Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3RD YEAR - Long Term Conditions/FOCP > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

What is Grey-turners sign?

A

Bruising of the flanks and indicates intra-abdominal bleeding, consequently it is predictive of severe and acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Bruising around the umbilicus, it is also indicative of intra-abdominal bleeding and predictive of acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does coffee ground haematemesis mean?

A

Upper GI bleeding, for example due to a peptic ulcer, or use of NSAIDs/SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some possible causes of epigastric pain?

A

Pancreatitis, peptic ulcer disease, aortic aneurysm, perforated oesophagus, MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some possible causes of RUQ (hypochondrial) pain?

A

Biliary colic, cholecystitis, renal, hepatitis, peptic ulcer, carcinoma, subphrenic abscess, duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some possible causes of LUQ (hypochondrial) pain?

A

Peptic ulcer, suphrenic abscess, renal, carcinoma, ruptured spleen, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some possible causes of loin pain?

A

Renal colic, pyelonephritis, perforated bowel, referred pain, pancreatitis, ruptured spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some possible causes of LLQ (iliac fossa) pain?

A

Diverticulitis, volvolus, colon cancer, pelvic abscess, IBD, UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some possible causes of RLQ (iliac fossa) pain?

A

Appendicitis, UTI, volvolus, colon cancer, pelvic abscess, IBD, crohns ileitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some possible causes of pelvic pain?

A

Pregnancy, UTI, carcinoma, mnestruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some causes of generalised pelvic pain?

A

Gastroenteritis, IBS, constipation, peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an ileus?

A

Lack of movement in the intestines leading to build up and blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

A harmless inherited condition in which the liver doesn’t produce the enzyme to break down bilirubin, so it builds up causing jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is tenesmus and when is it common?

A

The sensation of incomplete emptying after defecation, commonly experienced in IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is rebound tenderness and what usually causes it?

A

Pain upon removal of pressure from the abdomen, commonly caused by peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Rovings sign?

A

Palpation of the left lower quadrant produces pain in the right lower quadrant - this is indicative of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

Pain on taking a deep breath, when the examiner is pressing down on the right upper quadrant - this is indicative of cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is McBurneys point?

A

A point that lies one-third of distance laterally on a line drawn from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine - this is where the appendix lies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In a GI exam, which organs should descend on inspiration?

A

Liver, spleen, kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two layers of the peritoneum?

A

Parietal (lines the abdominal wall)

Visceral (covers organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what level does the oesphogus pass through the diaphragm?

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where does the stomach receive its blood supply from?

A

Coeliac trunk of common hepatic artery

Gastric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes dysphagia?

A 
Mechanical block (malignancy, GORD, extrinsic pressures)
Motility disorders (achalasia - failure of LOS to relax due to degeneration of myenteric plexus, stroke, MS, MND, parkinsons)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cancers occur in the oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma (from Barret’s)

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the role of the duodenum?

A
  1. Takes in secretions from the pancreas and gallbladder, by producing CCK and secretin
  2. Slows gastric emptying
  3. Increases pancreatic activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the role of the jejunum?

A

Lots of villi to increase surface area, involved in nutritional absorption and regular peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the role of the ileum?

A

Absorption of vitamin B12 and bile salts and whatever products of digestion were not absorbed by the jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are taeniae coli?

A

Three separate longitudinal ribbons of smooth muscle on the outside of the ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid colons. They contract lengthways to produce haustra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of the large intestine?

A
  1. Absorption of water and minerals
  2. Mass movement (peristalsis twice an hour)
  3. Defaecation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Perforation of a peptic/duodenal ulcer, diverticulum, appendix, bowel or gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the signs of peritonitis?

A

Prostration (lying flat), lying very still, shock, rebound tenderness, guarding, rigidity, absent bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is peritonitis managed (tests and treatment)?

A

Tests - FBC, CRP, U&E, amylase, LFT, ABG, urinalysis, erect CXR (gas), AXR, USS

Treatment - Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the symptoms of acute appendicitis?

A

Periumbilical pain that moves to the RIF
Anorexia
Vomiting (often from the pain)
Constipation/diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the special tests to diagnose appendicitis?

A

Rosving’s sign - pain > in RIF when you press on LIF
Psoas sign - pain on extending hip if retrocaecal appendix
Cope sign - pain on flexion and internal rotation of right hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is the gold standard imaging for acute appendicitis?

A

CT - only downfall is it takes time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is acute appendicitis treated?

A
  1. Metronidazole + cefuroxime

2. Laparoscopic appendicectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A girl has acute abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder tip. What are your two main differentials and how do you differentiate between the two?

A

Acute cholecystitis - vomiting, jaundice, fever, rigors

Ectopic pregnancy - vaginal bleeding following weeks of amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the symptoms of intestinal obstruction?

A

Vomiting (faeculant = severe)
Colicky pain
Constipation (ask about flatulence)
Distenstion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the main causes of obstruction of the small bowel?

A

Adhesions

Hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the main causes of obstruction of the large bowel?

A

Colon cancer
Constipation
Diverticular structure
Volvolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an ileus?

A

A functional obstruction of the bowel from reduced motility - painless, bowel sounds will be absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What would you hear on auscultation of a mechanical obstruction?

A

Tinkling bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is an obstruction managed?

A

NGT and IV fluids to replenish electrolytes

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is leukoplakia and what causes it?

A

Oral mucosal white patch - premalignant, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are aphthous ulcers and what causes them?

A

Shallow painful ulcers on the tongue/oral mucosa - trauma, crohn’s, coeliac, behect’s, erythema multiform, lichen plans, infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is candidiasis and what causes it?

A

White patches on buccal mucosa - fungal, antibiotics, immunusuppresion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is angular stomatitis and what causes it?

A

Fissuring of the mouth corners - denture problems, candidiasis, iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is gingivitis and what causes it?

A

Gum inflammation and hypertrophy - poor oral hygiene, drugs, pregnancy, vitamin c deficiency, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is oral pigmentation and what causes it?

A

Perioral brown spots - Peutz-Jehjers disease, Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the symptoms of peptic ulcer disease?

A 
ALARMS
Anaemia
Loss of weight
Anorexia
Recent symptoms
Malaena/haematemesis
Swallowing difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How can you differentiate duodenal and gastric ulcer by their symptoms?

A

DUODENAL - Gnawing epigastric pain BEFORE meals or at night, which is relieved by eating

GASTRIC - Gnawing epigastric pain AFTER meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are H.pylori peptic ulcers treated?

A

Triple therapy:

  • Amoxicillin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Omeprazole/lansoprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can you test for presence of H.pylori?

A

Non-invasive - 13C breath test

Invasive - CLO test (rapid urease test)

54
Q

What are the risk factors for peptic ulcer?

A

H.pylori, smoking, NSAIDS, reflux, delayed gastric emptying, stress

55
Q

What is GORD?

A

Reflux of stomach contents, causing over 2 episodes of heartburn a week (aka. waterbrash)

56
Q

Prolonged reflux can lead to what?

A

Benign oesophageal stricture
Oesophagitis
Barret’s oesophagus (sqaumous –> columnar)

57
Q

What are the risk factors for GORD?

A 
Hiatus hernia
Loss of peristaltic function 
Abdominal obesity
Gastric acid hyper secretion
Slow gastric emptying
Smoking/alcohol
Pregnancy
Drugs
58
Q

What are the symptoms of GORD?

A 
Heartburn
Belching
Acid/waterbrash
Odynophagia
Nocturnal asthma/cough
59
Q

How can GORD be managed?

A

Antacids/alginates/PPIs for symptomatic relief

60
Q

What is the Rockall score?

A

A scoring system for upper GI bleeds, based on:

  • Age
  • BP
  • Pulse
  • Comorbidity
  • Diagnosis
  • Signs of recent haemorrhage on endoscopy (NB full resuscitation must be done before attempting this)
61
Q

What is the main cause of upper GI bleeds?

A

Peptic ulcer, mallory-weiss

62
Q

How should an acute GI bleed be managed?

A

Acute - ABC, 500ml fluid challenge over 5 minutes, surgery

Long-term - PPI (heal ulcer), antibiotics (h.pylori) to prevent rebleed

63
Q

What are the main causes of lower GI bleeds (and the risk factors)?

A

Small bowel mucosal damage (NSAID/aspirin)
Diverticular bleeding (NSAID/aspirin)
Colorectal cancer (weight loss)
Ischaemic colitis (preceding hypovolaemia)
Aorto-colic fistulae (previous vascular surgery)
Radiation proctitis (previous malignancy)
Haemorrhoids (bright red blood)

64
Q

What are the indications for surgery for an GI bleed?

A
  • Severe bleeding, despite transfusion
  • Active/uncontrollable bleeding at endoscopy
  • Rockal score (>3 at start, or >6 after endoscopy)
65
Q

What are oesophageal varices?

A

Dilated sub-mucosal veins, due to portal hypertension and cirrhosis (often related to alcohol abuse)

66
Q

How are varices managed?

A
  1. Propanolol to reduce portal hypertension

2. Endoscopic banding ligation (tie off varices to prevent bleeding)

67
Q

What are the diagnostic indications for upper GI endoscopy?

A

Haematemesis, new dyspepsia, suspected cancer, persistent vomiting

68
Q

What are the diagnostic indications for colonoscopy?

A

Rectal bleeding, persistent diarrhoea, biopsy of lesion seen on barium enema, assessment of IBD, suspected cancer

69
Q

What are the diagnostic indications for duodenal biopsy?

A

Coeliac disease, malabsorption

70
Q

What is IBS?

A

A group of non-specific abdominal symptoms for which no organic cause has been found (likely due to a disorder of intestinal motility)

71
Q

What are the symptoms of IBS?

A

Abdo pain relieved by defecation, altered stool form or bowel frequency and 2 of:

  • Urgency
  • Tenesmus
  • Bloating
  • Mucous PR
  • Symptoms worse after eating
72
Q

What exacerbates IBS?

A

Stress, menstruation, gastroenteritis

73
Q

How is IBS managed?

A

Conservative - healthy diet, limit stress

Medical - stool softeners if constipated (isphagula, lactulose), bulking agents if diarrhoea, bloating (mebeverine)

74
Q

What is IBD?

A

An immune-mediated chronic intestinal condition, made up of Crohn’s and UC

75
Q

What is UC?

A

Relapsing and remitting inflammation of the colonic mucosa

76
Q

Where does UC affect?

A

Anywhere proximal to the ileocaecal valve (often anal sparing)

77
Q

Describe the inflammation in UC

A

Uniform and continous, confined to the mucosa, crypt abscesses

78
Q

What are the symptoms of UC?

A

Crampy abdo pain, bloody diarrhoea, fatigue, systemically unwell during attacks, mouth ulcers (secondary to malabsorption)

79
Q

What are the complications of UC?

A
  • Perforation
  • Toxic megacolon
  • Venous thrombosis
  • Colon cancer
80
Q

How is UC treated?

A

Mild - sulfasalazine (DMARD) PO
Moderate - prednisolone PO
Severe - IV hydrocortisone

81
Q

What are the indications for a stoma in UC?

A

Perforation
Massive haemorrhage
Toxic megacolon
Failed medical therapy

Needed in about 20% of patients

82
Q

Where does Crohn’s affect?

A

Mainly terminal ileum and proximal colon, but can affect anywhere in the gut (often rectal sparing)

83
Q

Describe the inflammation in Crohn’s disease?

A

Transmural, skip lesions (unaffected bowel between areas of active disease)

84
Q

What are the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A

Abdominal pain, diarrhoea, fatigue, mouth ulcers (primary) systemically unwell

85
Q

What are the complications of Crohn’s?

A
  • Small bowel obstruction (due to narrowing and thickening)
  • Abscess formation
  • Fistulae
  • Perforation and rectal haemorrhage
  • Anal strictures
  • Colon cancer
86
Q

How is Crohn’s treated?

