General deck 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Systolic murmur head over apex:

A

mitral prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Low pitched murmur on rt side of sternum:

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Left peri-sternal diastolic murmur:

A

tricuspid stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ejection click in late systolic in standing position:

A

mitral regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

S1 splitting:

A

usually heard near tricuspid location, AV valves out of sync

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Physiological S2 splitting:

A

S2 during inspiration (normal in children and athletes heard best on pulmonic valve site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathological S2 splitting:

A

S2 always split, caused by hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S4 arterial gallop:

A

arterial gallop, heard at apex, associated with pulmonic stenosis and pulmonary hypertension. always pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Midsystolic murmur:

A

semilunar stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pansystolic murmur:

A

AV regurgitation (pan means all through systole (S1 and S2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stills murmur:

A

innocent” murmur heard in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Machinery murmur:

A

patent ductus arteriosis, persistent opening between two major blood vessels exiting heart after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Atrial flutter or fibrillation:

A

strong association with clot formation (stroke potential)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1st sign of heart failure:

A

fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Right sided heart failure is called:

A

cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Right sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) is caused by:

A

pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular failure (fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Right sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) is results in:

A

edema, portal hypertension, jugular distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Left sided heart failure is:

A

congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Left sided heart failure (congestive heart failure) is caused by:

A

systemic hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular failure(fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Left sided heart failure (congestive heart failure) results in:

A

pulmonary edema and effusion, pulmonary hypertension, inspiratory and expiratory crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cardiac output =

A

one minute of ventricle output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stroke volume =

A

one beat of ventricle output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cuff sound aka:

A

Korotkoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cuff problems =

A

high readings

25
Q

Ausculatory gap usually indicates

A

hypertension

26
Q

Bruits and thrills indicate:

A

turbulence

27
Q

Pericarditis:

A

inflammation around the heart, rub present (4th intercostal)

28
Q

Endocarditis:

A

infection of the heart muscle itself (strep most common)

29
Q

EKG aka ECG evaluates:

A

heart rhythms (MI, arrhythmias)

30
Q

Echocardiogram evaluates:

A

chamber size and fluid (murmurs, CHF, carditis)

31
Q

MI (or necrosis) elevated enzyme: immediate

A

troponin

32
Q

MI (or necrosis) elevated enzyme: after 1 hour

A

CK - MB (CPK)

33
Q

MI (or necrosis) elevated enzyme: after 2-3 hours

A

SGOT / AST

34
Q

MI (or necrosis) elevated enzyme: after 2-3 days

A

LDH

35
Q

Decreased ADH:

A

posterior pituitary, diabtetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia)

36
Q

Decreased insulin:

A

tail of the pancreas, diabetes mellitus (polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia)

37
Q

Diabetic coma:

A

Kussmaul’s breathing, fruity breath, ketoacidosis

38
Q

Decreased adrenocorticoids:

A

Addison’s

39
Q

Addison’s:

A

weight loss, hypotension, bronze skin

40
Q

Increased adrenocorticoids:

A

Cushing’s, aka hypercortisolism aka hyperadrenocorticism

41
Q

Cushing’s:

A

weight gain, hypertension, moon face, buffalo hump, hirsutism

42
Q

Increased parathormone (primary)

A

MC, Post menopausal female, hypercalcemia, excessive bone resorption

43
Q

Increased parathormone (secondary)

A

Renal osteodystorphy, Kidney disease causes feekback malfunction, chronic parathiroid function, hypercalcemia, bone resorption, calcified vessels

44
Q

Hyperthyroid (thyroiditis) primary

A

MC aka myxdemia, usually autoimmune, hashimoto, decreased T3/T4

45
Q

Hyperthyroid (thyroiditis) secondary

A

Rare, decreased TRH and TSH

46
Q

Hyperthyroid (thyroiditis) cretenism

A

child, congenital, mental deficient, female 3:1

47
Q

Hyperthyorid (thyrotoxosis)

A

Graves, MC, autoimmune, associated with DM, pernicious anemia, collagen diseases

48
Q

Decreased T3/T4:

A

Myxedema

49
Q

Myxedema:

A

weight gain, constipation, edema, dry skin, brittle

50
Q

Increased T3/T4:

A

Grave’s

51
Q

Grave’s:

A

weight loss, diarrhea, anxiety, moist skin, soft hair

52
Q

Hashimoto:

A

autoimmune, early hyperthyroid, late hypothyroid

53
Q

Decreased Vit D in a child:

A

Rickets

54
Q

Decreased Vit D in an adult:

A

osteomalacia

55
Q

Primary bone cancers:

A

Multiple myeloma, osteosarcoma, Ewing’s

56
Q

Secondary bone cancers:

A

blastic mets, lytic mets

57
Q

Temporary increased in blood calcium can include:

A

Adson’s, hyperthyroid, immobilization, excessive fractures, diuretics, respiratory acidosis

58
Q

Hypercalcemia (hypophosphatemia) types (5)

A
  1. Secondary hyperparathyoridism (renal osteodystrophy) 2. Bone cancer 3. Hyperthyroid (parafililicular cells increase osteclastic activity) 4. Adisons, hyperthyroid, immobilization, excessive fractures 5. Diuretics, respiratory acedosis
59
Q

Hypocalcemia (hyperphosphatemia) types (2)

A
  1. Hypovitaminosis D (Rickets and osteomalacia) 2. Hypoparathyroidism, malabsorption, alkalosis, diarrhea, acute pancreatitis.