Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RT General Review > General PA Review Set 1 > Flashcards

General PA Review Set 1 Flashcards

Semester 1 General

1
Q

In the Primary Assessment: what is the acronym “OPQRST”?

A
  1. Onset
  2. Provoke
  3. Quality
  4. Region/Radiation
  5. Severity
  6. Time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inspection: Elements to look for above the collarbone?

A
  • Cyanosis
  • Trauma
  • Sweating
  • SOB
  • Purse lips
  • ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid)
  • Nasal flaring
  • JVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do we look for JVD?

A

Sign of right sided heart failure

  • > 3-4cm = Normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inspection: What elements are evaluated regarding the thorax

A
  • Accessory muscle use
  • Retractions
  • Barrel chest
  • Scoliosis/kyphosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inspection: What elements are evaluated for regarding the extremities

A
  • Clubbing
  • Pedal edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Where is Stridor Heard?
  2. what does it sound like?
A
  1. Heard over trachea usually during inspiration
  2. Load, high pitched, and continuous.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does stridor indicate?

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Tumor
  • Croup
  • Edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Auscultation: fine crackles vs course crackles?

A
  1. Fine crackles = high pitched, discontinues,
    USUALLY DONT CLEAR WITH COUGH
  2. Course crackles = low pitched, continuous,
    MAY CLEAR WITH COUGH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do fine crackles indicate?

A

Secretions or leaky air, so the following pathologies would be expected:

  • Atelectasis
  • Interstitial fibrosis
  • Pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do course crackles indicate?

A

Fluid/secretions in lungs

  • COPD
  • CF
  • bronchiectasis
  • pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Auscultation: What do wheezes indicate?

A

sign of lower airway obstruction

  • edema
  • obstruction
  • bronchospasm (Asthma or Bronchiolitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Auscultation: what does pleural friction sound like?

A

creaking or grating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Interview questions: aside from the OPQRST. what are the actual questions that are being tested/looked for?

(6 of the testing criteria)

A
  1. Chief complaint (symptoms)
  2. History of present illness
  3. Past med. history
  4. tobacco use
  5. family history
  6. occupational history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

X-ray analysis: What are we looking for in PPP?

A
  1. Person
  2. Place
  3. Position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

x-ray analysis: what does the abbreviation in “ABCDEFGHI” categorize?

A
  • Airway
  • Bones
  • Cardiac shadows/costophrenic angles
  • Diaphragm
  • Edges of heart/effusions
  • Field of lung/fissure
  • Gastric bubble
  • Hila
  • Instruments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Expiratory Accessory muscles (4)

A
  • Rectus abdominis
  • External oblique
  • Internal oblique
  • Transversus abdominis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inspiratory Accessory muscles (4)

A
  • Scalenes
  • sternocleidomastoids
  • Chest muscles
  • Trapezius
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does hyperventilation cause an acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Respiratory alkalosis (over-breathing)

When you breathe faster, reduction in carbon dioxide level in your blood can lead to respiratory alkalosis (hypocapnia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does hypoventilation cause acidosis?

A

Yes, there is more CO2 in the blood as a result of it not being expelled out in breaths (hypercapnia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Auscultation: what do wheezes indicate

A

Indicate obstruction or narrowing of the airways.

  • Usually associated with lower airway pathologies like asthma, bronchitis, and COPD
  • Could indicate (unlikley) movement of excessive secretions or fluid, more often this is with crackles though.
  • Heard during inspiration and expiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a bronchospasm?

A

When the muscles that line your bronchi tighten and cause your airways to narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Auscultation: Diminish breath sounds indicate

A
  • hyper/hypoinflation
  • pleural effusion
  • Flail chest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do retractions indicate?

(substernal, supraclavicular, intercostal etc.)

A

Soft tissue are being pulled in bc of high negative intrapleural pressure during inspiration.

AKA CAUSED BY RESTRICTIVE LUNG DISORDERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Restrictive vs obstructive lung disorders

A

Obstructive = hinder ability to exhale out of lungs

Restrictive = difficulty expanding their lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CXR: what are air bronchograms

A

Air filled bronchi (white blotches)

  • sign of alveolar disease or CONSOLIDATION.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CXR: What are Kerley b lines?

A

Horizontal lines in the lung periphery that extend to the pleural surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CXR: what do Kerley b lines indicate?

A

Pulmonary edema

  • Often with chronic heart failure patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CXR: subcutaneous emphysema

A

When air gets into tissue under the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CXR: Meniscus signs

A

Rounded mass in the lung capped by a crescent shaped collection of air (consolidation)

Indicate either a pleural effusion or pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CXR: Hemidiaphragm tenting

A

found in upper lobe collapse or where there is loss of volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CXR: Hemidiaphragm tenting

A

found in upper lobe collapse or where there is loss of volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CXR: Pulmonary Edema

A

Batwings on cxr and Kerley B lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CXR: Pulmonary Edema

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Transport: When would you transfer to a venturi mask or a NRB mask?

hint what are they on/physician orders.

A

If on HFCN (misty ox) put them on non-breather.
-why?
Because venturi cannot guarantee 60% FiO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

O2 therapy: why would you want to increase flow rather than FiO2 on a optiflow device?

A

If you want to improve the volume of patients breath

OR

Wash out their CO2 more

Remember: you can control 100% of their inspiration as long as they are breathing through the cannula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are blebs?

A

Pulmonary blebs are small subpleural thin walled air containing spaces.

No bigger than 1 or 2 cms in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common identifiers for COPD on a CxR?

A

Elongated heart shadow

“Dark” lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common identifiers for COPD on a CxR?

A

Elongated heart shadow

“Dark” lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Atelectasis is described as a loss of air in a portion of lung tissue.

What are 2 typical factors that cause atelectasis?

A

Obstruction (absorption)

Change in transpulmonary distending pressures (compression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atelectasis: what is absorption atelectasis?

A

O2 is absorbed readily by the body, therefore lung units with high O2 content can have most/all of their O2 absorbed leading to collapse.

  • Blocking of airway by tumor, foreign body, or mucous plugs.
  • Problem w/poorly ventilated alveoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Atelectasis: what is compression atelectasis associated with?

A

Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, hemothorax, or space occupying lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Types of Atrial Fibrillation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ventricular tachycardia vs Fibrillation?

A

V.fib is completely chaotic with no identifiable waves or complexes

V.Tach = usually regular with qrs and fate rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Third degree heart block

A

Reg: reg, but different.

Rate: Ventricular rate is 40-60bpm if paced by junction, 20-40 if by ventricles

P-wave: upright and uniform, more P waves than QRS

PR Interval: P waves are unrelated to QRS; no PRI

QRS: <0.12 if by junction focus, greater = focus is ventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Second degree heart block (TYPE II) (mobitz) Heart block

A

Regularity: Reg R-R interval in conduction is consistent

Rate: Ventricular rate is below normal

P wave: upright and uniform, more p waves than qrs

PR Interval: may be longer than normal, constant.

QRS: <0.12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Second degree TYPE 1 (Wenkebach) Heart block

A

Regularity: regularly irregular

Rate: ventricular rate is lower bc some beats aren’t conducted

P waves: more Ps than QRS

PR interval: gets progressivly longer until it doesn’t follow QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

First degree heart block

A

Delay at AV node
Each impulse is eventually conducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Heart blocks describe 3 degrees (4 tyes) of AV blocks.

Describe each block mech.

