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General (Gen) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vertical split in Shanwick and what classes of airspace are they?

A

At and above FL055 – Class A

Below FL055 – Class G

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2
Q

What services do we provide within Shanwick?

A

At FL55 and above - Air traffic Control Service, FIS and Alerting Service.

Below FL55 - FIS and Alerting Service.

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3
Q

What flight rules must aircraft be operating under within Shanwick?

A

Flights shall be IFR when operating at or above FL55. VMC climbs and descents are not permitted.

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4
Q

What are the boundaries of Shanwick OCA?

A

61N030W – RATSU – 5434N010W – DOGAL – DINIM – 51N008W – 45N008W – 45N030W – 61N030W

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5
Q

Which parts of Shanwick are delegated, to whom and who provides services within them?

A

The Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA), the Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA) and the Brest Oceanic Transition Area (BOTA).

Services within the NOTA and SOTA are provided by Shannon ACC. Services within the BOTA are provided by Brest ACC.

Control of General Air Traffic at RATSU is delegated to Reykjavik.

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6
Q

What are the boundaries of the SOTA, NOTA and BOTA?

A

SOTA = DINIM – 51N008W – 4830N008W – BEDRA – DINIM

NOTA = GOMUP – 5434N010W – DOGAL – SUNOT – GOMUP

BOTA = 45N008W – 45N00845W – 4834N00845W – 4830N008W – 45N008W

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7
Q

What are MNPS, NAT HLA Airspace and RVSM Airspace?

A

NAT HLA - North Atlantic High Level Airspace (FL285 - FL420 inclusive).

RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (FL290 – FL410 inclusive).

MNPS - Minimum Navigation Performance Specification and shall be applicable within NAT HLA.

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8
Q

What is the CPRA and what is is defined as?

A

Conflict Prediction Resolution Area

It is defined as 90N to 18N between 20E and 130W.

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9
Q

What is the NCSA and its Southerly points?

A

Northern Conflict Suppression Area

GUNPA – RATSU – 62N15W – 62N20W – 62N23W – 6205N24W – 6220N25W – 6240N26W – 63N2630W – 6330N30W – 6530N40W – 6530N50W

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10
Q

What is the SCSA and its coordinates?

A

Southern Conflict Suppression Area
40N15W – 40N40W – 43N40W – 43N90W – 18N90W – 18N15W – 40N15W

Santa Maria are responsible for solving conflicts that occur wholly South of 40N.

New York accept responsibility for conflicts occurring wholly West of 40W and South of 43N.

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11
Q

Geographically, where can PBCS separations be applied?

A

Between PBCS eligible flights within Shanwick, Gander, Reykjavik and Santa Maria airspace. Flights entering New York airspace are required to have non-PBCS separation established prior to crossing the New York boundary.

GAATS+ only allows PBCS separations to be applied in the applicable areas.

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12
Q

What does GAATS+ stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Gander Automated Air Traffic System +.

It is used to assist OACC staff in providing ATC services for the Shanwick OCA.

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13
Q

When a GAATS+ SWS is not in use, what shall controllers do?

A

Remove any extraneous data from the GDD, ensure that the message queue is empty, ensure any blocking strips are displayed on the SWS taking over and that the GS re-allocates the fallback function.

Log off.

Re-log on to the SWS as ‘NIL’.

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14
Q

If you receive the message ‘Transfer Rejected - Flight Modified by Another User’, what are your actions?

A

The transferring controller shall:

Re-probe the flight to PC it, checking separations and intervals.

Re-send transfer ensuring any restrictions are annotated on the ATC/ line.

If the transfer continues to be rejected, delete the copy and try again.

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15
Q

What are the dangers of re-sectorising whilst there are transfers out?

A

Controllers may need to re-transfer a profile or ‘Transfer Accepted’ messages may display in the queue erroneously and actually be under the jurisdiction of another controller.

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16
Q

How many families of HF R/T frequencies are there?

A

5 families, A - F (excluding E).

NAT B is for use by aircraft registered W of 30W.

NAT C is for use by aircraft registered E of 30W.

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17
Q

If a flight states on CPDLC that their HF radio is inoperative or the flight is unable to contact Shanwick Aeradio, what are the controller actions?

A

Shanwick OAC shall notify Shanwick Aeradio who will pass appropriate frequencies to us for relay to the flight.

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18
Q

What are the Shanwick Radio frequencies, what is their purpose and their approximate range?

A

124.175 and 127.9.

They can be used to reduce RT loading on the HF frequencies and the range is to approximately 17W.

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19
Q

What are the CDO frequencies, where are the Tx/Rx located and for what aircraft are they used?

A

For Westbound flights approaching the Shanwick boundary, flights can use 123.95 (aircraft registered W of 30W) or 127.65 (aircraft registered E of 30W).

The Tx/Rx are located at Mangersta, Dundonald Hill, Grantham and Davidstowe Moor.

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20
Q

If communication difficulties are present with US military aircraft, who can we contact as an alternative and what prefixes are to be used?

A

Croughton Airways.

The prefixes to be used are:

Routine Official Call
Priority Call
Immediate Call
Flash Call

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21
Q

After what elapsed time will Shanwick Aeradio advise Shanwick if they are unable to deliver a message to an aircraft?

A

Standard message - Not more than 10 mins.

PRIORITY message - Not more than 8 mins.

IMMEDIATE DELIVERY - Call them and stay on the line for acknowledgement.

If Shanwick pass a message via telephone to Ballygirreen in the interest of expediency, they shall always follow it up with a hard copy.

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22
Q

Does an EMG message constitute an emergency?

A

No. Shanwick Radio may use the EMG prefix to draw a controllers attention to an urgent situation. The flight may not have declared an emergency.

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23
Q

For flights operating in an East - West direction, how should the significant points in the flight plan be spaced?

A

They are normally defined by whole degrees of latitude with intervals of 10 degrees of longitude. Flights may use half degrees of latitude and the same rules apply.

The distance between significant points shall not, as far as possible, exceed 1 hours flying time.

Flights operating North of 70 North can use intervals of 20 degrees.

When the flight time between points is less than 30 minutes, one of these points may be omitted.

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24
Q

For flights operating in an North - South direction, how should the significant points in the flight plan be spaced?

A

They are normally defined by whole degrees of longitude with specified points of latitude every 5 degrees.

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25
Q

What is ARINC 623 and what does it allow?

A

ARINC 623 is an equipage which allows aircraft not only to request and receive clearances via data link, but also to acknowledge them. Aircraft without ARINC623 will have to confirm their clearance by voice.

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26
Q

What is CPDLC and what does it allow?

A

Controller Pilot Datalink Communication – Allows a direct exchange of text based messages between controller and pilot.

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27
Q

What is ADS and what does it allow?

A

Automatic Dependant Surveillance – Allows the FMC to make position reports without input from the pilot. It is more accurate than HF and allows the controller to demand a contract.

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28
Q

What is the NCGW and what does it do?

A

NAV Canada Gateway – manages messages between GAATS+ and Aeronautical Networks carrying datalink messages.

Contracts for CADS (Centralised ADS System), CPDLC and OCL are managed via the NCGW.

The NCGW provides a connection to FANS aircraft via the ARINC/SITA network.

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29
Q

What is AFN and what does it allow?

A

ATS Facilities Notifcation - FANS 1/A equipped aircraft establish a direct connection to GAATS+ through use of the AFN.

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30
Q

When carrying out coordination, when must you wear a headset?

A

At all times other than between immediately adjacent sectors.

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31
Q

What are the components of the FANS network?

A

The aircraft FMC.
ARINC / SITA networks.
NavCanada Gateway.
GAATS+.

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32
Q

What does Fusion do?

A

Acts as an interface between the AIREON network and GAATS+. It receives ADS-B data from AIREON (around once every 0.5 seconds) and also holds a copy of all flight plans within GAATS+. It then correctly assigns the ADS-B reports to the corresponding flight plan. This process is called Correlation.

Fusion outputs a position report around every 8 seconds.

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33
Q

What symbol is displayed if Fusion is unable to correlate ADS-B data with a flight plan?

A

An uncorrelated position symbol is displayed.

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34
Q

What symbol is displayed if GAATS+ stops receiving ADS-B data from a flight?

A

A blue coasting symbol is displayed.

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35
Q

What are FEPs and what do they do?

A

Front End Processors provide a communications interface between GAATS+ and
OLDI (On Line Data Interchange) links with NAS, Brest, Madrid and Shannon. They also handle message reformatting and error correction.

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36
Q

What is the AFTN and what is its purpose?

A

AFTN stands for Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network. It is through this
network that we are able to receive flight plan related data, exchange messages,
provide traffic prediction information and receive FPL, CNL, DEP or CHG messages.

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37
Q

What does MECS stand for and how does it work?

A

MECS stands for Message Entry & Correction System. It creates flight records in the
FDP based upon the information in the FPL (Flight Plan) messages received from
the AFTN.

MECS will try to validate and correct each field of the FPL message before it goes to
the FDP. If MECS cannot correct errors in the FPL messages, it refers them to the support operator for manual correction.

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38
Q

What are the periods of validity for the OTS and associated FLs?

A

Night Tracks = 01:00UTC – 08:00UTC. FL320 – FL400 inclusive. (N – Z, not O).

Day Tracks = 11:30UTC – 19:00UTC (20:00UTC when including FL350). FL310 – FL390 inclusive. (A – M, not I).

These times are applicable at 30W.

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39
Q

What is a TMI and when is it to be amended?

A

The TMI (Track Message Indicator) is a 3 digit number based on the Julian calendar.

The TMI is to be amended when the change involves:

Any NAT Track co-ordinate or named position,

NAT Track published levels,

Named points within European Routes West,

Any combination of the above.

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40
Q

What is the rule surrounding FL340, BOKTO - AVPUT inclusive.

A

For any Westbound organised track which landfalls BOKTO - AVPUT inclusive, FL340 shall not be published to allow for profiles for aircraft originating in Reykjavik.

During Westbound OTS times, Shanwick shall not clear aircraft at FL340 which landfall BOKTO - AVPUT inclusive, except flights that remain clear of the OTS and Gander OCA. Such flights can be cleared at FL340 without coordination with Reykjavik.

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41
Q

What is the rule surrounding tracks routing via GOMUP?

A

They are to cross 20W at or North of 58N.

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42
Q

When D701A/B are active, how will it effect the track structure?

A

There will be no available route from ETILO at any level within the danger area.

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43
Q

When D701S is active, how will it effect the track structure?

A

The route BALIX - 60N020W will show a conflict. Organised tracks will be drawn with a suitable 15W coordinate to provide lateral separation against D701S.

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44
Q

Regarding military activity, what are the purpose of time banded tracks?

A

To allow traffic through the military area prior to or after activation.

The tracks can be utilised if the military activity is cancelled at short notice.

Time banded tracks would be notified within OTS signal notes.

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45
Q

When would a track commence at 40W?

A

In the case of a track requirement being identified by New York alone.

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46
Q

What is DLM Airspace and what equipage must flights have to flight plan through DLM Airspace?

A

Data Link Mandate.

FL350 – FL390 inclusive is DLM Airspace.

Flights must be equipped with CPDLC and ADS-C.

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47
Q

What airspace is not included in NAT Region DLM Airspace?

A

Airspace North of 80N (Lies outside of reliable service area of satellites).

New York Oceanic FIR.

Airspace considered ATS surveillance airspace and considered exempt from DLM:

Northern Boundary – 65N000W, 67N010W, 69N020W, 68N030W, 67N040W, 69N050W, 69N060W, BOPUT.

Southern Boundary – RATSU, 61N020W, 63N030W, 62N040W, 61N050W, SAVRY.

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48
Q

What flights are allowed to flight plan into DLM airspace?

A

CPDLC and ADS-C equipped flights.

Non Equipped flights which are operating on published Tango routes, provided that those routes do not infringe an active NAT track.

Non equipped flights that have filed FFR, HOSP, HUM, MEDEVAC, SAR or STATE in item 18 of the Flight Plan.

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49
Q

In order to comply with the requirements for NAT HLA, how many LRNSs should an aircraft carry?

A

They should be equipped with two LRNSs.

Some carry triplex equipment so that if one fails even before take off, the flight can proceed normally.

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50
Q

For aircraft with only one LRNS and normal short range navigation equipment (VOR, DME, ADF), what routes can they fly?

A

They can fly on Blue Spruce routes but State approval must be obtained before flying on them as they are within NAT HLA.

If flights have State approval they should flight plan on one of these routes and include an ‘X’ in item 10.

These routes are also available for aircraft who have suffered a partial loss and only have 1 LRNS remaining.

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51
Q

Where in the MATS Part 2 would you find a table of the Blue Spruce Routes?

A

General Chapter 4, 4.2.

52
Q

Other than the Blue Spruce Routes, what other routes can aircraft with only 1 LRNS and short range navigational equipment use?

A

T9.

53
Q

What are MNPS, NAT HLA and RVSM Airspace?

A

NAT HLA - North Atlantic High Level Airspace (FL285 - FL420 inclusive).

RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (FL290 – FL410 inclusive).

MNPS - Minimum Navigation Performance Specification and shall be applicable within NAT HLA.

54
Q

To fly in RVSM airspace, what equipment must aircraft have?

A

HF Radio, NAT HLA certified and MASPS (Minimum Aircraft System Performance Specification) certified.

55
Q

To operate within NAT HLA, what equipment are aircraft required to have?

A

They are required to meet MNPS in the horizontal plane through carriage and proper use of specific navigation equipment approved by state of registry.

There are 2 navigational equipment requirements for operating in NAT HLA. One refers to accuracy and the other refers to the need to carry comparable standby equipment.

56
Q

What is the name of the area within which Shanwick receives ADS-B data?

A

Service Volume Area.

It is equal to the Shanwick OCA + 200nm.

57
Q

What is the usual clearance limit given to aircraft by Shanwick?

A

The destination airfield. Except on flights that route further South than 18N where the route will be defined by the last significant point.

58
Q

How could an aircraft request an Oceanic clearance from Shanwick?

A 
CDO (On VHF), 
OCL (Datalink), 
Shanwick Radio (EIAA), 
Prox Deps Airfields, 
Domestic Centres, 
Military.
59
Q

How long does it take for a message to fall in to the fallback queue?

A

When it is sat in the message queue for longer than the adaptable parameter (currently set at 30 mins).

60
Q

Within Shannon’s airspace, what is the vertical split?

A

FL245+ is High Level

FL245- is Low Level

61
Q

Describe the split within Scottish airspace and the domestic sectors within it.

A

Scottish HL is above FL255.
Domestic centres that boarder HL airspace are:

Hebrides, Central, Rathlin.

Scottish LL is below FL255.
Domestic centres that boarder LL airspace are:

Hebrides and West Coast.

62
Q

Where is the system MET received from and how often is it received?

A

Canadian Met Centre, Dorval, Quebec.

Supplied twice daily at 08:30 and 20:30.

63
Q

Aside from the CMC, what other sources of MET information are available to Shanwick and who provides them?

A

The MET office in Exeter is responsible for all other MET information, including charts:

Upper Winds and Temperatures FL340

Significant Weather FL250 – FL630

64
Q

What area does GAATS+ MET cover?

A

70N – 40N and 00W – 80W.

65
Q

As a controller, how would you obtain the forecast minimum QNH?

A

This information is obtained from the MET office.

66
Q

What does a SIGMET contain and how long ahead of the flight should the crew be informed of these details?

A 
Severe Turbulence, Icing, Mountain Wave
Heavy Hail, Dust / Sandstorms
Freezing Rain
Volcanic Ash
Tropical Cyclones
Thunderstorms

Crew informed up to 2 hours flying time or 500nm, whichever is greater.

Shannon HF VOLMET will transmit every 10mins during each hour that the SIGMET is valid.

67
Q

If a controller receives a report of severe turbulence, what are their actions?

A

Inform the GS who will pass details of the report to the MET Office.

68
Q

When would you see a VOLMET and a SELECTED. What’s the difference?

A

VOLMET – SIGMETS affecting FL280 and above should be broadcast on the VOLMET when appropriate to the main flow of traffic.

SELECTED – SIGMETS affecting airspace below FL280 and not pertinent to the main flow of traffic. Given to individual aircraft as appropriate.

69
Q

What must all aircraft operating in Oceanic airspace be equipped with?

A

HF Radio.

70
Q

Under what conditions may ATC provide an altitude reservation for NAT HLA equipped but non-RVSM approved aircraft?

A

Aircraft being delivered from manufacturer to state or registry.

Aircraft on mercy or humanitarian flights.

Aircraft which were RVSM approved but which have experienced equipment failure and are being ferried to make necessary repairs.

71
Q

When can a formation flight be considered RVSM approved?

A

With prior approval, flights of 2 C17’s, both RVSM certified, operating at the same level, on the same route and no more than 4,000ft apart longitudinally will be allowed.

72
Q

State the code that you would find on a flight plan for the following:

MNPS 
RVSM 
CPDLC 
ADS-C 
RCP240 
RSP180 
RNP4
A 
MNPS – X
RVSM – W
CPDLC – J5/J7
ADS-C – D1
RCP240 – P2
RSP180 – SUR/180
RNP4 - L1
73
Q

Within what time frame should an MOR be submitted after an occurrence?

A

Within 72 hours.

Submission is only complete on distribution of the report by the watch.

74
Q

Explain a GNE, Lateral Deviation, Intervention and Prevention.

A

A Gross Navigation Error is a lateral change from a cleared track by 10nm or more.

A Lateral Deviation is any actual deviation from the cleared track other than those covered by SLOP.

An intervention is an event where an ATCO caught and corrected a lateral deviation before it developed into a GNE.

A Prevention is an event where an ATCO action prevented a Lateral Deviation.

75
Q

What are the contents of a position report?

A

Aircraft position.
Reported time at that position.
Current flight level.
Next position on the aircraft;s intended route.
Estimate for next position.
Subsequent position on the aircraft’s route.

76
Q

What would render a position report non-conformance?

A

Incorrect position is reported.
Incorrect FL is reported.
Incorrect next or subsequent.
Reported time differs by more than 2 minutes.
Estimate for next position differs by more than 5 minutes.

In this circumstance a controller shall ask aircraft to confirm the position report or specific item of data that was not as expected.

77
Q

Who is responsible for determining the Westbound track structure?

A

The planner is responsible in consultation with the GS.

78
Q

What are the contents of a clearance and what items may be added as necessary?

A 
Clearance Limit
Levels of flight and changes of level
Aircraft ID
Route
Airspeed, True/Mach

Communication instructions
Any special instructions
Time restrictions

79
Q

What factors are taken into account when formulating an Oceanic Clearance?

A 
Met
Military Activity
FLAS
Agreed Levels / Daily Plan
Separations
Traffic Patterns
Specific Coordination Requirements
80
Q

What is the difference between a USIN, USD and a SN?

A

USIN – Unit Safety Information Notice. Issued by safety info team to highlight safety issues.

USD – Unit Safety Directive. Issued by safety info team.

SN – Safety Notice. Used to pass info on safety related incidents before it’s gone to the safety coordination team.

81
Q

What are the coordinates of the TANGO routes?

A

T9 Northbound – BEGAS, LASNO, EMPER

T9 Southbound – LASNO, BEGAS, Free Route

T213 Northbound – BERUX, TAMEL, EVBAK

T213 Southbound – TAMEL, BERUX, Free Route

T13 – MANOX, LUPOV, NILAV, OMOKO, GUNSO

T16 – OMOKO, GONAN, EKROL, NAVIX

82
Q

Explain the different Flight States.

A

UF – Uncleared Filed. GAATS+ holds copy of flight plan.

UD – Uncleared Departed. As above plus departure message received.

US – Uncleared Suspended. Not used. Enter estimate to achieve UA.

UA – Uncleared Active. Estimate / Request received or flight plan updated.

PC – Provisionally Cleared. Protected in system.

IS – Issued. Clearance issued to aircraft but yet to be read back.

‘Blank’ – Fully Cleared. Clearance read back.

83
Q

Describe BET PC.

A

Boundary Error Trapping. It is a system that alerts the Planner to a specific non-conformance.

The system receives the time, position and level data and checks this for non-conformance. Any non-conformance detected will be sent as a warning to the Planner from the BET PC as either a MIS or an EMG message.

84
Q

What is the ATT?

A

The Automatic Track Tool assists the OTS Planner to develop the OTS for the
Westbound flow. It uses PRM data received over AFTN to display individual airlines
preferred routings on a daily basis.

85
Q

What does CNS stand for and what does the CNS window display?

A

Communication, Navigation, Surveillance. This window displays the equipage of the
flight in detail.

86
Q

What does BORG stand for?

A

Bilateral Options Resolution Grid. The colours displayed in BORG have been probed
by the system at the relevant levels to landfall.

87
Q

Which three types of message can we send within the system to pass estimates and with which sectors do we use each?

A

ACT – between Shanwick and Domestic centres.

CPL – between Shanwick and OACC’s.

ABI – between Shanwick and Brest.

88
Q

What is a MIS message and how do they differ from other messages?

A

A MIS message is a miscellaneous Message. They are used to transmit plain
language statements between ATSU’s.

MIS messages do NOT update the flight
record in GAATS+. Changes have to be manually updated.

89
Q

What does GAATS+ do on receipt of an EMG message?

A

It will carry out syntax and validation checks. There is no automatic update of
information.

It will change the flight state to EMG and an audible alarm will sound on sector when the flight state changes.

Any copy versions created will also sound this sector alarm.

Receiving an EMG message does no necessarily constitute the declaration of an emergency. EIAA sometimes use it to draw your attention to a message of high importance.

90
Q

There are 3 GAATS+ message categories. Explain them.

A

Internal System Enquiries – Messages which extract information from the
system. E.g.

LCC – Link Control Command
LFA – Link Filed Aircraft
LRZ – List Reservations
OTM – Organised Track Message
RMG – Recall Messages
Internal Operational Messages – Messages which have a direct effect on the operation of the system but no external bearing. E.g
.
EFP – Enter Flight Plan Message
SEC – Enter Sectorisation
TRK – Track Activation
XFP – Delete Flight Plan
MFP – Modify Flight Plan

Full Operational Messages – Messages to or from external sources. E.g.

ACT – Activation Message (Shanwick and Domestic)
CPL – Clearance Message (Shanwick and OACC's)
ABI – Advance Boundary information
RCL – Clearance Request
DEP – Departure Message
EMG – Emergency Message
EST – Estimate Message
MIS – Miscellaneous Message
OCM – Oceanic Clearance Message
POS – Position Report
RBK – Readback
RPE – Revised Estimate
CDN – Coordination Message
ACP – Accept
REJ – Reject
CLX – Clearance Issued
CLA – Clearance Acknowledgement
91
Q

Who can re-sectorise a sector and from where?

A

The supervisor can do this remotely from the SWS positions. (Giving out airspace)

This can also be done from any SWS position by taking airspace from another SWS
position.

92
Q

What different methods of airspace sectorisation are there?

A

Airspace can be sectorised by Level, Georgraphically in relation to the tracks or a
combination of both of these methods.

93
Q

If SEC LI if input into the VT window, what will it display?

A

It will list sectorisation on 5 pages. Planning, En-route, High Domestic, Low
Domestic and IFSS.

94
Q

Can a SWS be configured to run as both a planner and an en route position
simultaneously?

A

Yes, all SWS sectors can be configured as Planner, Enroute or Combined which
provides capacity and flexibility benefits.

95
Q

Describe Message Fallback, Fuction Fallback and their differences.

A

The Message Fallback is the position responsible for messages which have
remained un-accessed in a message queue longer than the adaptable parameter
set. (Currently 30mins)

The Function Fallback position acts as the default address for messages unable to locate their intended address.

96
Q

In the ops room, what numbers are given to the planning and the en-route SWS?

A

The Planners are set up as the 20’s.

The Enroutes are set up as the 30’s.

97
Q

How would you go about taking an entire position from one controller and moving
all of their airspace to a different position?

A

In one command, you would enter the letter P and then the number of the position
you wish to take.

98
Q

When sectorising geographically, what would you type into the VT window to take the HL airspace North of track D?

A

When taking geographically you have to specify the area from the Northern boundary to the Southern boundary of a track, so in answer to the above question:

SECO/P depending on whether you’re Enroute or planner, then,

NTH-SOFC HL.

99
Q

What warnings will you receive if you accidentally try to combine your sector by
typing SECO/P rather than the desired position?

A

The SWS number and functionality on the GDD will change.

The message queue will be divided between Enroute and Planner messages.

Planner strips may appear with boxes around the callsign.

100
Q

Give an example of a clearance as you would deliver it to an aircraft.

A

“Shanwick clears BAW123 to KBOS via ETIKI, 47N15W 47N20W 48N30W 47N40W
47N50W PORTI. From ETIKI, maintain FL340, M0.82.”

101
Q

For what information does a controller need to ensure that they receive a verbatim read back on?

A

Controllers shall ensure that they provide / receive a verbatim readback of all
clearances or amendments.

102
Q

What is an OCM and when are they used.

A

An OCM is an Oceanic Clearance Message. They are sent to Domestic centres once a clearance has been formulated and issued.

103
Q

Decode this OCM. OCMOS133-MPH610-B763-EHAM-M081F350 PIKIL/1300
NATD-KEWR-ATC/LCHG.

A

OCM 133. Martinair 610, Boeing 767 from Amsterdam. M0.81, FL350. PIKIL at time
13:00. North Atlantic Track D. To Newark. With a level change.

104
Q

Does a new clearance cancel any previous clearances?

A

Yes. New clearances shall be read in full to the pilot. This automatically cancels any
previous clearance. If the original clearance included a restriction, the revised
clearance cancels this restriction unless it is again reiterated within the revised
clearance.

105
Q

Over the North Atlantic Ocean, what direction is the prevailing wind?

A

It’s a westerly wind, which means that the wind flows FROM the West to the East.

106
Q

What are the three cells that relate to our airspace and where are they positioned?

A

At the equator – Hadley Cell

Between 30 and 60 degrees of latitude – Ferrel Cell

From 60 degrees to the North Pole – Polar Cell

107
Q

What is a jetstream and where is ‘ours’ positioned?

A

A jetstream is a fast flowing narrow current of air moving West to East. Ours is positioned between the Ferrel Cell and the Polar Cell.

108
Q

What hazard to aircraft is usually found within or near a jetstream?

A

Clear air turbulence is often found within the vicinity of a jetstream.

109
Q

On a significant weather chart, what do triangles, lines and double lines indicate?

A

Triangles – Wind speed, 50kts.

Lines – Wind Speed, 10kts.

Double Lines – Change of 20kts and or height change of 3000ft.

110
Q

Where a flight routes north of 61N where will the flight be cleared to if going in to Edmonton airspace?

A

Route should be terminated at a named point along the Edmonton/Reykjavic boundary.

Flights north of ADSAM will be cleared to a named position on the Reykjavic/Edmonton boundary.

111
Q

Where a flight routes north of 61N where will the flight be cleared to if going in to Bodo airspace?

A

To a NAT/domestic boundary position if one exists, or to the first flight plan waypoint inside domestic airspace, or to the last flight planned position at or west of 20E.

112
Q

Name 3 principles to re-sectorisation?

A

Airspace blocks cannot cross Altitude Regions.

Each altitude region can be subdivided a maximum 4 times.

Airspace blocks taken must be contiguous (If they aren’t they must be taken separately).

113
Q

Through ETIKI and UMLER into Brest, what is the vertical airspace split?

A

FL360 and above is High Level

FL350 and below is Low Level

114
Q

Through SEPAL, BUNAV and SIVIR into Brest, what is the vertical airspace split?

A

FL370 and above is High Level

FL350 – FL360 is Mid Level

FL340 and below is Low Level

115
Q

How is the airspace secotorised within Madrid?

A

FL345 – FL460 is SAU Sector

SFC – FL345 is SAL Sector

FL245+ is Free Route Airspace

(Madrid will only accept flights off published routes with prior coordination)

116
Q

Name all 4 of the adjacent Oceanic centres.

A

Reykjavik
Gander
New York
Santa Maria

117
Q

Give examples of what is contained within Essential Traffic Information.

A

Essential Traffic Information, a B767 in your 12 o’clock is currently 8 minutes ahead of you. Same track, same level, maintaining M.081.

Essential Traffic Information, a B767 in your 2 o’clock. Range of 25 miles. Routing 49N20W, 52N30W. Estimate for 49N20W is 14:46. Same level.

118
Q

What are the MET chart decodes for the following:

CB
ISOL
OCNL
FRQ
EMBD
SKC
SCT
BKN
OVC
A

CB - Cumulonimbus

ISOL - Individual CB’s (Isolated)

OCNL - Well separated CBs (Occasional)

FRQ - CBs with little or no separation (frequent)

EMBD - Thunderstorm clouds contained in layers of other clouds (embedded)

SKC - Clear 0 Oktas
SCT - Scattered 1-4 Oktas
BKN - Broken 5-7 Oktas
OVC - Overcast 8 Oktas

119
Q

What are POS reports within GAATS+ reported as, time wise?

A

They are reported as whole minutes. GAATS+ calculates separations in seconds and microseconds.

Strip times are truncated. Separation Window times are rounded.

120
Q

How should you self brief before a shift?

A

First Brief.

Weather News.

121
Q

Explain SWELTRS.

A

It is a handover checklist and comprises:

Sector
Weather
Equipment
Levels
Traffic
Reservations
Supplementary
122
Q

Regarding BETPC, to reduce unnecessary warnings, what procedures are in place with Scottish, Shannon and Brest?

A

Where possible, they will ensure flights are at their cleared Oceanic level no later than 3 minutes prior to the Oceanic boundary.

123
Q

What flights may slip through the BETPC capture system?

A

Flights that are considered to be off route in domestic airspace may not be captured.

124
Q

On receipt of a MAC message, what are the controller actions?

A

The controller shall phone the offering sector to confirm that the flight is not going to enter Shanwick.

125
Q

If a message is received with the warning text ‘Invalid State Transmission’ what are the controller actions?

A

Contact the transmitting NATCC centre by voice and complete or confirm the coordination.

126
Q

Which GAATS+ features must you NOT use.

A

PIV Tool

SEP Tool
Flight States drop down menu

Highlight Function

Destination Airport on GDD

127
Q

As a controller, if you receive the message ‘Flight Levels Disconnected’, what are the controller actions?

A

Select the flight plan, unclear to UA and delete. If the profile is still required it can be re-created.

Revision (15 decks)

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