General Anesthetics I Flashcards

1
Q

What is anesthesia

A

a state where no movement occurs in response to what should be painful
the patient has lost consiousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

absence of memory during anesthesia

A

amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inability to interepret, respond to and remember pain

A

Analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Analgesia is

A

inable to interpret, respond to and remember pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During anesthesia you are

A

immobile to respond to noxious stimuli and you do not activate autonomic responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Potency is usually measured by determination of the concentration of anesthetic that

A

prevents movement in response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The ‘dose’ of anestetic that prevents movement in:

A

in response to pain in 50% of the patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the dose of a gas is directly related to and determined by :

A

conc in alveolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What quantifies anesthetic potency in inhaled anesthetics?

A

minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) that prevents movement in 50% of pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Benefits of MAC as measure of potency

A

Can be continuously monitored by measuring end-tidal anesthetic concentration
Provides a direct correlate to anesthetic concentration at the site of action in CNS
Simple to measure end-point (lack of movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do we measure potency for intravenously administered anesthetics

A

usually use free plasma concentration that produces loss of response to surgical incision in 50% of subjects as an index of potency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Common effects shared by all anesthetics include

A

membrane hyperpolarization and effects on synaptic function; such that inhibitory neurotransmission is increased and excitatory neurotransmission is reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Likely targets of anesthetics

A

GABAa
NMDA
other channels and membrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
regulated chloride channel
function is enhanced by most, but not all anesthetics
anesthetics produce allosteric interactions; not a direct effect them
A

GABAA receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glutamate-regulated cation channel

Anesthetics that do not interact with GABA receptors all inhibit these receptors

A

NMDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most anesthetics will increase _____ opening via allosteric effects to increase Cl- conductance

A

GABA a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stages of Genreal anesthesia

A

Premedication
Induction
Maintaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Keys for induction

A

want it to be non-frightening and non painful and we only induce with inhalational anesthetic in emergency, otherwise via IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

To maintain anesthesia with gaseious anesthetics keep in mind

A

they have short 1/2 lives and need to constantly be administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All parenterally admin anestetics are

A

hydrophobic and given as single IV bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Single iv bolus results in a high concentration in ________within a single circulation time; results in_____ induction of anesthesia

A

brain and spinal cord

RAPID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens as blood levels of anesthetics drop after induction

A

As blood levels drop, anesthetic redistributes back into the blood from the brain and winds up in other tissues where it is slowly released and metabolized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the half-life of the anesthetic in the body and the duration of action are

A

not the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

duration of action is _____ than half life thus multiple dosing is _____

A

shorter

complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

typical barbituate anesthetic

A

sodium thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Barbituate used to induce anesthesia; typical induction dose produces unconsciousness in 10 to 30 sec; duration of action of a single dose is about 10 min.

A

sodium thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1/2 life of sodium thiopental

A

Has a long half life (12 hours) so can produce residual effects (hang-over) after anesthesia has worn off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When do we reduce the dose of sodium thiopental we give to patients?

A

Dose should be reduced if patient has been premedicated with other CNS depressants, including opiates, benzodiazepines and alpha2 agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sodium thiopental works by

A

activating GABAa receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why dont we give intra-arterial injection of sodium thiopental

A

causes necrosis and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how can we deliver sodium thiopental to peds patients

A

rectally

32
Q

CNS affects of sodium thiopental

A

Reduces cerebral oxygen utilization, and, as a consequence, reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure
Has been tried as a protective agent for the treatment of cerebral ischemia

33
Q

CV affects of sodium thiopental

A

Vasodialation—espeicially venodialation

**DONT use for pts with reduced pre-load or cardiomyopathy– see severe drop in BP

34
Q

Can we use barbiutates in pts with coronary artery disease?

A

yes because its not arythmogenic

35
Q

Affect on respiration sodium thiopental has

A

respiratory depression— often need to intubate pts bc they stop breathing

36
Q

Propofol:
onset and duration:
uses:

A

Propofol(Diprivan®)

  1. Onset and duration of anesthesia are the same as barbiturates
  2. Is used to maintain and induce anesthesia
37
Q

Is antiemetic, an advantage as many patients are nauseated following surgery

A

Propofol

38
Q

Has a shorter half-life than thiopental; used when a rapid return to normal mental status is desired (out-patient surgery, for example)

A

Propofol

39
Q

Mech of Propofol

A

GABAa

40
Q

Half life of propofol in the body

A

3.5 hours with much less hangover than barbituates.. HUGE for usefullness in outpatient surgeries

