Emergencies (Emg) Flashcards

1
Q

List the 3 stages of emergency.

A

Uncertainty, Alert and Distress.

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2
Q

An aircraft travelling Westbound into Gander airspace fails to make a 30W position report, who is responsible for providing an Alerting Service to the flight?

A

The receiving centre (Gander) will assume responsibility for Alerting Service should a flight fail to make the first scheduled position report in its area.

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3
Q

Explain Overdue Warnings.

A

Output by GAATS+ 10 minutes after a POS report was estimated to be due. The en-route controller shall act to obtain a POS report including checking with domestic for Westbound flights that have yet to enter EGGX airspace. EIAA should be advised of the overdue report. EIAA receive an overdue report themselves provided that the flight has made a previous report. EIAA do not attempt to contact the flight on receipt of their overdue warning. EGGX retains overall responsibility for initiating action on overdue reports.

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4
Q

Explain the Uncertainty Phase.

A

Initiated when no contact has been received within a period of 30 minutes from the time it should have been or from the time that an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication was first made, except when no doubt exists as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

A warning is output by GAATS+ 20 minutes after the overdue warning.

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5
Q

When faced with an aircraft in the Uncertainty Phase, what are the controller actions?

A

The En-route controller shall:

Confirm with EIAA that no contact has been made with the flight and that action is required to be taken to track the aircraft.

Confirm that the GS is aware of the uncertainty phase.
Continue in accordance with procedures in PC ATC Incident Reference File.

Controllers should identify flights in close proximity to the uncertainty phase flight and pass details to EIAA so that they can try and relay messages.

On receipt of uncertainty message, EIAA will request all flights in vicinity of RF aircraft to call on 121.5. If no contact is made then EIAA will call on all frequencies.

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6
Q

Explain the Alert Phase.

A

Warning is output by GAATS+ 20 minutes after uncertainty warning (50 minutes after the POS report was expected).

Alert phase declared when:
Not later than 30 minutes after the declaration of the uncertainty phase where subsequent attempts to establish communication have failed.
The operating efficiency of the aircraft is impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely.

If comms with the aircraft is not re-established and the Alert phase is declared, the en-route controller will advise the GS. The GS will instruct the ATSA to complete the RQS, ALR Message and the Coastal Radio Station Message for transmission to EIAA.

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7
Q

Explain the Distress Phase.

A

Distress phase declared when:

Not later than 1 hour after the declaration of the alert phase where subsequent wide spread enquiries and attempts to establish communication point towards the aircraft being in distress.

Fuel on board is considered exhausted or insufficient to reach safety.

A forced landing is likely.

The aircraft is known to have forced landed or crashed, except where there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.

If comms with the aircraft is not re-established and the Distress phase is declared, the en-route controller will advise the GS. The GS will instruct the ATSA to complete the RQS, ALR Message and the Coastal Radio Station Message for transmission to EIAA.

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8
Q

What are Plotting Procedures?

A

For aircraft in the alert or distress phase, the GS shall obtain all available information on the flights and maintain a running plot. The position and estimated forward positions of aircraft in the vicinity shall also be plotted and notified to ARCC (Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre). Such aircraft may be asked to divert to assist the distressed aircraft.

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9
Q

Explain SAR procedures.

A

Shanwick create an airspace reservation for search aircraft as required by the ARCC. Aircraft taking part is SAR operations will comply with normal ATC procedures until they are flying within the airspace reservation. Once inside, the ARCC will maintain control and comms with the search and rescue aircraft. If the search involves a large number of aircraft, the ARCC may appoint a control aircraft to act as communications relay. This aircraft may be required to fly above the reservation and therefore will remain in control of Shanwick in edition to the operational control of the ARCC.

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10
Q

Explain the coordination requirements with adjacent centres during emergency.

A

Full details of the emergency should be passed to the next centre. Where there is a lack of comms with the aircraft or if the aircraft has navigational problems, the flight may well have deviated from its cleared route and therefore more than one centre may have to be advised.

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11
Q

What coordination with ARCC Kinloss is required in emergencies?

A

ARCC at Kinloss shall be notified of a flights emergency phase and given all info to assist with search.

The crew of distressed flight will be informed of any interception aircraft and given frequencies to be used by both aircraft. All messages from distressed aircraft will be passed to ARCC.

The GS may appoint a Rescue Liaison Controller at Shanwick to deal with ARCC. ARCC will only use this controller as the link to other oceanic centres and aircraft.

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12
Q

What coordination with Ballygirreen is required in emergencies?

A

If alert or distress messages are received from adjacent centres, Shanwick re-transmit the message to EIAAYSYX if they are not already on the list of addressees. If message is received by voice, we simply pass it by voice to EIAA. If alert or distress originates in Shanwick, we address these to EIAAYSYX using priority indicator SS.

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13
Q

What coordination with Shannon is required in emergencies?

A

If the aircraft in distress’ position could be in either Shanwick or Shannon’s airspace, it is the responsibility of the UK SAR organisation. Shanwick liaise with both Shannon and the ARCC.

If the distress position is entirely confined to Shannon, Shannon is the nominated ARCC and it is the sole responsibility of Shannon ARCC.

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14
Q

What information is available on Surface Vessels?

A

Info on over 12,000 surface vessels is available from the AMVER computer. All vessels close to the aircraft in difficulty and data on vessels on or near the predicted track can be made available to ARCC in approx 20 mins. ARCC can obtain weather info and sea states from vessels on list. The decision to request AMVER printouts rests with ARCC and not ATC.

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15
Q

How would you identify and notify others of a Hijack?

A

Identified to controllers by Mode A code 7500 and/or declaration on the RT. Suspected Hijacks however, may be indicated by numerous other means:

Refusal or inability to comply with ATC instruction with no good reason.
Unauthorised deviation from cleared flight profile.
Unauthorised SSR code change or extended use of IDENT.
Unspecific threat passed via third party.
Non ATC related RTF transmission.
Notification from unofficial sources.
Selection of A7600 or A7700
Open transmitter
Use of non standard phraseology by the crew or other covert attempt to highlight the situation.
Loss of RTF contact, particularly associated with flight profile deviation.

Individual events may not constitute suspicious activity alone but a combination of such events is seen as verification and appropriate action needs to be undertaken.

2 main ways that the GS may be informed of a suspected hijack:

Flight External to UK – Adjacent ATSU, Air/Ground Radio Stations, Foreign and Commonwealth Office via Department for Transport. European Civil Aviation Conference AFTN Signal.

Flight Internal to UK – Home Office via Department for Transport, Non-ATC / Government source, other ATSUs.

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16
Q

When may a clearance be withheld?

A

HM Government may elect to withhold an ATC clearance for a hijacked aircraft requesting to enter UK airspace. When authorised by HM Government via the Ops Sup, specific phraseology shall be used by controllers.

I am instructed by HMG to refuse entry into UK airspace. What are your intentions?

I am instructed by HMG to inform you that landing clearance has been refused for any airfield within the United Kingdom.

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17
Q

What action should ATC take in cases of hijack?

A

Immediately inform the GS giving the following details:

Callsign, type, operator, last assigned Mode A code.

Point of departure and intended destination.

Position, altitude, expected route.

Info as to how the aircraft became hijack status.

Current frequency and controlling agency.

If aircraft is observed as squawking 7500 - “callsign, confirm you are squawking assigned code (previously assigned code)”.

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18
Q

What action should the GS take in cases of hijack?

A

Immediately inform the OS for onward notification.

Pass details of subject aircraft to OS.

Advise that further investigation is necessary if hijack status is unverified.

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19
Q

What are the levels of threat regarding disruptive passengers?

A

Four level of disruptive passenger behaviour.
ATC may be advised of passenger behaviour with regard to the following:

Level 1 – Disruptive. (Suspicious or verbally threatening)

Level 2 – Physically Abusive.

Level 3 – Life Threatening.

Level 4 – Attempted or actual breach of flight crew compartment.

Reports of one or more of the above level threats shall be passed to the GS who advises the OS who in turn advises Swanwick Mil Supervisor.

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20
Q

Explain procedures in the event of RF within Shanwick?

A

It is assumed that aircraft operating within Shanwick shall proceed in accordance with the last received oceanic clearance to the NAT region boundary. This may not be the original filed flight plan. The aircraft should then proceed in accordance with the radio fail procedures for the state controlling the UIR/FIR which is being entered.

If radio failure occurs prior to entering Shanwick, the pilot may elect to continue according to the following procedures:

If the oceanic clearance has been received and acknowledged, aircraft shall enter the ocean at the cleared point, level and speed and proceed in accordance with acknowledged clearance.

If clearance not received and acknowledged and the aircraft elects to enter the ocean, it shall do so at the first entry point, level and speed contained in the flight plan and proceed in accordance with this to landfall.

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21
Q

What is the minimum number of LRNS systems that an aircraft can carry and be eligible for normal NAT HLA procedures?

A

Aircraft must be fitted with a minimum of 2 LRNS systems, although most modern aircraft carry so that in case of a single failure, they can still operate with the remaining two within NAT HLA airspace.

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22
Q

What should a pilot consider if one system fails before take off?

A

Pilot should consider:

Obtaining a clearance below or above NAT HLA.
Planning on one of the Blue Spruce routes which have been recommended for aircraft suffering partial loss of navigational capacity.

Use of the BSRs is subject to the following conditions:

Sufficient navigational capability remains. (Short range nav equipment - VOR, DME, ADF)

A revised flight plan is filed with the appropriate ATSU.
An appropriate ATC clearance is obtained.

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23
Q

What should a pilot consider if one system fails after departure but prior to boundary?

A

Pilot should consider:

Landing at a suitable aerodrome before boundary or returning to aerodrome of departure.
Diverting to one of the BSR.
Obtaining a re-clearance above or below NAT HLA.

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24
Q

What should a pilot consider if one system fails after the boundary?

A

Pilot should normally continue to operate in accordance with the oceanic clearance already received. Pilot should however:

Asses the prevailing circumstances (performance of second system, time remaining etc)

Prepare a proposal to ATC with respect to the prevailing circumstances.

Consult with ATC as to the most suitable course of action.

Obtain appropriate clearance prior to any deviation.

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25
Q

What should a pilot consider if the remaining system fails after entering NAT HLA?

A

Pilot should:

Make best use of procedures specified above relating to attempting visual sightings and establishing contact on VHF with adjacent aircraft for useful information.

If no instructions are received from ATC within a reasonable period, consider climbing or descending 500ft, broadcasting actions on 121.5 and advising ATC as soon as possible.

Notify ATC.

Keep a special lookout for possible conflicting aircraft and make maximum possible use of outside lights.

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26
Q

When informed by pilot that the aircraft is no longer RVSM approved but operating in RVSM airspace, what is the controllers actions?

A

Act immediately to provide 2000ft vertical separation or achieve lateral.
Essential traffic information provided if necessary.
Non-RVSM aircraft are usually cleared out of RVSM airspace when it is possible to do so.

Pilots will inform ATC if RVSM status is regained.

The centre that becomes aware of the failure is responsible for coordinating this with the adjacent sectors.

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27
Q

In cases of severe turbulence or wake vortex within RVSM airspace, what may ATC do to combat these conditions?

A

Establish increased separation immediately and try to accommodate pilot requests where possible. Pass essential traffic information as required.

Seek reports from other aircraft to establish whether it may be necessary to suspend RVSM entirely within a FL band or area. Any suspensions shall be coordinated with adjacent sectors.

The above relates to reported conditions, NOT forecast conditions.

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28
Q

Under what circumstances can ATC issue a clearance which results in a loss of standard separation?

A

If the pilot declares an emergency or has already commenced an enforced emergency manoeuvre, the controller is permitted to issue a clearance which may result in a loss of standard separation. This is based on the pilots intentions and having due regard to the overall traffic situation. Essential traffic information shall be passed to flights.

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29
Q

What phraseology should ATC use if there is no conflict free option and the crews actions result is a loss of standard separation?

A

The flight shall be advised that the responsibility for further action remains with the captain of the flight, using phrases such as:

“Do you wish to declare PAN and adopt contingency procedures.” Or,

“Shanwick unable to issue IFR clearance at this time, what are your intentions.”

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30
Q

If a flight needs to divert to a destination that crosses NAT tracks, what should a controller consider?

A

Always try to climb or descend to a level below or above track levels. It is far more preferable than crossing an area of dense traffic using 500ft separation.

31
Q

Is the term ‘Medical Emergency’ an emergency?

A

No, it is not recognised as an emergency. A flight declaring a medical emergancy shall be asked if they are declaring a PAN. If a PAN is declared then all assistance, including issuing a clearance in conflict if necessary, shall be given.

32
Q

Is an EMG message always an emergency?

A

No, an EMG message is a priority protocol used between EGGX and EIAA. EIAA use the EMG message to indicate that they consider a message from a flight to require the highest possible handling priority. An EMG message does not necessarily mean that the flight has declared an emergency.

33
Q

When transmitting Traffic Information to Ballygirreen for several aircraft what should a controller consider?

A

The controller should take note of which flight requires the traffic information most urgently.

The message should then be sent to Ballygirreen with the most urgent callsign at the start and callsigns that require the same traffic information at the end. E.g. “For ACA342, traffic Information ….Message Text…. Deliver also to DAL278, KLM330 and BAW42.

If more than one aircraft require the information urgently, list the callsigns after the message in order of urgency.

34
Q

What are the Special Contingency Procedures for Subsonic Aircraft?

A

A pilot may elect to descend to FL290 to minimise conflictions. If this is the case:

Turn at least 30 degrees right or left to maintain a 5nm same direction parallel track.

Maintain FL until established on 5nm offset if possible. If unable, initially minimise the rate of descent.

When offset, descend below FL290 and when able, establish at an offset 500ft.

When below FL290 proceed as required or if an ATC clearance has been obtained, proceed in accordance with clearance.

If remaining at or above FL290:

Turn at least 30 degrees right or left of the cleared track.

When 5nm clear, establish a 500ft offset.

If flying parallel to the cleared track, maintain a 5nm offset where possible.

35
Q

What must be considered when thinking about aircraft contingency manoeuvres in PBCS airspace?

A

The turning circle of an aircraft may extend beyond the adjacent track of a flight separated by 23nm.

Rate 1 – 3 degrees per second, Rate 2 – 6, Rate 3 – 9, Rate 4 – 12.

36
Q

If weather deviation is required by a pilot, what are the procedures for both the pilot informing ATC and ATC issuing a clearance?

A

The pilot will contact ATC requesting a deviation and the extent of deviation.

The controller shall either issue a clearance to deviate around weather or if there is conflicting traffic, advise that no clearance is available, advise of conflicting traffic and request intentions.

37
Q

When no clearance is available for a weather deviation, what procedures may a pilot choose to follow?

A

The pilot may execute the following procedures:

  • Deviate away from the organised track system if able.
  • Establish comms and alert aircraft in the vicinity by broadcasting aircraft ID, FL, position including ATS designator and intentions on 121.5 / 123.45.
  • Watch for conflicting traffic on TCAS.
  • Turn on all exterior lights.
  • For deviations of less than 5nm, remain at assigned level.
  • For deviations more than 5nm, initiate a level change – descend 300ft to the North and climb 300ft to the South.
  • When returning to track, be at assigned level within 5nm of the centreline.
  • If contact was not established prior to deviating, continue to attempt to contact ATC to obtain clearance. If contact was established, advise intentions and get essential traffic information.

ATC will be advised when any weather deviation is complete and flight has returned to assigned route.

38
Q

What is a Ballistic Recovery System?

A

BRSs take the form of a parachute and are fitted to some GA aircraft for use in situations where a pilot thinks that continued safe flight is not possible. Once deployed the aircraft will drift with the wind and the pilot has no further control over the aircraft.

39
Q

How should ATC react to a BRS deployed message?

A

Treat such reports with the same priority as those of engine failures or forced landings and ensure the GS is informed.

40
Q

In the event of Volcanic Ash activity, who declares Volcanic Ash operations in force?

A

The ATICCC (Air Traffic Incident Coordination and Communications Cell) will declare Volcanic Ash operations in force.

41
Q

What will be established around the volcanic ash source, what is the radius of this and how is it communicated?

A

A Volcanic Ash Danger Area will be established. It is a danger zone of 120nm radius around the volcanic ash source and it will be declared by NOTAM.

42
Q

Who issues the volcanic ash NOTAM and what info is contained?

A

The CAA issue the NOTAM. It will include either Low, Medium or High, relating to the amount of ash contamination. Forecast movement will also be included as well as lateral and vertical dimensions.

43
Q

Can operators fly through, over or under volcanic ash?

A

Yes, operators may fly through, over or under any concentration of volcanic ash. Operators use the NOTAM information to plan their flights and it is advised that a minimum of 2000ft above or below the contamination should be planned.

44
Q

What are the controller actions if a High Volcanic Ash Concentration area is reported?

A

Inform pilots before their aircraft enters the area and ask their intentions.

“Your requested route will take you through an area of forecast HIGH volcanic ash concentration, active from FL (X) to FL (X). Report your intentions.”

Pilots operating in volcanic ash may decline a climb or descent if it would take the aircraft into a higher contamination, Aircraft may also request to leave the area. ATC should accommodate ASAP.

ATCOs are not required to question a pilot if they decide to fly through volcanic ash, however, should an aircraft unexpectedly encounter a significant amount of volcanic ash, or the smell of sulphur, the pilot may:

Descend.
Reduce engine power.
Execute a 180 degree turn.
Disconnect auto-throttle.

Any incidents related to ash must be reported by MOR within normal tolerances.

45
Q

What maps may be made available during volcanic ash procedures?

A

Paper maps detailing the VA High Concentration Area will have its own map with base and ceiling details. There will be labelled Chart (NOTAM Number) and correlate to the NOTAM. OS will ensure maps go out in a timely manner and they will be returned after they expire.

46
Q

If ATC is advised by an aircraft that it has entered a VA cloud and indicates that it is in distress, what are the controller actions?

A

Consider it an emergency situation.

Do not initiate any climb or descent profiles to turbine powered aircraft until it has exited the ash cloud.

Do not attempt to provide escape vectors without pilot concurrence.

47
Q

Pilots who have observed volcanic ash that is un-forecast may make reports, what should those reports contain?

A
Callsign.
Position.
Time of encounter. 
Level. 
Volcanic Ash. 

e.g. AIREP Special BAW123 Position 57N 012W Time 13:43 FL310 volcanic ash.

On receipt of a report such as this, the controller is to ask the pilot their intentions and relay the report to other aircraft in the vicinity. They will also forward the message to the GS. GS/OS will forward to the MET office.

48
Q

What are the 3 phases of volcanic ash?

A

Pre Eruption – raises the alert when an eruption is expected. Information provided by SIGMET or NOTAM. If the eruption could cause a hazard to aviation, the Danger Zone (120nm radius) is declared by NOTAM.

Start of Eruption – commences at start of eruption. SIGMET issued and Danger Zone declared by NOTAM.

On going Eruption and Recovery – commences when first Volcanic Ash Advisory (VAA) message is sent. Message contains forecast of the contaminated area at +0, +6, +12 and +18 hours.

49
Q

Who can initiate the Pre-Eruption Phase?

A

The UK cannot as they do not have any active volcanoes. Pre-Eruption can therefore only be undertaken by neighbouring FIR/UIRs.

50
Q

If advised that EGGX is to be be evacuated and time permits, what is the controller to do?

A

Advise Gander of any traffic that has been cleared and is not yet notified to them. This includes all flights, including those not entering Gander airspace.

Advise all CPDLC flights, “disconnect CPDLC and log on to CZQX”

51
Q

When the Shanwick LAG is Re-occupied, what does the GS need to ensure?

A

Ensure that the GAATS+ database is updated or rebuilt. It may be necessary to restart from cold using initial start up procedures.

52
Q

If advised that Shanwick Radio is being evacuated, what process is followed?

A

Shanwick Radio is to notify the Shanwick GS by telephone.
Shanwick Radio is to advise all adjacent radio stations and OACCs by message over AFTN.
Shanwick Radio broadcast a message on the VOLMET frequencies advising aircraft to attempt to contact other radio stations or aircraft.

The OS should inform adjacent Comms Stations of the situation.

53
Q

If Gander is evacuated, which three units will this affect (Which 3 are stationed at Gander)?

A

Gander OAC, Gander Radio and Gander Domestic ACC are all located on the same site and therefore it is presumed that all would be affected by evacuation.

54
Q

What are the GS actions if Gander is evacuated?

A

Notify Reykjavik and Santa Maria.
Advise EIAA to ensure the Gander HF traffic can be monitored by other stations and relayed to Shanwick. EIAA also broadcast contingency tape on VOLMET is available.
Paper strips may be used to monitor traffic within Gander and Co-ord with Canadian Domestic.

55
Q

What are Westbound flight procedures if Gander is evacuated?

A

Continue in accordance with last acknowledged Oceanic clearance and follow Gander contingency documents. Documents are held at the GS desk.

Where possible, re-routes should be issued to avoid Gander. Coordination will need to be carried out with either MONCTON, MONTREAL or EDMONTON.

56
Q

What are Eastbound flight procedures if Gander is evacuated?

A

If flight has NOT received and acknowledged their clearance, it will be required to re-route around Gander.

GAATS+ enables all estimates within 90minutes of 40W to be sent to Shanwick (if the command is entered prior to evacuation) which allows us to have the details. Flights entering Gander from NY or LPPO may not be transmitted.

If flight has acknowledged an oceanic clearance they are expected to comply.

If flights are aware of the evacuation, they shall revert to voice reports when in Gander. They shall also report to Shanwick on first contact their callsign, position, level, speed, next waypoint and subsequent waypoint.

57
Q

What do we do with flights from LPPO, BIRD and New York if Gander is evacuated?

A

Shanwick coordinate with them to reroute traffic out of Gander’s airspace or coordinate traffic that will affect them.

58
Q

In the event of Reykjavik being evacuated, what procedures apply?

A

Reykjavik advise Shanwick GS of the evacuation and the GS advises the OS.

Coordinated flights into BIRD continue in accordance with clearance and are instructed to contact Iceland Radio.

Uncoordinated flights that have an oceanic clearance are re-cleared to avoid BIRD.

Shanwick get copies of messages from Iceland Radio of aircraft within Reykjavik OCA.

Adjacent centres advised when back up facility is established at Iceland Radio.

Once Reykjavik is manned again, supervisor will advise normal operations.

59
Q

In the event of Shannon being evacuated, what procedures apply?

A

Eastbound traffic which has already gone to EISN by ADT will normally be accepted without restriction.

Shanwick attempt to reroute all other Eastbound flights clear of Shannon, the NOTA and the SOTA.

If Shanwick are unable to route aircraft clear, they advise flights of the availability of the service in the Shannon area and adopt contingency procedures.

60
Q

What are the Shannon contingency procedures for Eastbound traffic during failure / evacuation?

A

Traffic is to continue to landfall (except AGORI, OMOKO and LASNO) and then direct to a point on the Scottish, London or Brest FIR boundary.

Aircraft maintain their assigned level and mach number and contact the adjacent centre for further instructions.

Shanwick give estimates to Scottish, London and Brest for the entry point into their airspace based on the 20W / 15W position reports.

Table of associated points is in Chapter 9 (Emg) 9.4.

61
Q

In the event of Madrid suffering a contingency, what levels of contingency are in play?

A

Madrid shall advise the OS.

Mardid have 3 levels of contingency:

A – all operations suspended.

B – disruption to service. A zero flow rate may be put in place for a maximum of 1 hour. Only flights with priority status may be accepted following coordination by the Madrid supervisor.

C – disruption to service. A zero flow rate may be put in place for a maximum of 1 hour. When advised, flights to and from LEST, LEBB, LEMD and LETO will be accepted.

62
Q

In the event of Madrid suffering a contingency, what procedures do Shanwick follow?

A

Advise aircraft of the service available in Madrid. If ‘A’, “all operations suspended in Madrid ACC”. For ‘B’ and ‘C’, “Madrid ACC in contingency”.

Where possible, reroute traffic to avoid Madrid. If unable to do this, aircraft shall be advised to adopt the Madrid published standard radio failure procedures.

Accept transfer of Comms prior to the Shanwick boundary.

Facilitate requests for information form Madrid.

If flight that is routing at or South of KOPAS at 13W cannot be rerouted, the controller with jurisdiction shall coordinate details with Santa Maria by voice.

63
Q

During an ATCO incapacitation situation, what applies?

A

Only a suitably qualified and valid ATCO may provide ATC services.
If this is not possible and there is an immediate and substantial risk to the safety of life, a non valid ATCO may provide ATC services for the sector in order to mitigate the risk.

Non licensed ATCOs, including trainees or support staff shall not attempt to control aircraft under any circumstance.

64
Q

What are some typical examples of Space Weather that may impact HF comms, GPS outages or National Power Grid outages?

A

Solar Flares
Sun Spots
Solar Radiation may also affect passengers and crews flying at high latitudes.

65
Q

Who distributes Space Weather info and how?

A

The UK Met Office through the Civil Aviation Comms Centre at Swanwick will email warnings to PC supervisors. Supervisors are responsible for ensuring all controllers are aware. Controllers are unable to provide specific advice to pilots with regards to the location, intensity and effect however.

66
Q

During Special Contingency Procedures for Subsonic Aircraft, what should the pilot take into account when thinking about whether contingency procedures should be applied?

A
Advise ATC ASAP of any deviation.
Fly at an offset of 500ft.
Select 7700.
Turn on exterior lights.
Broadcast intentions on 121.5 or 123.45.

The direction of turn should be based upon the following:

OTS position. 
The direction of the alternate aerodrome.
Levels on OTS.
SLOP being applied.
Terrain.
Weather.
67
Q

During Zero Wind (when Met info isn’t working), what should controllers consider?

A

Flights should, where ever practicable, be cleared to follow the route of the preceding aircraft in order to keep the number of route to a minimum. Controllers should consider using increased separations.

68
Q

If a controller cannot approve a weather deviation due to traffic, what should they advise the pilot of?

A

Advise pilot of the inability to issue a clearance.
Advise pilot of conflicting traffic.
Request intentions.

69
Q

In the Available Profile List, what do the following abbreviations mean:

RQM
FPL
GOF

A

RQM - Request Monitor - Previously requested speed or level becomes available.

FPL - Flight Plan - Availablity of request from flight plan.

GOF - Go-Fli - Up to 2,000ft higher available.

70
Q

What message type can Reykjavik not accept?

A

MAC messages.

71
Q

What are the GS responsibilities?

A

Assessing the traffic and staffing situation.
Before initiating REDOS, ensure each sector has serviced its message queues or have print out of queues.
Holds ultimate responsibility for sector splits.

72
Q

If a flight is showing as Unknown ADS-B, what phraseology should we use to address the situation?

A

Re-enter ADS-B aircraft identification using “Callsign”.

73
Q

What are DM40 and UM137?

A

UM137 is the Confirm Assigned Route message.
DM40 is the Downlink Message 40.

GAATS+ automatically transmits a UM137 to all FANS 1/A aircraft approximately 5 minutes after entering Shanwick.