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MCAT Biology > Genes > Flashcards

Genes Flashcards

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1
Q

eukaryotes have ___ of some genes, while prokaryotes have ____ of each gene

A

eukaryotes have more than one copy of some genes, prokaryotes have only one copy of each gene

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2
Q

The Central Dogma

A

DNA –> RNA –> protein

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3
Q

DNA nucleotides differ from each other only in their…

A

nitrogenous base

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

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4
Q

purines

A

2 ring structures, adenine and guanine

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5
Q

pyrimidines

A

1 ring structures, cytosine and thymine

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6
Q

DNA directionality

A

5’ –> 3’

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7
Q

DNA replication is ____

A

semiconservative: when a new double strand is created, it contains one strand from the original DNA, and one newly synthesized strand
semidiscontinuous: one strand is continuous, one fragmented

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8
Q

bidirectional replication process

A

from the origin, two replisomes proceed in opposite directions along the chromosome

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9
Q

DNA polymerase

A

builds new DNA strand, can only add nucleotides to an existing strand

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10
Q

primer

A

RNA primer approx. 10 ribonucleotides long to initiate the strand

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11
Q

DNA ligase

A

connects Okazaki fragments on lagging strand

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12
Q

telomeres

A

end of eukaryotic chromosomal DNA, protect chromosomes from being eroded through repeated rounds of replication

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13
Q

differences of RNA

A

carbon 2 on the pentose is not deoxygenated
RNA is single stranded
RNA contains the pyrimidine uracil instead of thymine

can move through the nuclear pores

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14
Q

mRNA

A

delivers the DNA code for amino acids to the cytosol where the proteins are manufactured

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15
Q

rRNA

A

combines with proteins to form ribosomes, direct synthesis of proteins
synthesized in the nucleolus

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16
Q

tRNA

A

collects amino acids in the cytosol, transfers them to the ribosome for incorporation into the protein

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17
Q

2 places where eukaryotic transcription can take place

A

nucleus and mitochondrial matrix

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18
Q

promoter

A

sequence of DNA that designates a beginning point for transcription

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19
Q

activators and repressors

A

bind to DNA close to the promoter, activate or repress the activity of RNA polymerase
allosterically regulated by small molecules (cAMP)

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20
Q

operon

A

prokaryotic, genetic units that consists of the operator, promoter, and genes that contribute to a single prokaryotic mRNA

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21
Q

post transcriptional modification occurs _____ for eukaryotes

A

in the nucleus

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22
Q

primary transcript

A

initial mRNA nucleotide sequence from transcription

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23
Q

post transcriptional processing at ends

A

5’ cap: attachment site for protein synthesis, protects against exonucleases
Poly A tail: protects against exonucleases

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24
Q

introns remain in the ____

A

nucleus

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25
Q

snRNPs

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins

recognize sequences at end of introns

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26
Q

denatured DNA

A

2 strands of double helix are separated

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27
Q

nucleic acid hybridization

A

separated strands spontaneously associate with their original partner or any other complementary nucleotide sequence
DNA-DNA, DNA-RNA, RNA-RNA

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28
Q

Restriction enzymes

A

digest nucleic acid only at certain nucleotide sequences

bacteria use them to cut viral DNA

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29
Q

palindromic sequence

A

rads the same backwards and forwards

restriction sites are palindromic

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30
Q

recombinant DNA

A

artificially recombined DNA

2 DNA fragments cleaved by the same endonuclease can be joined together regardless of origin of DNA

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31
Q

vector

A

used to insert recombinant DNA into a bacterium

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32
Q

plasmid

A

common vector

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33
Q

probe

A

radioactively labeled complementary sequence of the desired DNA fragment
used to search the clone library for the desired DNA sequence

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34
Q

complementary DNA / cDNA

A

when the mRNA produced by the DNA is reverse transcribed using reverse transcriptase, to clone DNA with no introns

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35
Q

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

fast way to clone/amplify DNA

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36
Q

anneal

A

when PCR cools, primers hybridize to their complementary ends of the DNA strands

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37
Q

Southern blotting

A

to identify target fragments of known DNA sequence in a large population of DNA, uses nucleic acid hybridization

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38
Q

Northern blot

A

identifies RNA fragments, just like southern blot

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39
Q

Western blot

A

detects a protein with antibodies

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40
Q

RFLP

A

identifies individuals as opposed to specific genes

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41
Q

genetic code

A

translates the DNA nucleotide sequence into an amino acid sequence and protein

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42
Q

genetic code is degenerative

A

more than one series of 3 nucleotides may code for any amino acid

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43
Q

genetic code is unambiguous

A

any single series of 3 nucleotides will code for only 1 amino acid

44
Q

the genetic code is almost universal

A

nearly every living organism uses the same code

45
Q

start codon

A

AUG

46
Q

stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

47
Q

probabilities: 4 possible nucleotides placed at 3 possible positions…

A

4^3 = 64

48
Q

translation

A

process of protein synthesis directed by mRNA

49
Q

anticodon

A

set of nucleoitides that is complementary to the codon

from tRNA

50
Q

tRNA

A

contains the anticodon

sequesters the amino acid that corresponds to its anticodon

51
Q

nucleolus

A

special organelle where ribosomes are made, eukaryotic

52
Q

P site

A

peptidyl site, where methionine is put by tRNA

53
Q

initiation complex for translation

A

after methionine at P site, large subunit of the ribosome joins

54
Q

A site

A

aminoacyl site, when elongation beings a tRNA with its amino acid attached to the A site

