GI part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

____ is the inner wall of the GI tract that consists of four layers.

A

Lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 layers of the lumen?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Serosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Before food can be absorbed, it must be broken down in to a liquid known as ____.

A

Chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ is the mechanical and chemical process in which complex foodstuffs are broken down into simpler forms that can be used by the body.

A

Digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ is carried out as the nutrients produced by digestion move from the lumen of the GI tract not the body’s circulatory system for uptake by individual cells.

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ is the act of chewing.

A

Mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ is the sphincter at the upper end of the esophagus that prevents air from entering the esophagus during respiration when at rest.

A

Upper Esophageal Sphincter (UES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ is the portion of the esophagus just above the gastroesophageal junction the is normally closed to prevent reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus, when at rest.

A

Lower Esophageal Sphicter (LES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of cells line the wall of the stomach and secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ is a substance that iAds in the absorption of vitamin B12. Without this, pernicious anemia is caused.

A

Intrinsic Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ are part of the body’s reticuloendothelial system; they engulf harmful bacteria and anemic red blood cells. (Protective function of liver.)

A

Kupffer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____ is the larges organ in the body (other than the skin).

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 major categories of liver function.

A

Storage
Protection
Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Location of the liver.

A

RUQ of abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ is a pear shaped bulbous sac that is located under the liver.

A

Gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ is the longest and most convoluted portion of the digestive system measuring 16 to 19 feet.

A

Small Intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Three different regions of the Small Intestine?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ilieum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ extends about five to six feet in length from the ileocecal valve to the anus and is lined with columnar epithelium that has absorptive mucous cells.

A

Large Intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ is a loss of appetite for food?

A

Anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

____ is a term for indigestion or heartburn.

A

Dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mnemonic that is helpful for assessing pain in pt’s with GI disorders.

A

PQRST
Precipitating or Palliative- what causes/relieves. Noticed when?
Quality or quantity- How look, feel, sound, intense/severe?
Region or radiation- where? has/does it spread
Severity scale- 0-10, better, worse, or same?
Timing- onset: when. Duration: how long. Frequency: how often?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ is the Yellowing of the skin caused by bilirubin pigments?

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ is the term for an enlarged liver?

A

Hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ is the term for an enlarged spleen?

A

Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
____ is a term for fatty stools?
Steatorrhea
26
____ is a x-ray visualization from the mouth to the duodenojejunal junction. Used to detect disorders of structor or function of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum.
Upper GI radiographic series
27
____ is an x-ray of the biliary duct system using ann iodinated dye instilled via a percutaneous needle inserted through the liver into the intrahepatic ducts.
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)
28
____ is a direct visualization of the GI tract using a flexible fiberoptic endoscope.
Endoscopy
29
____ is a visual examination of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)
30
____ includes visual and radiographic examination of the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and pancreas to id the came and location of obstruction.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
31
____ is a small incision in the sphincter around the ampulla of hater. Performed to remove gallstones.
Papillotomy
32
____ is a small bowel endoscopy
Enteroscopy
33
____ is an endoscopic examination of the entire large bowel.
Colonoscopy
34
____ is a non invasive imaging procedure to obtain multidimensional views of the entire colon.
CT colonography aka | Virtual Colonoscopy
35
____ presents as slowly developing changes in the oral mucous membranes causing thickened, white, firmly attached patches than cannot be easily scraped off.
Leukoplakia
36
____ appear as red, velvety mucosal lesions on the surface of the oral mucosa.
Erythroplakia
37
____ is a noninvasive surgical intervention that involves extreme cold application to remove lesions of the oral cavity.
Cryotherapy
38
____ is the removal of the tongue.
Glossectomy
39
____ is the removal of the jaw.
Mandibulectomy
40
____ is a COMbined neck dissection, MANDibulectoomy, and Oropharyngeal resection.
Comando procedure
41
____ is the inflammation of a salivary gland.
Acute sialadenitis
42
____ is the most common upper GI disorder in the US.
GERD (Gastroesophageal reflux disease)
43
____ occurs as a result of backward flow of stomach contents into the esophagus.
GER Gastroesophageal reflux
44
____ is a term to describe a person with acute symptoms of inflammation of the esophageal mucosa.
Reflux esophagitits
45
____ increase the risk for development of GERD due to the creation of increased intra-abdominal pressure.
Hiatal Hernias
46
____ is a narrowing of the esophageal opening than can be caused by the fibrosis and scarring from the healing of tissues affected by GERD.
Esophageal Stricture
47
____ is a term to describe indigestion.
Dyspepsia
48
____ is the backward flow of food particles or fluids into the throat.
Regurgitation
49
____ is a hypersecretion salivary reflex. Pt's report a sensation of fluid in the throat.
Water Brash
50
____ is a term for belching.
Eructation
51
____ is a term for painful swallowing.
Odynophagia
52
____ is an "upper endoscopy" that involves the insertion of an endoscope down the throat, which allows the hcp to see the esophagus and look for abnormalities.
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)
53
____ is the most accurate method of diagnosing GERD.
pH monitoring exam
54
____ are also called diaphragmatic hernias, that involve the protrusion of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm into the chest.
Hiatal hernia
55
____ is a term for air swallowing.
Aerophagia
56
____ is the spreading of cancers throughout the body.
Metastasize
57
____ results from the exposure to acid and pepsin, which leads to the replacement of normal distal squamous mucosa with columnar epithelium as a response to tissue injury.
Barrett's Esophagus
58
____ is the most common symptom of esophageal cancer, but it may not be present until the esophageal opening has gotten much smaller.
Dysphagia
59
____ is the term for foul breath.
Halitosis
60
____ is the removal of all or part of the esophagus.
Esophagectomy
61
____ involves the removal of part of the esophagus and proximal stomach.
Esophagogastrostomy
62
____ are sacs resulting from the herniation of esophageal mucosa and submucosa into surrounding tissue.
Diverticula
63
____ is the inflammation of gastric mucosa.
Gastritis
64
____ is the self digestion of the stomach.
Autodigestion
65
____ appears as a patchy, diffuse inflammation of the mucosal lining of the stomach.
Chronic Gastritis
66
____ is the result of depleted vitamin B12 storage.
Pernicious Anemia
67
____ has been associated with the presence of antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor.
Type A Chronic Gastritis
68
____ is the most common form of chronic gastritis that is caused by H. pylori.
Type B Gastritis
69
____ is a type of chronic gastritis that is seen most often in older adults.
Atrophic Gastritis
70
___ is the vomiting of blood.
Hematemsis
71
____ is the term for dark, sticky feces, as evidence of blood in the stool.
Melena
72
____ is a term for heartburn/indigestion.
Dyspepsia
73
____ is a mucosal lesion of the stomach or duodenum.
Peptic Ulcer
74
____ results when mucosal defenses become impaired and no longer protect the epithelium from the effects of acid and pepsin.
Peptic Ulcer Disease
75
____ are multiple shallow erosions of the stomach and occasionally the proximal duodenum.
Stress Ulcers
76
____ is the term for pain when the pt's abdomen is tender, rigid, and board like. Assuming a fetal position helps decrease the tension.
Periontitis
77
____ is the insertion of a large bore NGT with instillation of a room-temp solution in volumes of 200 to 300 mL.
Gastric Lavage
78
____ is the absence of the secretion of hydrochloric acid.
Achlorhydria
79
____ is a term that refers to a group of vasomotor symptoms that occur after eating.
Dumping Syndrome
80
____ is also known as bile reflux gastropathy, and is a complication of gastric surgery in which the pylorus is bypassed or removed.
Alkaline Reflux Gastropathy
81
____ is a functional GI disorder that causes chronic or recurrent diarrhea, constipation, and/or abdominal pain and bloating.
IBS
82
____ is the most common digestive disorder seen in clinical practice and may affect as many as one in five people in the US.
IBS
83
____ is a weakness in the abdominal muscle wall through which a segment of the bowel or other abdominal structure protrudes.
Hernia
84
____ is a sac formed from the peritoneum that contains a portion of the intestine or momentum.
Indirect Inguinal Hernia
85
____ pass through a weak point in the abdominal wall.
Direct Inguinal Hernias
86
____ protrude through the femoral ring. A plug of fat in the femoral canal enlarges and eventually pulls the peritoneum and often the urinary bladder into the sac.
Femoral Hernias
87
____ are congenital or acquired hernias and appear in infancy. Some are a direct result from increased intra-abdominal pressure. and can be seen in the obese.
Umbilical Hernias
88
____ are hernias that occur at the site of a previous surgical incision. Caused by inadequate healing.
Incisional or Ventral Hernias
89
____ is a term to describe when the blood supply to the hernia and segment of the bowel is cut off by pressure from the her nail ring.
Strangulated
90
____ are tumors that arise from the glandular epithelial tissue of the colon.
Adenocarcinomas
91
____ is the passage of red blood via the rectum.
Hematochezia
92
____ is an oncofetal antigen and is elevated in may people with CRC.
Carcinoembryonic Antigen
93
____ is the removal f the tumor and regional lymph nodes in CRC.
Colon Resection.
94
____ is the removal of the colon.
Colectomy
95
____ is the surgical creation of an opening of the colon onto the surface of the abdomen.
Colostomy
96
____ is the surgical reattachment
Anastomosis
97
____ is created by dividing the bowel and bringing both the proximal and sitar portions to the abdominal surface to create two stomas.
Double-Barrel Stoma
98
____ is the term for when the bowel is physically blocked by problems outside the intestine, in the bowel wall,or in the intestinal lumen.
Mechanical Obstruction.
99
____ does not involve a physical obstruction in or outside the intestine.
Nonmechanical obstuction aka Paralytic Ileus
100
____ is a blockage in two different areas.
Closed-Loop Obstruction
101
____ is an obstruction with compromised blood flow.
Strangulated Obstruction
102
____ is the telescoping of a segment of the intestine within itself. (Can cause Mechanical Obstruction)
Intussusception
103
____ is the twisting of the intestine. (Can cause Mechanical Obstruction)
Volvulus
104
____ is the inability to pass stool; intractable constipation.
Obstipation
105
____ are high pitched bowel sounds.
Borborygmi
106
____ is a surgical opening of the abdominal cavity to investigate the cause of the obstruction.
Exploratory Laparotomy
107
____ are small growths in the intestinal tract that are covered with mucosa and attached to the surface of the intestine.
Polyps
108
____ are unnaturally swollen or distended veins in the anorectal region.
Hemorrhoids
109
____ are hemorrhoids that cannot be seen on inspection of the perineal area, and lie above the anal sphincter.
Internal
110
____ are hemorrhoids that lie below the anal sphincter and can be seen on inspection of the anal region.
External
111
____ is a syndrome associated with a variety of disorders and intestinal surgical procedures.
malabsorption
112
____ are greater than normal amounts of fat in the feces.
Steatorrhea