Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing > Cardiac Nurs. 241 > Flashcards

Cardiac Nurs. 241 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

____ is the name for the heart muscle.

A

Myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ is a protective covering of the heart.

A

Pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ is the back flow of blood into the atria.

A

Valvular regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ is the amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle each minute. (Heart Rate x Stroke Volume)

A

Cardiac Output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ is the amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle during each contraction.

A

Stoke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Having a BMI of 25-30 means a person is ____.

A

Overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Having a BMI of 30 or greater means a person is ____.

A

Obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ is dyspnea that appears when he/she lies flat.

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ is pain usually relieved by resting or lowering the affected extremity to decreases tissue demands or to enhance arterial blood flow.

A

Claudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___ is the name for dusky redness color.

A

Rubor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ is the term for S3.

A

Ventricular Gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____ is the term for S4

A

Atrial Gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ causes muffled heart sounds and originates from the pericardial sac and occurs with the movements of the chart during the cardiac cycle.

A

Pericardial Friction Rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ is a myocardial muscle protein released into the bloodstream with injury to myocardial muscle.

A

Troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ is an enzyme specific to cells of the brain, myocardium, and skeletal muscle. It appearance indicates tissue necrosis or injury.

A

Creatinine Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ is an invasive diagnostic procedure that involves fluoroscopy and the use of contrast media.

A

Angiography
aka
Arteriography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____ is an invasive procedure during which programmed electrical stimulation of the heart is used to cause and evaluate lethal dysrhythmias and conduction abnormalities.

A

EPS

Electrophysiologic Study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ is a hr less than 60 bpm.

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ is a hr more than 100 bpm.

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

____ is any disorder of he heartbeat.

A

Dysrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____ is the name for the rhythm when the SA node discharge is more than 100 bpm.

A

Sinus Tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ is a nonsurgical intervention that provides a timed electrical stimulus to he heart when either the impulse initiation or the conduction system of the heart is defective.

A

Temporary pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ induce vagal stimulation of the cardiac conduction system, specifically the SA and AV nodes.

A

Vagal maneuvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ is the most common dysrhythmia seen in clinical practice

A

A Fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

____ is a synchronized countershock that may be performed in emergencies for unstable ventricular or supra ventricular tachydysrhytmias or electively for stable tachydysrhythmias that are resistant to medical therapies.

A

Cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

____ is an invasive procedure that may be used to destroy an irritable focus causing a supra ventricular or ventricular tachydysrythmia.

A

Radiofrequency catheter ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

____ are also call remature ventricular contractions, result from increased irritability of ventricular cells and are seen as early ventricular complexes followed by a pause.

A

Premature ventricular complexes

28
Q

____ is an asynchronous countershock, depolarizes a critical mass of myocardium simultaneously to stop the re-entry circuit, allowing the sinus node to regain control of the heart.

A

Defibrillation

29
Q

____ is a general term for the inability of the heart to work effectively as a pump.

A

Heart Failure

30
Q

____ is enlargement of the myocardium.

A

Myocardial hypertrophy

31
Q

____ uses a permanent pacemaker alone or is combined with a n implantable cardioverter/defibrillator.

A

Biventricular pacing
aka
Cardiac resynchronization therapy

32
Q

____ is the term for blackouts.

A

Syncope

33
Q

____ occurs because the valvular leaflets enlarge and prolapse into the left atrium during systole.

A

Mitral valve prolapse

34
Q

____usually results from rheumatic carditis, which can cause valve thickening by fibrosis and calcification.

A

Mitral Stenosis

35
Q

In ____ the aortic valve orifice narrows and obstructs left ventricular outflow during systole.

A

Aortic Stenosis

36
Q

____ is a microbial infection of the endocardium.

A

Infective Endocarditis

37
Q

____ are black longitudinal lines or small read streaks that appear on the distal third of the nail beds.

A

Splinter hemorrhages

38
Q

____ are pinpoint red spots.

A

Petechiae

39
Q

____ is an inflammation or alteration of the pericardium.

A

Acute Pericarditis

40
Q

____ occurs when chronic pericardial inflammation causes a fibrous thickening of the pericardium.

A

Chronic constrictive pericarditis

41
Q

____ occurs when he space between the parietal and visceral layers of the pericardium fills with fluid.

A

Pericardial Effusion

42
Q

____ a serious condition of excessive fluid within the pericardial cavity.

A

Cardiac Tamponade

43
Q

____ is a term for an enlarged heart.

A

Cardiomegaly

44
Q

____ is a subacute or chronic disease of cardiac muscle, and the cause may be unknown.

A

Cardiomyopathy

45
Q

____ is the structural abnormality most commonly seen.

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

46
Q

____ is the rarest of the cardiomyopathies, is characterized by stiff ventricles that restrict filing during diastole.

A

Restricitive Cardiomyopathy

47
Q

____ is a thickening, or hardening of the arterial wall that is often associated with aging.

A

Arteriosclerosis

48
Q

____ is a type of arteriosclerosis that involves the formation of plaque within the arterial wall and is the leading risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

A

Atherosclerosis

49
Q

____ includes disorders that change the natural flow of blood through the arteries and tens of the peripheral circulation, causing decreased perfusion to body tissues.

A

PVD

50
Q

____ is a pier of clot that travels and lodges in a new area

A

Embolus

51
Q

____ is a permanent localized dilation of an artery which enlarges the artery to at least 2 times its normal diameter.

A

Aneurysm

52
Q

____ is a blood clot believed to result from an endothelial injury, venous stasis, or hyper coagulability.

A

Thrombus

53
Q

____ refers to a thrombus that is associated with inflammation.

A

Thrombophlebitis

54
Q

____ is the most common type of thrombophlebitis.

A

DVT

55
Q

____are dilated intradermal veins less than 1-3mm in diameter that are visible on eh skin surface.

A

Telangiectasias
aka
Spider Veins

56
Q

____ are distended, protruding veins that pear darkened and tortuous.

A

Varicose Veins

57
Q

____ is a widespread abnormal cellular metabolism that occurs when gas exchange with oxygenation and issue perfusion needs are not met sufficiently to maintain cell function.

A

Shock

58
Q

____ is a widespread infection that triggers whole-body inflammation.

A

Sepsis

59
Q

____ is a broad term that includes chronic stable angina and acute coronary syndromes.

A

CAD

60
Q

____ is a term for necrosis or cell death.

A

Infarction

61
Q

____ is a chest pain caused by a temporary imbalance between the coronary arteries’ ability to supple oxygen and the cardiac muscle’s demand for oxygen.

A

Angina pectoris

62
Q

____ is chest discomfort that occurs with moderate to prolonged exertion in a pattern that is familiar to the pt.

A

Chronic stable angina

63
Q

____ is used to describe its who have either unstable angina or an acute myocardial infarction.

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

64
Q

____ occurs when myocardial tissue is abruptly and severely deprived of oxygen.

A

Myocardial Infarction

65
Q

____ is necrosis of more than 40% of the left ventricle occurs.

A

Cardiogenic Shock

66
Q

____ is an infection of he mediastinum.

A

Mediastinitis

Nursing (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions