Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BLOCK POSTING 5 > GIT INFECTIONS 2 > Flashcards

GIT INFECTIONS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What is the definition of acute gastroenteritis (AGE)?

A

A: A decrease in stool consistency (loose or liquid) and/or an increase in evacuation frequency (typically ≥3 in 24 hours) with or without fever or vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q: Name two common viral causes of diarrhoea.

A

A: Rotavirus and Norovirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q: Which protozoa are commonly associated with diarrhoea?

A

A: Cryptosporidium parvum Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: What are two bacterial causes of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

A: Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) and Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q: What are the key laboratory methods for diagnosing Campylobacter infection?

A

A: Gram stain oxidase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q: What is the treatment of choice for H. pylori infection?

A

A: Multidrug therapy with 2-3 antibiotics (e.g. clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q: What are the complications of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

A: Malnutrition reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q: Which bacterium causes cholera and what toxin does it produce?

A

A: Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q: What are the risk factors for Campylobacter infection?

A

Age < 5 years and 20–29 years
Male sex
Handling and consumption of raw or undercooked poultry and other meats
Consumption of unpasteurized milk and dairy products
Consumption of untreated water
Contact with pets and farm animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q: What is the gold-standard test for detecting H. pylori?

A

A: Urea Breath Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q: Which fungi are associated with gastrointestinal infections?

A

A: Candida albicans C. tropicalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q: How is salmonellosis diagnosed?

A

A: By isolating and identifying from feces or contaminated food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q: What are the symptoms of shigellosis?

A

A: Blood and mucus in stools abdominal cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q: What are the common side effects of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A

A: Headache nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q: What are the main methods for preventing travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

A: Avoid unsafe water/food use chemoprophylaxis (e.g.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definition of acute gastroenteritis (AGE)?

A

A decrease in stool consistency (loose or liquid) and/or an increase in evacuation frequency (typically ≥3 in 24 hours), with or without fever or vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name two common viral causes of diarrhoea.

A

Rotavirus and Norovirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which protozoa are commonly associated with diarrhoea?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum, Giardia lamblia, Entamoeba histolytica, Isospora belli, Cyclospora cayetanensis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are two bacterial causes of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) and Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the key laboratory methods for diagnosing Campylobacter infection?

A

Gram stain, oxidase test, catalase test, hippurate hydrolysis, and culture on Campylobacter-selective agars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment of choice for H. pylori infection?

A

Multidrug therapy with 2-3 antibiotics (e.g., clarithromycin, amoxicillin, metronidazole) and a proton pump inhibitor for 7–14 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the complications of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Malnutrition, reactive arthritis, hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), inflammatory bowel disease, and aortic aneurysm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which bacterium causes cholera, and what toxin does it produce?

A

Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin, causing host cells to secrete Cl–, HCO3–, and water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the risk factors for Campylobacter infection?

A

Age <5 years or 20–29 years, male sex, consuming raw/undercooked poultry or unpasteurized milk, and contact with pets or farm animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the gold-standard test for detecting H. pylori?

A

Urea Breath Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which fungi are associated with gastrointestinal infections?

A

Candida albicans, C. tropicalis, C. krusei, Torulopsis glabrata, Trichosporon spp., and Mucorales.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is salmonellosis diagnosed?

A

By isolating and identifying Salmonella from feces or contaminated food.

29
Q

What are the symptoms of shigellosis?

A

Blood and mucus in stools, abdominal cramps, fever, and ulceration of the intestinal mucosa.

30
Q

What are the common side effects of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A

Headache, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, fatigue, dizziness, and infrequent symptoms like rash or myopathies.

31
Q

What are the main methods for preventing travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

Avoid unsafe water/food, use chemoprophylaxis (e.g., ciprofloxacin), and dietary precautions like avoiding raw fruits/vegetables.

32
Q

What are the non-infective causes of diarrhoea?

A

Lactose intolerance, irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, bile acid malabsorption, hyperthyroidism, coeliac disease, and non-coeliac gluten sensitivity.

33
Q

List three examples of enrichment media used for culturing enteric pathogens.

A

Selenite F broth, alkaline peptone water, and Campylobacter blood agar.

34
Q

What is the most common causative agent of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC).

35
Q

Name the categories used to classify travellers’ diarrhoea based on severity.

A

Mild (1-2 unformed stools with tolerable symptoms), moderate (3+ stools with distressing symptoms), and severe (fever, blood in stools, and incapacitating symptoms).