41
Q

Unique side effect of propofol

A

pain at injection side thus gven with lidocaine

also causes initial excitaiton upon induciton

42
Q

pain at injection side thus gven with lidocaine

also causes initial excitaiton upon induciton

A

Propofol

43
Q

3.5 hours with much less hangover than barbituates.. HUGE for usefullness in outpatient surgeries

A

Propofol

44
Q

CNS side effects of Propofol

A

CNS: Reduces cerebral oxygen utilization, and, as a consequence, reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure

45
Q

CV effects with Propofol

A

more sever reduction in BP then thiopental
see vasodialtion and depression of myocardial contractility
blunts baroreflexes

46
Q

What’s the danger in propofol blunting baroreflexes

A

see depression of myocardial contractility but then they’re not opposed by vasoconstriciton and HR will increase

47
Q

What type of patients are intolerant to propofol

A

those intolerant to decreased BP

–contraindicated in pts with hypotension

48
Q

Respiratory effects of propofol

A

more depression then thiopental

49
Q

Primarily used to induce anesthesia in patients at risk for hypotension

A

Etomidate

50
Q

has high incidence of pain on injection and myoclonus

A

etomidate

51
Q

CNS effects of etomidate

A

CNS: Reduces cerebral oxygen utilization, and, as a consequence, reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure

52
Q

Etomidate has____ respiratory depression than thiopental

A

Less

53
Q

Drawback of etomidate

A

Significantly more nausea and vomiting than thiopental

54
Q

What is concerning about etomidate post-surgery

A

ncreased post-surgical mortality due to suppression of the adrenocortical stress response; primarily when the anesthetic has been given for a prolonged period of time. Therefore, only used to induce anesthesia in patients prone to hemodynamic problems

55
Q

produces dissociative anethesia and profound analgesia

A

Ketamine

56
Q

This anethetic produces dissociative anesthesia, doesn’t affect respiration and is a bronchodilator

A

ketamine

57
Q

Ketamine is charcterized by:

A

1) profound analgesia
2) unresponsiveness to commands, even though eyes can be open
3) amnesia
4) spontaneous respiration

58
Q

Administration of ketamine

A

typically administered iv but can also be used via intramuscular, oral and rectal routes

59
Q

Ketamine mech

A

NMDA receptor anatagonist

60
Q

Advantages of Ketamine

A

Advantages: profound analgesia, very little respiratory depression, bronchodilator

61
Q

Side effects of Ketamine

A

Produces nystagmus, salivation, lacrimation, spontaneous limb movements and increased muscle tone
increased intracranial pressure

62
Q

Produces nystagmus, salivation, lacrimation, spontaneous limb movements and increased muscle tone
increased intracranial pressure

A

Ketamine

63
Q

causes emergence delierium adn increased BP dt sympathomimetic affect

A

Ketamine

64
Q

Ketamine is reserved for pts with

A

broncospasm that can’t be indubated

good for children undergoing short, painful procedures

65
Q

Short acting benszo that is a GABAa activator

A

Midazolam

66
Q

used alone for conscious sedation, anxiolysis and amnesia for short procedures or as an inducing agent

A

MMidazolam

67
Q

Mech of Midazolam

A

Short acting benszo that is a GABAa activator

68
Q

good adjunt for local anestheticsm or pre-op to decrease anxiety

A

midazolam

69
Q

Compared to thiopental, midazolam has ____ duration of action and _____ induction

A

longer duration

slower induction

70
Q

Midazolam must be ______ to it’s active metabolite

A

Metabolized by hydroxylation to an active metabolite

71
Q

a. Has been associated with respiratory depression and respiratory arrest especially when used intravenously to produce conscious sedation

A

Midazolam

72
Q

Pt population to be careful when administering Midazolam

A

Should be used with caution in patients with neuromuscular disease; Parkinson’s disease; bipolar disorder

73
Q

Induction for patient surgery and causes hypotension and hang over

A

Thiopental

74
Q

Used for induction/maintence especially outpatient and cuases hypotension and respiratory depression

A

Propofol

75
Q

Used for induction in pts that have hypotention but causes nausea and adrenal suppression

A

Etomidate

76
Q

Used for pts with broncospasm or in kids for short, painful procedures

A

Ketamine

77
Q

Used for cons sedation and as an anti-anxiety but has slow induction with respiratory depression

A

Midazolam