115 Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through the air a person breathes.

A

Airborne Precautions

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2
Q

____ are immunoglobulins, essential to the immune system, that are produced by lymphoid tissue in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens.

A

Antibodies

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3
Q

____ is a substance usually a protein, that causes the formation of an antibody and reacts specifically with that antibody.

A

Antigen

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4
Q

____ is the absence of germs or microorganisms.

A

Asepsis

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5
Q

____ is any health care procedure in which added precautions are used to proven contamination of a person, object, or area y microorganisms.

A

Aseptic Technique

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6
Q

____ are persons or animals who harbor and spread an organism that causes disease in others but do not become ill.

A

Carriers

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7
Q

____ is the presence and multiplication of microorganisms without tissue invasion or damage.

A

Colonization

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8
Q

____ is any disease that can be transmitted from one person or animal to another by direct or indirect contact or by vectors.

A

Communicable disease

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9
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce risk of transmission of epidemiologically important microorganisms by direct or indirect contact.

A

Contact Precautions

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10
Q

____ is the process of destroying all pathogenic organisms, except spores.

A

Disinfection

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11
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents.

A

Droplet Precautions

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12
Q

____ are infections produced within a cell or organism.

A

Endogenous Infections

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13
Q

____ is an infection originating outside an organ or part.

A

Exogenous Infection

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14
Q

____ are microorganisms that live on or within a body to compete with disease-producing microorganisms and provide a natural immunity against certain infections.

A

Flora

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15
Q

____ is an infection that was not present or incubating at the time of admission to a health care setting.

A

Health Care Acquired Infection

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16
Q

____ is the quality of being insusceptible to or unaffected by a particular disease or condition.

A

Immunity

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17
Q

____ is the invasion of the body by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply.

A

Infection

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18
Q

____ is a protective response of body tissues to irritation or injury.

A

Inflammation

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19
Q

____ are procedures used to reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their spread.

A

Medical asepsis

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20
Q

____ are microscopic entities, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, capable of carrying on living processes.

A

Microorganisms

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21
Q

____ is of or pertaining to the death of tissue in response to disease or injury.

A

Necrotic

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22
Q

____ is the ability of a pathogenic agent to produce a disease.

A

Pathogenicity

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23
Q

____ are microorganisms capable of producing disease.

A

Pathogens

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24
Q

____ is a place where microorganisms survive, multiply, and await transfer to a susceptible host.

A

Reservoir

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25
Q

____ are guidelines recommended by the CDC to reduce risk of transmission of blood-borne and other pathogens in hospitals.

A

Standard Precautions

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26
Q

____ is a technique for destroying microorganisms using heat, water, chemicals, or gases.

A

Sterilization

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27
Q

____ is a secondary infection usually caused by an opportunistic pathogen.

A

Suprainfection

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28
Q

____ are procedures used to eliminate any microorganisms from an area. Also called sterile technique.

A

Surgical asepsis.

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29
Q

____ is the ability of an organism to rapidly produce disease.

A

Virulence

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30
Q

____ is the term for an illness that do not have clinical signs and symptoms present.

A

Asymptomatic

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31
Q

____ is a protective reaction that neutralizes pathogens and repairs body cells.

A

Inflammatory response

32
Q

If pathogens multiply and cause clinical signs and symptoms the infections is termed ____.

A

Symptomatic

33
Q

____ are precautions used with patient who have communicable diseases and infections that are easily transmissible to others.

A

Transmission-based precautions

34
Q

____ are activities usually perfumed in the course of a normal day in the patient’s life, such as eating, dressing, bathing, brushing teeth, or grooming.

A

ADLs

35
Q

____ is a kind or amount of exercise or work a person is able to perform

A

Activity tolerance

36
Q

____ is the body measures of height, weight, and skin folds to evaluate muscle atrophy.

A

Anthropometric measurements

37
Q

____ is the placement of the patient in bed for therapeutic reasons for a prescribed period.

A

Bed Rest

38
Q

____ is the destruction of bone cells and release of calcium into the blood.

A

Bone resorption

39
Q

____ is reductions in skeletal mass routinely accompanying immobility or paralysis.

A

Disuse Osteoporosis

40
Q

____ is the increased rate of formation and excretion of urine.

A

Diuresis

41
Q

____ is an abnormal neuromuscular condition of the lower leg and foot, characterized by an inability to dorsiflex, or evert the foot.

A

Footdrop

42
Q

____ is pneumonia that results fro fluid accumulation as a result of inactivity.

A

Hypostatic Pneumonia

43
Q

____ is the inability to move about freely, caused by any condition in which movement is immured or therapeutically restricted.

A

Immobility

44
Q

____ are activities that are necessary to be independent in society beyond eating, grooming, transferring, and toiling and include such skills as shopping, preparing meals, banking, and taking meds.

A

Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL’s)

45
Q

____ is the decreased blood supply to a body part, such as skin tissue, or to an organ, such as the heart.

A

Ischemia

46
Q

____ is the abnormality that may result in permanent condition of a joint, is characterized by flexion and fixation, and is caused by disuse, atrophy, and shortening of muscle fibers and surrounding joint tissues.

A

Joint Contracture

47
Q

____ is a person’s ability to move about freely.

A

Mobility

48
Q

____ is a condition occurring when the body excretes more nitrogen than it takes in.

A

Negative Nitrogen Balance

49
Q

____ is the abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up.

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

50
Q

____ is a disorder characterized by abnormal rarefaction of bone, occurring most frequently in postmenopausal women, in sedentary or immobilized individuals, and in patines on long-term steroid therapy.

A

Osteoporosis

51
Q

____ are fractures resulting from weekend bone tissue; frequently caused by osteoporosis or neoplasms.

A

Pathological Fractures

52
Q

____ s the accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and the cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, sometimes occluding the lumen of the vessel.

A

Thrombus

53
Q

____ is a term that means the individual’s center of gravity is stable.

A

Body alignment

54
Q

____ is the scraping or rubbing away of the epidermis the may result in localized bleeding and later weeping of serous fluid.

A

Abrasion

55
Q

____ are bandages made of large pieces of material to fit specific body parts.

A

Binders

56
Q

____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. When pressure is applied to the skin, the area blanches, or turns a lighter color.

A

Blanchable hyperemia

57
Q

____ is a soft pad of gauze or cloth used to apply heat, cold, or medications to the surface fox body part.

A

Compress

58
Q

____ is the removal of dead tissue from a wound.

A

Debridement

59
Q

____ is the separation of a wound’s edges, revealing underlying tissues.

A

Dehiscence

60
Q

____ is the discoloration of the skin or bruise caused by leakage of blood into subcutaneous tissues as a result of trauma to underlying tissues.

A

Ecchymosis

61
Q

____ is a thick layer of dead, dry tissue that covers a pressure ulcer or thermal burn; it may be allowed to be a sloughed off naturally or it may need to be surgically removed.

A

Eschar

62
Q

____ is the protrusion of visceral organs through a surgical wound.

A

Evisceration

63
Q

____ is the effect of rubbing or the resistance that a moving body meets from the surface non which it moves; a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.

A

Friction

64
Q

____ is soft pink, fleshy projections of tissue that form during the healing process in a wound no healing by primary intention.

A

Granulation Tissue

65
Q

____ is a collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the skin or an organ.

A

Hematoma

66
Q

____ is the termination of bleeding by mechanical or chemical means or by the coagulation process of the body.

A

Hemostasis

67
Q

____ is the hardening of a tissue, particularly the skin, because of edema or inflammation.

A

Induration

68
Q

____ is a torn, jagged wound.

A

Laceration

69
Q

____ is the softening and breaking down of skin from prolonged exposure to moisture.

A

Maceration

70
Q

____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. The redness persist when prissier is applied to the area, indicating tissue damage.

A

Nonblanchable hyperemia

71
Q

____ is the inflammation sore or ulcer in the skin over a bony prominence.

A

Pressure Ulcer

72
Q

____ is the primary union of the edges of a wound, progression to complete scar formation without granulation

A

Primary Intention

73
Q

____ is the wound closure in which the edges are separated, granulation tissue develops to fill the gap and finally, epithelium grows in over the granulation, producing a larger scar than results with primary intention.

A

Secondary Intention

74
Q

____ is the force exerted against the skin while the kin remains stationary and the bony structures move.

A

Shear

75
Q

____ is a bath in which only the hips or buttocks are immersed in fluid.

A

Sitz Bath

76
Q

____ is the point at which tissues receive insufficient oxygen and perfusion.

A

Tissue ischemia

77
Q

____ is a redness of the skin resulting from dilation of the superficial capillaries.

A

Reactive hyperemia