36
Q

Which bacteria are associated with shiga toxin production?

A

Shigella spp. and Shiga-toxin-producing E. coli (STEC).

37
Q

What complications are associated with Campylobacter infections?

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), reactive arthritis, and irritable bowel syndrome.

38
Q

Which laboratory stains are used to identify Cryptosporidium and related protozoa?

A

Modified acid-fast staining.

39
Q

What is the typical incubation period for Campylobacter?

A

48–72 hours.

40
Q

What are the treatment options for fluoroquinolone-resistant travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

Azithromycin is the drug of choice.

41
Q

Name the major virulence factors of Vibrio cholerae.

A

Cholera toxin and the ability to alter membrane permeability in the intestinal mucosa.

42
Q

What are the indications for treating H. pylori infection?

A

Active PUD, MALT lymphoma, and eradication for high-risk patients with a history of ulcers.

43
Q

Which tests are commonly used for non-invasive diagnosis of H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test, stool antigen test, and serological tests.

44
Q

What is the role of histology in H. pylori diagnosis?

A

To identify H. pylori in biopsy samples using stains like H&E and Giemsa.

45
Q

Which organisms are associated with staphylococcal food poisoning?

A

Staphylococcus aureus producing enterotoxins.

46
Q

How does H. pylori weaken the mucosal defenses in the stomach?

A

Through cytotoxins, urease production, and inducing inflammation in epithelial cells.

47
Q

What are the main sources of non-cholera Vibrio infections?

A

Contaminated crustaceans and mollusks.

48
Q

What are the main symptoms of typhoid fever?

A

Fever, abdominal pain, and systemic spread of Salmonella Typhi via phagocytes.

49
Q

How is Campylobacter visualized microscopically?

A

As gram-negative, spiral-shaped rods that may appear as ‘seagull wings.’

50
Q

What dietary advice helps prevent travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

Avoid unsafe water, unpeeled fruits, green salads, and undercooked food.

51
Q

What is the most common antibiotic combination for H. pylori eradication?

A

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin (or metronidazole), and a proton pump inhibitor.

52
Q

What are common side effects of triple therapy for H. pylori?

A

Nausea, diarrhea, taste disturbances, and C. difficile infection.

53
Q

What is the mortality rate of untreated cholera?

A

0.5

54
Q

Name two laboratory media used to isolate Salmonella.

A

MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar.

55
Q

What are the hallmark symptoms of shigellosis?

A

Blood and mucus in stools, abdominal cramps, and fever.

56
Q

Which organism is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A

Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC).

57
Q

Q: What is the importance of examining bloody stools immediately?

A

A: To check for the presence of Entamoeba histolytica.

58
Q

Q: What is the appearance of Campylobacter under Gram staining?

A

A: Gram-negative curved rods that may align end to end, resembling a “seagull wing” appearance.

59
Q

Q: Which stain is used to identify Cryptosporidium, Cystoisospora, and Cyclospora?

A

A: Modified acid-fast staining.

60
Q

Q: Name two general-purpose media used for culturing enteric pathogens.

A

A: MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar.

61
Q

Q: What are two enrichment media used in culturing pathogens?

A

A: Selenite F Broth and Alkaline Peptone Water.

62
Q

Q: Name a selective medium for culturing Campylobacter jejuni.

A

A: Campylobacter blood agar.

63
Q

Q: Which agar is used for culturing Vibrio cholerae?

A

A: Thiosulphate-Citrate-Bile-Salts-Sucrose (TCBS) agar.

64
Q

Q: What medium is used for Yersinia enterocolitica isolation?

A

A: Cefsulodin–Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar.

65
Q

Q: What is Montezuma’s Revenge?

A

A: Another term for travellers’ diarrhoea, commonly caused by Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC).

66
Q

Q: Name three blood-containing selective agars used for Campylobacter isolation.

A

A: SkirrowCampy-Cefex

67
Q

Q: What are two blood-free selective agars for Campylobacter isolation?

A

A: Karmali and MCCDA (modified Charcoal Cefoperazone Deoxycholate agar).

68
Q

Q: What is an example of a selective agar for Campylobacter that is neither charcoal nor blood-based?

A

A: Semisolid blood-free medium (SSM).

69
Q

Q: What is A-H-B agar and what is it used for?

A

A: Abeyta-Hunt-Bark Agar

BLOCK POSTING 5 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions