115 Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through the air a person breathes.

A

Airborne Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ are immunoglobulins, essential to the immune system, that are produced by lymphoid tissue in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens.

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ is a substance usually a protein, that causes the formation of an antibody and reacts specifically with that antibody.

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ is the absence of germs or microorganisms.

A

Asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ is any health care procedure in which added precautions are used to proven contamination of a person, object, or area y microorganisms.

A

Aseptic Technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ are persons or animals who harbor and spread an organism that causes disease in others but do not become ill.

A

Carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ is the presence and multiplication of microorganisms without tissue invasion or damage.

A

Colonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ is any disease that can be transmitted from one person or animal to another by direct or indirect contact or by vectors.

A

Communicable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce risk of transmission of epidemiologically important microorganisms by direct or indirect contact.

A

Contact Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ is the process of destroying all pathogenic organisms, except spores.

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ are safeguards designed to reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents.

A

Droplet Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____ are infections produced within a cell or organism.

A

Endogenous Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ is an infection originating outside an organ or part.

A

Exogenous Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ are microorganisms that live on or within a body to compete with disease-producing microorganisms and provide a natural immunity against certain infections.

A

Flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ is an infection that was not present or incubating at the time of admission to a health care setting.

A

Health Care Acquired Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ is the quality of being insusceptible to or unaffected by a particular disease or condition.

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____ is the invasion of the body by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply.

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ is a protective response of body tissues to irritation or injury.

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ are procedures used to reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their spread.

A

Medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

____ are microscopic entities, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, capable of carrying on living processes.

A

Microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____ is of or pertaining to the death of tissue in response to disease or injury.

A

Necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ is the ability of a pathogenic agent to produce a disease.

A

Pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ are microorganisms capable of producing disease.

A

Pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ is a place where microorganisms survive, multiply, and await transfer to a susceptible host.

A

Reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
____ are guidelines recommended by the CDC to reduce risk of transmission of blood-borne and other pathogens in hospitals.
Standard Precautions
26
____ is a technique for destroying microorganisms using heat, water, chemicals, or gases.
Sterilization
27
____ is a secondary infection usually caused by an opportunistic pathogen.
Suprainfection
28
____ are procedures used to eliminate any microorganisms from an area. Also called sterile technique.
Surgical asepsis.
29
____ is the ability of an organism to rapidly produce disease.
Virulence
30
____ is the term for an illness that do not have clinical signs and symptoms present.
Asymptomatic
31
____ is a protective reaction that neutralizes pathogens and repairs body cells.
Inflammatory response
32
If pathogens multiply and cause clinical signs and symptoms the infections is termed ____.
Symptomatic
33
____ are precautions used with patient who have communicable diseases and infections that are easily transmissible to others.
Transmission-based precautions
34
____ are activities usually perfumed in the course of a normal day in the patient's life, such as eating, dressing, bathing, brushing teeth, or grooming.
ADLs
35
____ is a kind or amount of exercise or work a person is able to perform
Activity tolerance
36
____ is the body measures of height, weight, and skin folds to evaluate muscle atrophy.
Anthropometric measurements
37
____ is the placement of the patient in bed for therapeutic reasons for a prescribed period.
Bed Rest
38
____ is the destruction of bone cells and release of calcium into the blood.
Bone resorption
39
____ is reductions in skeletal mass routinely accompanying immobility or paralysis.
Disuse Osteoporosis
40
____ is the increased rate of formation and excretion of urine.
Diuresis
41
____ is an abnormal neuromuscular condition of the lower leg and foot, characterized by an inability to dorsiflex, or evert the foot.
Footdrop
42
____ is pneumonia that results fro fluid accumulation as a result of inactivity.
Hypostatic Pneumonia
43
____ is the inability to move about freely, caused by any condition in which movement is immured or therapeutically restricted.
Immobility
44
____ are activities that are necessary to be independent in society beyond eating, grooming, transferring, and toiling and include such skills as shopping, preparing meals, banking, and taking meds.
Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL's)
45
____ is the decreased blood supply to a body part, such as skin tissue, or to an organ, such as the heart.
Ischemia
46
____ is the abnormality that may result in permanent condition of a joint, is characterized by flexion and fixation, and is caused by disuse, atrophy, and shortening of muscle fibers and surrounding joint tissues.
Joint Contracture
47
____ is a person's ability to move about freely.
Mobility
48
____ is a condition occurring when the body excretes more nitrogen than it takes in.
Negative Nitrogen Balance
49
____ is the abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up.
Orthostatic Hypotension
50
____ is a disorder characterized by abnormal rarefaction of bone, occurring most frequently in postmenopausal women, in sedentary or immobilized individuals, and in patines on long-term steroid therapy.
Osteoporosis
51
____ are fractures resulting from weekend bone tissue; frequently caused by osteoporosis or neoplasms.
Pathological Fractures
52
____ s the accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and the cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, sometimes occluding the lumen of the vessel.
Thrombus
53
____ is a term that means the individual's center of gravity is stable.
Body alignment
54
____ is the scraping or rubbing away of the epidermis the may result in localized bleeding and later weeping of serous fluid.
Abrasion
55
____ are bandages made of large pieces of material to fit specific body parts.
Binders
56
____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. When pressure is applied to the skin, the area blanches, or turns a lighter color.
Blanchable hyperemia
57
____ is a soft pad of gauze or cloth used to apply heat, cold, or medications to the surface fox body part.
Compress
58
____ is the removal of dead tissue from a wound.
Debridement
59
____ is the separation of a wound's edges, revealing underlying tissues.
Dehiscence
60
____ is the discoloration of the skin or bruise caused by leakage of blood into subcutaneous tissues as a result of trauma to underlying tissues.
Ecchymosis
61
____ is a thick layer of dead, dry tissue that covers a pressure ulcer or thermal burn; it may be allowed to be a sloughed off naturally or it may need to be surgically removed.
Eschar
62
____ is the protrusion of visceral organs through a surgical wound.
Evisceration
63
____ is the effect of rubbing or the resistance that a moving body meets from the surface non which it moves; a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.
Friction
64
____ is soft pink, fleshy projections of tissue that form during the healing process in a wound no healing by primary intention.
Granulation Tissue
65
____ is a collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the skin or an organ.
Hematoma
66
____ is the termination of bleeding by mechanical or chemical means or by the coagulation process of the body.
Hemostasis
67
____ is the hardening of a tissue, particularly the skin, because of edema or inflammation.
Induration
68
____ is a torn, jagged wound.
Laceration
69
____ is the softening and breaking down of skin from prolonged exposure to moisture.
Maceration
70
____ is the redness of the skin due to dilation of the superficial capillaries. The redness persist when prissier is applied to the area, indicating tissue damage.
Nonblanchable hyperemia
71
____ is the inflammation sore or ulcer in the skin over a bony prominence.
Pressure Ulcer
72
____ is the primary union of the edges of a wound, progression to complete scar formation without granulation
Primary Intention
73
____ is the wound closure in which the edges are separated, granulation tissue develops to fill the gap and finally, epithelium grows in over the granulation, producing a larger scar than results with primary intention.
Secondary Intention
74
____ is the force exerted against the skin while the kin remains stationary and the bony structures move.
Shear
75
____ is a bath in which only the hips or buttocks are immersed in fluid.
Sitz Bath
76
____ is the point at which tissues receive insufficient oxygen and perfusion.
Tissue ischemia
77
____ is a redness of the skin resulting from dilation of the superficial capillaries.
Reactive hyperemia