A

usually result in delay in impulses before ventricles (extended PRI’s > 0.2 -1st) or none at at all (3rd)

not uncommon to see wide qrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Junctional Tachycardia characteristics

A

Regularity: Regular
Rate: 100 - 180 bpm
P Waves: Will be inverted, can occur before, during or after the QRS
PR Interval: If measurable < 0.12 s
QRS Complex: < 0.12 s

Main point: P waves are inverted or invisible (in qrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

Regularity: R-R are irregular
Rate: immeasurable
P waves: can’t discern because is quivering/fibrillating
PR intervals: not measurable
QRS: < 0.12 (normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Atrial flutter

A

Main point:

P waves = sawtooth pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wandering pacmaker

A

irregular rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Deep ST segment and Inverted T waves indicate what?

A

Ischemia (Reduced/blocked blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the difference between right-sided heart failure and left-sided heart failure?

A

left-sided heart failure: left side of heart is weakened and results in reduced ability for the heart to pump blood into the body.

right-sided heart failure: right side of heart is weakened and results in fluid in your veins, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

General causes of Hemoptysis

(blood with sputum)

A

Broad Causes:
Bronchopulmonary, cardiovascular, hematologic, and other systematic disorders

Specific Causes:
Tobacco use, trauma, foreign body aspiration, anticoagulants, chemotherapy, tuberculosis, pulmonary edema, bronchogenic cancer, pulmonary infection, tumor, granuloma, crack cocaine use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Barking/Harsh/Dry/Stridor coughs indicate what?

A

Laryngeal disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Wheezy cough indicate?

A

Bronchial disorder

Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Acute productive coughs indicate?

A

Bacterial, allergic asthma, viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pleuritic chest pain (pleurisy) characteristics

A

Pain diminishes during splinting
Sudden and sharp
intense during deep inspiration or cough.
position change can relieve pain

Characteristics of:
Pneumonia, Pleural Effusion, Pneumothorax, Pulmonary Infarction, Lung Cancer, Pneumoconiosis, Fungal Disease, Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pleuritic chest pain (pleurisy) characteristics

A

Pain diminishes during splinting
Sudden and sharp
intense during deep inspiration or cough.
position change can relieve pain

Characteristics of:
Pneumonia, Pleural Effusion, Pneumothorax, Pulmonary Infarction, Lung Cancer, Pneumoconiosis, Fungal Disease, Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Central chemoreceptors vs Peripheral chemoreceptors

A

They stimulate ventilation:

Central responses to CO2 and pH via modulation of respiration.

Peripheral response to O2 in arterial/aortic bodies -> increase MV.

60
Q

Neutrophils function (general scope)

A

Infection response (phagocytic chemotaxis)
-destroy foreign material and dead cells
-inflammatory response
-Destroys bacteria

61
Q

Lymphocyte function (general scope)

A

Fight infection, promote immunity.

(t-cell,b-cell, and natural killer cells)

-destroys virally infected cells

62
Q

Eosinophil function (general scope)

A

Immune system response, parasitic infections, allergic reactions (problems = hypersensitive)

Atopic Asthma - allergic

63
Q

Basophil function (general scope)

A

immune system regulation, infections, allergic reactions

Note: allergic reactions with basophils = inflammatory response

64
Q

General definition for Polycythemia

A

Increase in RBC, Hgb, Hct

2 types: primary and secondary.

There is also a “not fully true type” = spurious

65
Q

Why is polycythemia bad?

A

Increase in O2 carrying capacity = thick blood = increase in workload on heart

66
Q

Primary polycythemia?

A

Rare; uncontrolled proliferation of RBC/HgB/Hct

Caused by abnormality of cells in marrow that form RBC

67
Q

Secondary polycythemia?

A

Chronic Hypoxemia-stimulates erythropoietin-increased production of RBC’s

Occurs outside of the bone marrow

COPD

68
Q

Spurious “polycythemia (not really)*

A

relative increase in RBC due to decrease in plasma

dehydration

69
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia and why is a problem?

A
69
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia and why is it a problem?

A

decrease in platelet count = hemorrhaging

70
Q

What is Thrombocytosis and why is it a problem

A

increase in platelet count

Reactive process after hemorrhage (stress, inflammation, or surgery)

Increased risk for thrombosis (clot)

71
Q

Thrombolytic agents?

A

Prevent/bust existing clots

(clot buster)

72
Q

Why are anti-coagulants different from thrombolytic agents?

A

Thrombolytics are to treat already existing clots such as in strokes.

Anti-coagulants prevent the risk of development for clots (i.e warfarin or heparin)

73
Q

What is D-Dimer?

A

measures protein fragment when clot dissolves

regular = 0.5 mg/L

74
Q

Thrombus vs Embolus?

A

Thrombus: blood clot that forms inside a blood vessel

Embolus: a dislodged thrombus that is in circulation.

75
Q

What does it mean when an anion gap is too high or low?

A

High: too acidic

Low: too basic

76
Q

Normal Potassium Value?

Where is it typically located?

A

3.3-5.0 mmol/L

Major cation in ICF

77
Q

Why is potassium important

A

Important in intracellular fluid osmotic pressure

Important in regulation of cardiac muscle function

78
Q

Hyperkaliemia is caused by?

A

-Rhabdomylosis (or any cell rupture/crush injuries)

-Kidney disease (decreased excretion)

-Hypoxia (more K+stays in plasma)

-Metabolic Acidosis (more K+ stays in plasma)

-Poorly controlled diabetic ketoacidosis

-Other: intake/supplements

79
Q

Hypokalemia is caused by

A

Increase loss (caused by):
-Severe vomiting (or nasogastric sxning)
-Diuretics (Lasix***)
-Diarrhea
-chronic renal disease

AND

High dose beta agonist therapy

80
Q

What is high dose beta agonist therapy?

A

Lower K+ via administration of Ventolin

81
Q

Signs of Hyperkalemia

A

Mental confusion
Weakness
Numbness
Respiratory muscle weakness
Bradycardia
Cardiac arrest

82
Q

Signs of Hypokalemia

A

Muscle weakness
Irritability
Tachycardia
Supraventricular Tachyarrhythmias
Torsades de Pointes
Life threatening ventricular arrythmias

83
Q

Normal Chloride levels

and location?

A

98-111 mmol/L

Major anion in ECF

84
Q

Chloride function

A

maintain osmotic pressure and anion-cation balance

Buffers the blood when O2 is released from HgB into tissues

85
Q

What is the fastest buffer system in the body?

A

Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

86
Q

What is the most powerful buffer system in the body?

A

Protein buffers (plasma proteins and intracellular)

87
Q

What is the main buffer system of the human body?

A

Bicarbonate buffer

manages IF surrounding cells and tissue

88
Q

Which systems use the bicarbonate buffer system the most effectively

A

Renal and Respiratory system

89
Q

What is a major end product of the carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Glucose; it requires insulin to be used by cells.

Normal value = 50-120 umol/L

90
Q

What is a non-protein waste product generated during metabolism?

A

Creatinine; levels are constant with normal muscle function but increase with injury and hypoxia

Normal range - 50-120 umol/L

91
Q

What is used as a indicator of kidney function?

A

Creatinine; we compare its filtration via glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

High creatinine indicates renal failure

92
Q

Blood Urea Nitorgen (BUN) has 2 types.

What are they and what is their function?

A

Urea; waste product of the breakdown amino acids.
-Indicative of over all renal function: eg. decreased filtration due to low cardiac output (CO)

Ammonia; Waste product
Liver normally turns urea into ammonia to be excreted in urine
-High ammonia can indicate liver or renal failure

93
Q

Add slide 60 from lab data.

A
94
Q

Lactate (lactic acid) is a by-product of what?

A

anaerobic metabolism

Normal value = less 1.7 - 2.0 mmol/L

95
Q

What does Lactate indicate?

A

Perfusion.

High levels indicate poor perfusion and/or tissue hypoxia

96
Q

Lactate Mortality ranges (past 2 mmol)

A

Mortality of 67% when > 3.8 mmol/L
Mortality of > 90% when > 8 mmol/L

97
Q

What do liver disease and kidney failure have in common?

A

Decrease or loss of proteins.

liver failure = decreased protein manufacturing
Kidney failure = loss of proteins

98
Q

Albumin function

A

Major factor in maintaining blood osmotic (oncotic) pressure

99
Q

C reactive protein (CRP)

A

Produced by liver

levels increase in the presence of inflammation

100
Q

Myoglobin is used as in indicator for what?

A

O2 storage in muscle tissue.

Abnormally high in cardiac cell death, as it gets released.

101
Q

Troponin I is used as in indicator for what?

A

Diagnostic marker for cardiac muscle injury

serum levels rise 4 to 8 hours after MI

102
Q

Creatinine kinase MB (CK-MB)

is used as in indicator for what?

A

Muscle damage

103
Q

Lipids are indicative of cholesterol:

Is LDL better than HDL?

A

Normal value is less than 200 mg/dL

LDL (low density lipoprotein)
The bad kind

HDL (high density lipoprotein)
The good kind

104
Q

what can Urinalysis indicate?

A

the presence of agents, glucose, proteins, blood, bacteria, virii
Cloudy or clear
Specific gravity
RBCs, WBCs
Casts, crystal material etc.

105
Q

Define shunt

A

Perfusion > Vent.

Example:
-Atelectasis (alveoli collapsed)
-Consolidation (alveoli filled with fluid)
-Pulmonary edema

106
Q

What is generally associated with:
Consolidation and Pulmonary edema?

A

Consolidation: pneumonia

Pulmonary edema: CHF

107
Q

Define deadspace

A

Ventilation > Perfusion

Any disruption in blood flow via pulmonary capillaries:
-Pulmonary embolism (clots)
-COPD (air obstructed)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=z42ZGcc0jAw&ab_channel=RespiratoryCoach

108
Q

What factors increase V/Q Ratio?

A

COPD and Pulmonary embolism

109
Q

What factors decrease V/Q ratio?

A

Pulmonary edema

110
Q

Does PPV increase or decrease venous return?

A

Decrease

111
Q

If Venous return decreases, how is cardiac output affected?

A

Decrease

112
Q

What is the main difference between decorticate and decerebrate posturing?

  • which is worse?
A

Decerebrate is more severe

  • Decorticate = elbows bend and fold arms in
  • Decerebrate = all limbs extend away
113
Q

What is the most common abnormal breathing pattern sweet in a pt. with a neurological disorder?

A

Cheyne Stokes

114
Q

What are 3 components of cushing triad?

hint think ICP

A
  1. Increase systolic BP w/widening pulse pressure
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Bradypnea
115
Q

What does the PEERLA acronym mean?

A

“pupils are equal, round and reactive to light and accommodation.”

  • eye test to check for normal function
116
Q

How does the GCS modify its level when a Pt. is intubated?

A

Verbal response will be 1 and score is marked with a “T”

117
Q

How could the respiratory system be affected by a spine fracture @anything between the C3, C4, or C5?

A
  • Could result in Diaphragm paralysis
  • Could cause paradoxical breathing pattern due to loss of lateral and A/P chest expansion
  • Absent cough
  • VC 0-5% of normal
118
Q

What is considered a mid-low spine injury?

A

Anything affecting C3,C4,C5

119
Q

Describe how motor strength can be assessed in a unconscious pt.

A

Apply noxious stimuli and access response

120
Q

Define delirium

A

Acute brain dysfunction with reduced ability to sustain attention

  • usually fluctuates throughout the day
121
Q

What could delirium indicate?

A
  • Infection
  • hypoxemia
  • sepsis
  • non functioning hear aids or glass
  • lab/electrolyte imbalances
122
Q

What are methods to reduce ICP?

A
  • Therapeutic hyperventilation
  • Extra ventricular drain
  • Mannitol (drug therapy)
123
Q

How does therapeutic hyperventilation help decrease ICP?

A

Inducing Hyperventilation lowers PaCO2 causing cerebral vasoconstriction

  • Vasoconsrition decreases blood in the brain
124
Q

How do you keep secretions thin?
- why do you want secretions thin?
- which group would benefit most from this?

A

Use a HME or provide humidification to keep airways moist

  • thing secretions are easy to cough
  • adult tracheostomy pts
125
Q

Does intrathoracic pressure increase during inspiration or expiration?

A
  • During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure decreases (becomes more negative)
  • During expiration, intrathoracic pressure increases (becomes more positive).
126
Q

List the elements assessed when evaluating the bronchopulmonary hygiene of a patient.

A

COCA
- Color
- Odor
- Consistency
- Amount

127
Q

What assessment and maintenance is typically required of an ETT during a routine ICU assessment?

A
  • Size/ type
  • Depth, chest x-ray to confirm
  • Position at the teeth
  • Cuff pressure
  • Inspection of tube and site or sign of skin necrosis or irritation/ oral care
    and repositioning of the tube/ suction
128
Q

What assessment and maintenance is typically required of an trach during a routine ICU assessment?

A
  • size/ type
  • CXR position
  • cuff/ Cuff pressure (is cuff up or down?)
  • stoma site inspection for discharge, dryness, bleeding, signs of infection
  • Tracheostomy care with suction if indicated
  • weaning considerations
129
Q

How does PPV impact V/Q mismatching?

A

Can increase V/Q mismatch.

  • can lower perfusion to the lungs
  • v/q have a inverse relationship.
130
Q

How does PPV impact venous return and CO?

A

PPV decreases venous return which causes decreased CO

  • venous return decreases because a increase in intrathoracic PPV
131
Q

In PC-adapative, what is the control variable and what is the delta variable?

A
  • Volume in the control variable
  • Pressure is the delta
132
Q

Which arrhythmias would you use defibrillation for?

A
  • Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
  • Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
  • Asystole
133
Q

Which arrhythmias would you use Cardioversion for?

A
  • Atrial Fibrillation
  • Atrial Flutter
  • Ventricular Tachycardia
134
Q

Which arrhythmias would you use Pacemakers for?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Heart Blocks
135
Q

Epinephrine stimulates which receptors?

A

A1, B1, and B2

136
Q

Norepinephrine stimulates which receptors?

A

Just B1

137
Q

Dopamine stimulates which receptors?

A

A1 and B1

138
Q

Phenylephrine stimulates which receptors

A

A1, and minimally stimulates B1 and B2 receptors

139
Q

Which 3 drugs are used to treat hypotension due to a distributive shock?

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, and Dopamine.

140
Q

list non-adrenergic drugs that increase SVR

A

Vasopressin

141
Q

What’s the difference between anti-coagulants and thrombolytics?

A

Anti-coagulants prevent clots from forming. Thrombolytics destroy clots that have already formed.

142
Q
A
143
Q

Normal respiratory rate is checked by counting breaths in 1 min. How do you check RR in 15 seconds?

A

Count the number of breaths in 15 seconds (RR as one inhalation and exhalation) multiplied by 4.

  • how about 10 seconds? 30 seconds?
144
Q

what is Eclampsia and preeclampsia?

A
  • Onset of seizures (convulsions) in a pregnant women.
  • Preeclampsia is developed during the 20th week of pregnancy and is characterized by (high BP hypertension ) and damage to the liver and kidneys
145
Q

why is preeclampsia a fetal risk or problem?

A

Maternal hypertension as a result of eclampsia causes insufficient blood flow to the placenta. (also causes damage to the mothers liver and other organs)

146
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

A disorder in which red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be made.

  • The destruction of red blood cells is called hemolysis.
147
Q

What is Hemolysis?

A

The destruction of red blood cells

148
Q

How do reversal agents work?

A

They block anticholinesterase so that the muscle receptor remains full/blocked and unable to twitch

149
Q

What enzyme breaks down acetylcholine?

A

Anticholinesterase

RT General Review (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions