloma
Waldenstorm’s macroglobinaemia
monoclonal gamopathy of unknown significance

23
Q

How to differentiate myeloma from Waldenstorm’s?

A

Myeloma –> hypercalcaemia, lytic bone lesions, no organomegaly, usually not IgM

Waldenstorms –> organomegaly, no lytic bone lesiosn, normal calcium, hyperviscocity (DVT)

24
Q

What is seen on blood film in myelofibrosis?

A

Tear drop poikilocytes

25
Q

Similarities between Hereditary spherocytosis + G6PD Deficiency?

A

Both haemolytic anaemia may have gallstones + neonatal jaundice

HS: Splenomegaly present; northern european descent

G6PD: No splenomegaly + precipitant leading to haemolysis (e.g. quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin) + middle eastern / African descent

26
Q

Diagnostic tests for Hereditary spherocytosis?

A

EMA binding

27
Q

Diagnostic tests for G6PD deficiency

A

Measure G6PD activity

28
Q

When to discharge someone after anaphylaxis?

A

2 hours min after symptom resolution if good response to 1 dose IM adrenaline

6 hours minimum if 2 doses needed or previous biphasic reaction

12 hours minimum if >2 doses, presents at night, asthma,

29
Q

What is the treatment for CLL? What are the indications for treatment?

A

FCR: fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and rituximab

Indications:
progressive marrow failure: the development or worsening of anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia
massive (>10 cm) or progressive lymphadenopathy
massive (>6 cm) or progressive splenomegaly
progressive lymphocytosis: > 50% increase over 2 months or lymphocyte doubling time < 6 months
systemic symptoms: weight loss > 10% in previous 6 months, fever >38ºC for > 2 weeks, extreme fatigue, night sweats
autoimmune cytopaenias e.g. ITP

Therefore if asymptomatic + incidental - don’t treat

30
Q

First line treatment CML?

A

Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)

31
Q

What is the best screening marker for hereditary angioedema between attacks? What about during an attack?

A

between: C4 (low)

during attack: C1-INH level (low)

32
Q

MoA of texanes (E.g. docetaxel)?

A

prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly

To remember: microtubules are responsible for transport in the cell, just like a TAXI ( TAXEL)

33
Q

What is seen on blood film in DIC?

A

Schistocytes

34
Q

Diagnosis of CLL

A

Immunophenotyping

35
Q

what causes CLL?

A

monoclonal proliferation of B-cell lymphocytes

36
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma staging

A

Ann arbor

I: single lymph node
II: 2 or more lymph nodes/regions on same side of diaphragm
III: nodes on both sides of diaphragm
IV: spread beyond lymph nodes

A: if no symptoms
B: if symptoms

37
Q

How to prevent tumour lysis syndrome acutely?

A

Rasburicase

38
Q

Microscopy of burkitt’s lymphoma

A

‘starry sky’ appearance

39
Q

What causes burkitt’s lymphoma + what translocation

A

EBV

T(8;14)

40
Q

What translocation in AML suggests a good prognosis?

A

15;17

41
Q

In unprovoked DVT what investigation must you do?

A

Clotting screen

42
Q

In haemolytic anaemias, what happens to haptoglobin?

A

Low (as binds to free Hb [more of this in haemolytic anaemia])

43
Q

If very high wcc but raised leucocyte alkaline phsophatase what is the diagnosis?

A

Leukamoid reaction

44
Q

How can you differentiate CML from leukamoid reaction?

A

Leukamoid reaction - raised leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

45
Q

Why is factor VIII decreased in vWd?

A

Because vW factor carries factor VIII

46
Q

What factor is reduced in vom willebrand disease and why?

A

Factor 8 as vw factor carries it

47
Q

What is the clotting results in vWd?

A

APTT increased as drop in factor 8
PT normal
Bleeding time increased as platelets can’t aggregate to endothelium

48
Q

What are the clotting results in haemophilias?

A

Bleeding time normal (as platelets unaffected)
PT normal
APTT increased

MRCP Part 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions