GI 2 Flashcards

1
Q

75% of all SBO are d/t _____

A

adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why do adhesions occur

A
  • Adhesions can occur anywhere from a few days after surgery to 10-20 years
  • Occur after laparatomies and other GI surgeries, radiation or foreign bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why does distension occur in SBO

A
  • Fluid and swallowed air accumulate in the small bowel, causing distention. Fluid keeps building up from saliva, fluids and gastric juices.
  • Swallowed air has a high nitrogen content and is poorly absorbed in the bowel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Increased pressure of SBO causes increased capillary permeability and…

A

movement of fluid and electrolytes into the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

s/s of SBO

A
  • Intermittent, crampy, periumbilical pain
  • Borborygni above the obstruction cause pain, more severe closer to the obstruction
  • Vomiting at first and then abdominal distention
  • Tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, poor skin turgor or dry mucous membranes
  • Rebound tenderness and decreasing BP may be signs of perforation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most small bowel obstructions _____

A
  • *resolve SPONTANEOUSLY (fix themselves)
  • 80% of SBO resolve spontaneously
  • If doesn’t improve in 3-5 days need surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

management of SBO

A

NPO
NG intubation to decompress
Fluids and electrolytes
Foley, CVP catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

surgery of SBO if doesnt resolve on own

A

exploratory laparotomy, lysis of adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if colonic SBO…

A

may need a bowel resection, colostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if paralytic ileus…

A

use neostigmine to stimulate peristalsis if not responsive to conservative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

abdominal pressure should be what and how is it monitored

A
  • less than 10

- Monitored with foleys (blow up balloon and push pressure against bladder, transduce to determine abdominal pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

regions of left abdomen (from top to bottom)

A

1) Left Hypochondriac
2) Left Lumbar/Lateral
3) Left Iliac/Inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

regions of middle abdomen (from top to bottom)

A

1) Epigastric
2) Umbilical
3) Hypogastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

regions of right abdomen (from top to bottom)

A

1) Right Hypochondirac
2) Right Lumbar/Lateral
3) Right Iliac/Inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe toxic megacolon

A
  • Massive dilation of the colon that can lead to gangrene and peritonitis.
  • Large colon
  • d/t swelling within the colon and UC or Chron’s with leakage
  • Colon stops working and swells up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of toxic megacolon

A
  • Depends on the cause
  • If inflammatory bowel: Infliximab (Remicade) & Adalimumab (Humira) immunomodulators to decrease inflammation
  • Surgery for non-functioning bowel
  • Antibiotics
17
Q

cause of toxic megacolon

A

inflammatory (UC or Chron’s) or infectious (bacterial or viral)

18
Q

what is hepatic encephalopathy

A
  • Caused by elevated ammonia levels related to the inability of the liver to detoxify toxic agents from the GI tract, esp urea.
  • Without the excretion of urea, ammonia levels rise
19
Q

grades of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Grade 1- mild confusion,
Grade 2-lethargy and moderate confusion,
Grade 3-stuporous, but arousable,
Grade 4- coma and unresponsive

20
Q

describe asterixis

A
  • tremor of hand when wrist extended

- if Asterxis is present, ammonia level is elevated

21
Q

hepatic means what

22
Q

chole means what

A

gallbladder

23
Q

treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

1) Decrease ammonia level
2) Lactulose- clears nitrogen products and decreases colonic pH to prevent absorption of ammonia
3) Decrease proteins
4) Antibiotics: Neomycin or metronidazole to clear to gut of bacteria

24
Q

renal means what

25
what to monitor if hepatic encephalopathy
Monitor neuro status Extraventricular drain if ICP level increases Assess for brain activity with EEG and ICP levels
26
what is Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Ascitic fluid infection without an identifiable source.
27
describe normal ascitic fluid
Ascites fluid has low levels of albumin, which protects against leakage of bacteria through the abdominal wall.
28
s/s of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
- fever, chills, abdominal pain | - renal impairment in 40% of the cases
29
common causes of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
E coli, Klebsiella, enterobacter and staphy aureus are most common
30
if temp of 37.8 or 100 with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis need to do what
may need to do blood cultures
31
treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Treatment with intestinal antibiotics