A

Mild: prednisolone PO
Severe: hydrocortisone IV

87
Q

How can you tell if a stoma bag is an ileostomy or colostomy?

A

Ileostomy - protect skin due to enzymes, right sided

Colostomy - ok to touch skin, left sided

88
Q

What causes bloody diarrhoea?

A

UC, gastroenteritis (campylobacter, shigella), colorectal cancer, polyps, ischaemic colitis

89
Q

What causes mucus diarrhoea?

A

IBS, colorectal cancer, polyps

90
Q

What causes steatorrhoea?

A

Pancreatic dysfunction

91
Q

What is loperamide used for?

A

Diarrhoea - bulking agent

92
Q

If colorectal malignancy is suspected, what imaging should be done?

A

Barium enema

Colonoscopy

93
Q

What are the different types of laxatives used to treat constipation?

A 
Stimulant - senna, glycerol
Bulking agents (increased faecal mass to stimulate peristalsis) - loperamide
Isphagula husk
Stool softeners - docusate sodium
Osmotic laxatives - lactulose, macrogol
94
Q

What are the different types of laxatives used to treat constipation?

A 
Stimulant - senna, glycerol
Bulking agents (increased faecal mass to stimulate peristalsis) - loperamide
Ispaghula husk
Stool softeners - docusate sodium
Osmotic laxatives - lactulose, macrogol
95
Q

What is the classical triad of mesenteric ischaemia?

A
  1. Acute severe abdominal pain
  2. No other abdominal signs
  3. Shock
96
Q

What are some causes of mesenteric ischaemia?

A

ASK ABOUT CARDIOVASCULAR HISTORY

  • Thrombus/emboliv (usually in superior mesenteric artery)
  • Venous
  • Trauma
  • Vasculitis
  • Strangulation (volvolus/hernia)
97
Q

How is staging investigated for GI cancers?

A

CT
PET (radioactive)
Laparoscopy
Endoscopic ultransound

98
Q

What causes oesophageal cancer?

A

Smoking, alcohol, diet, Barret’s, achalasia

99
Q

What causes gastric cancer?

A

Diet, H.pylori, smoking, alcohol, FAP, Barret’s, pernicious anaemia

100
Q

What is the main type of:

a) oesophageal cancer?
b) gastric cancer?

A

BOTH adenocarcinoma

101
Q

What are the 2WW criteria for upper GI?

A
  • Dysphagia, obstructive jaundice, upper abdo mass
  • Dyspepsia with weight loss, anaemia or vomiting, at any age
  • All dyspepsia > 55 years for 6 weeks
  • Dyspepsia with over 2 first degree relatives with upper GI cancer, Barrett’s, pernicious anaemia
  • Previous peptic ulcer surgery
102
Q

Describe the epidemiology of colorectal cancer

A

3rd most common cancer, and 2nd most common cancer deaths

103
Q

What causes colorectal cancer?

A

IBD, poor diet, smoking, alcohol, genetic predisposition (FAP, HNPCC)

104
Q

What are the specific symptoms of left sided colorectal cancer?

A

Looser stools, tenesmus, bleeding

105
Q

What are the specific symptoms of right sided colorectal cancer?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia, weight loss, abdo pain, palpable mass

106
Q

What are the specific symptoms of rectal cancer?

A

Rectal bleeding, tenesmus

107
Q

What is FAP?

A

An inherited disorder causing numerous polyps to form in the epithelium of the large intestine

108
Q

What is HNPCC/Lynch syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome (HNPCC or hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer) is an autosomal dominant genetic condition that has a high risk of colon cancer

109
Q

What is the 2WW criteria for lower GI cancer?

A
  • > 40yo rectal bleeding and looser/frequent stools for >6weeks
  • > 60yo rectal bleeding >6weeks alone
  • > 60yo looser/frequent stools >6weeks alone
  • Any age with right lower abdo or rectal mass
  • Any age unexplained iron deficiency anaemia
110
Q

What is CEA?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen - this is raised in many patients with CRC and indicates a worse prognosis

111
Q

How are GI cancers staged (what criteria)?