55
Q

transloction

A

elongation step, ribosome shifts 3 nucleotides along the mRNA toward 3’ end

56
Q

E site

A

tRNA that carried methionie moves here and exits ribosome

57
Q

post-translational modifications

A

sugars, lipids, and phosphate groups can be added to aa’s

58
Q

signal peptide

A

a 20 aa sequence near front of polypeptide, recognized by protein-RNA signal-recognition particle (SRP)

59
Q

signal-recognition particle

A

recognized signal peptide, carries entire ribosome complex to receptor protein on ER

60
Q

mutagens

A

physical or chemical agents that increases the frequency of mutation above the frequency of spontaneous mutation

61
Q

frameshift mutation

A

from insertion or deletion of a base pair occurs in multiple other than 3

62
Q

missense mutation

A

base-pair mutation that occurs in the amino acid coding sequence of a gene

63
Q

nonsense mutation

A

base pair substitution, insertion, or deletion results in a stop codon

64
Q

translocation

A

when a segment of DNA from one chromosome is exchanged for a segment of DNA on another, caused by transposition

65
Q

inversion

A

orientation of a section of DNA is reversed on a chromosome, caused by transposition

66
Q

transposable elements/transposons

A

excise themselves from a chromosome, reinsert at another location

67
Q

forward and backward mutation

A

forward: change the organism even more
backward: revert the organism back to its original state

68
Q

wild type

A

original state or organism before mutation

69
Q

oncogenes

A

genes that cause cancer, converted from proto-oncogenes by carcinogens

70
Q

histones

A

proteins that DNA is wrapped around in nucleus

71
Q

nucleosome

A

8 histones wrapped in DNA

72
Q

chromatin

A

entire DNA/protein complex

73
Q

____ chromosomes in nucleus of human cell

A

46

74
Q

___ homologous pairs of chromosomes

A

23, traits are the same but actual genes may be different

75
Q

diploid

A

any cell that contains homologous pairs

76
Q

haploid

A

any cell that does not contain homologous pairs

77
Q

interphase

A

G1 (first growth phase), S (synthesis), G2 (second growth phase)

78
Q

G0 phase

A

nongrowing state distinct from interphase

allows for differences in length of cell cycle

79
Q

during syntheis phase, each chromosome is made of two identical ___ _____

A

sister chromatids

80
Q

mitosis

A

nuclear division without genetic change, results in genetically identical daughter cells
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

81
Q

prophase

A

condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

82
Q

centrioles in centrioles move…

A

move to opposite ends of cell in prophase

83
Q

____ ____ begins to form during prophase

A

spindle apparatus

84
Q

aster

A

microtubules radiating from the centrioles

85
Q

centromere

A

center of chromosomes

86
Q

___ ___ connect the centrioles during prophase

A

spindle microtubules

87
Q

kinetochore

A

structure of protein and DNA at the centromere of the joined chromatids of each chromosome

88
Q

metaphase

A

chromosomes align along the equator of the cell

89
Q

anaphase

A

sister chromatids split apart at centromeres, move towards opposite ends of cell

90
Q

cytokinesis

A

actual separation of the cellular cytoplams due to constriction of microfilaments about the center of the cell

91
Q

telophase

A

nuclear membrane reform followed by reformation of nucleus, chromosomes decondense, cytokinesis continues

92
Q

Meiosis

A

double nuclear division that produces 4 haploid gametes/germ cells
2 rounds, genetic recombination occurs

93
Q

spermatogonium and oogonium

A

undergo meiosis

94
Q

primary spermatocyte or oocyte

A

after replication occurs in the S phase of interphase

95
Q

meiosis prophase I

A

homologous chromosomes line up, crossing over can occur –> genetic recombination

96
Q

tetrads

A

each duplicated chromosome in prophase I looks like an X, side by side homologues exhibit a total of 4 chromatids

97
Q

chiasma

A

x shape, of 2 attached chromosoes

98
Q

meiosis metaphase I

A

homologues remain attached, move to metaphase plate, tetrads align

99
Q

meiosis anaphase I

A

separate homologues from their partners

100
Q

meiosis telaphase I

A

–> secondary spermatocyes/oocytes

101
Q

polar body

A

in females, one of the oocytes, much smaller, degenerates

after telaphase I

102
Q

reduction division

A

meiosis

103
Q

___ appears much like mitosis

A

meiosis II

104
Q

final products of meiosis II

A

haploid gametes each with 23 chromosomes

4 sperm cell, or single ovum

105
Q

nondisjunction

A

during anaphase I or II the centromere of any chromosome does not split

MCAT Biology (9 decks)

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