A

Upper GI - TNM

Lower GI - TNM, Dukes

112
Q

What screening tests are available for colon cancer?

A

Between 50-75 yrs:

  1. Faecal occult blood testing (check for hidden blood in stools)
  2. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
  3. Colonoscopy

Looks for adenomatous polyps (80% of cause)

113
Q

What is the difference between diverticulum, diverticulosis, diverticular disease and diverticulitis?

A

Diverticulum - outpouching of gut wall
Diverticulosis - outpouchings are present
Diverticular disease - outpouchings are symptomatic
Diverticulitis - outpouchings are inflamed, causing colicky pain in the LLQ

114
Q

Where do most diverticuli occur?

A

Sigmoid colon

115
Q

What are the complications of diverticulitis?

A

Perforation - peritonitis and shock
Haemorrhage - sudden and painless
Fistulae - need surgery
Abscess - pus in rectum (if not could be subdiaphragmatic)

116
Q

What is a hiatus hernia, and what are the two types?

A

When part of the stomach moves up through the chest through a hole in the diaphragm:

  • Sliding (80%) - gastro-oesophageal junction slides up into the chest, causes reflux
  • Rolling (20%) - junction remains in abdomen but a bulge of stomach herniates up into the chest, no reflux
117
Q

What is a hernia?

A

The protrusion of a viscous through the wall of the cavity into an abnormal position

118
Q

What is an incarcerated hernia?

A

It means that the contents of the hernial sac are stuck inside by adhesions

119
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

This means the hernia has become ischaemic, bowel sounds will be absent, and the patient becomes toxic –> URGENT SURGERY

120
Q

What is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Passes through the internal inguinal ring and out through the external ring (75%)

121
Q

What is a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Pushes directly forward through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal into a defect in the abdominal wall

These are more likely to strangulate than direct hernias

122
Q

Where are the deep and superficial inguinal rings located?

A

Deep - midpoint of the inguinal ligament

Superficial - superior and medial to the the pubic tubercle

123
Q

What is a femoral hernia and where is it felt?

A

Bowel enters the femoral canal and points down the leg - common in middle aged woman, likely to be irreducible and strangulate

The neck of the hernia is likely to be felt inferior and lateral to the pubertal tubercle

124
Q

Name 6 different types of hernia

A 
Inguinal
Femoral
Hiatus
Paraumbilical
Epigastric
Incisional (through previously made incision)
Lumbar
Spigelan (rectus sheath)
Richter (part of the bowel protrudes through abdo wall, can cause gangrene)
125
Q

What values are measured using the MUST tool?

A

Height, weight (now and 6 months ago), BMI, acute disease effect

0 = low risk
1 = medium
2 = high
126
Q

If conventional values can’t be used, what can you measure in a MUST tool?

A
  • Mid upper arm circumference (muscle mass)
  • Triceps skinfold thickness (fat stores)
  • Grip strength (functional status)
  • Waist cicrumference (fat stores)
127
Q

When is parenteral nutrition used?

A

If gut is inaccessible or non-functioning, or if oral/enteral feeding is inadequate or unsafe

128
Q

What does parenteral nutrition contain?

A

Glucose
Amnio acids
Fat emulsion

Vitamins and trace elemtents

129
Q

What are the complications of parenteral nutrition?

A
  • Line sepsis
  • Vomiting and diarrhoea
  • Glucose intolerance
  • Thiamine depletion
  • Refeeding syndrome
130
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Fluid and electrolyte shifts with consequent metabolic implications in malnourished patients undergoing re-feeding

131
Q

What systemic features are associated with IBD?

A

Clubbing
Apthous ulcers
Erythema nodosum (nodular red rash on shins)
Pyoderma gangrenosum (necrotic leg tissue)
Conjunvitivits/iritis
Large joint arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis (HLA-b27 connection)

3RD YEAR - Long Term Conditions/FOCP (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions