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Medicine > General Anatomy > Flashcards

General Anatomy Flashcards

Semester 1 anatomy

1
Q

Types of cell-cell junction

A
  • Tight – seals intercellular spacer
  • Gap – communication
  • Desmosomes – adhesion ie
    intercalated disk
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2
Q

What do epithelia lie on

A

Basement membrane
o Basal lamina
o Reticular lamina

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3
Q

Types of cell-ECM junction

A
  • Hemidesmosome – half
    desmosome
  • Skin basal lamina
  • Blood vessel endothelium-basal
    lamina
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4
Q

Epithelia secondary roles

A
  • Thick – wear and tear
  • Thin – diffusion
  • Ciliated – movement
  • Villi – absorption
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5
Q

Classifications of epithelia

A
  • Simple
  • Squamous
  • Cuboidal
  • Columnar
  • All can be stratified – multi layer
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6
Q

Special classifications of epithelia

A
  • Transitional – urinary system also
    called urothelium
  • Pseudostratified columnar –
    common in large tubes of resp
    system
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7
Q

Types of exocrine gland

A

Merocrine
Apocrine
Holocrine

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8
Q

How does merocrine gland work

A

Secretions from cells

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9
Q

How do apocrine glands work

A

Parts of cell break off and are secreted

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10
Q

How does holocrine gland work

A

Whole cells are formed and secreted from gland which break up

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11
Q

What are myoepithelial cells

A

Squeeze secretions out of glands

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12
Q

Where do endocrine glands secrete

A

Into the blood

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13
Q

Types of connective tissue

A

Blood/bone marrow
Loose
Dense - regular/irregular
Cartilage
Bone
Fat

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14
Q

What composes the ECM in connective tissue

A

Fibres
Ground substance
Tissue fluid

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15
Q

Types of fibre in connective tissue ECM

A

Collagen (reticulin very common)
Elastin

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16
Q

Classification of bones (6)

A

Flat
Short
Long
Irregular
Sesamoid
Sutural

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17
Q

Types of bone (2)

A

Spongy/cancellous
Compact/cortical

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18
Q

What membrane surrounds bone

A

Periosteum
Endosteum

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19
Q

Where is red marrow found

A

Epiphysis and metaphysis

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20
Q

Where is yellow marrow found

A

Diaphysis

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21
Q

What is the space within the compact bone called

A

Medullary cavity

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22
Q

What is the structure of compact bone

A

Osteons and haversian systems

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23
Q

What is the structure of a haversian system

A

Osteon surrounds haversian canal

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24
Q

What vessels connect haversian canals

A

Volkmann’s Canals

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25
Q

What is bone matrix called

A

Lamellae

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26
Q

What makes up osteons

A

Osteocytes
Concentric ring of lamellae
Around haversian canal

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27
Q

How are osteocytes connected

A

Gap junctions that pass through a channel called called:
Canaliculi

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28
Q

What fills space in cancellous bone

A

Bone marrow

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29
Q

What determines orientation of trabecular bone

A

Reflects main directions of mechanical force

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30
Q

3 types of cell in bone

A

Osteoclast
Osteoblast
Osteocyte

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31
Q

What makes up bone ECM

A

45% Hydroxyapatite crystals
35% Type 1 collagen
20% Water

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32
Q

What is hydroxyapatite a complex form of

A

Calcium phosphate

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33
Q

Where are osteoclasts found

A

Bone surface

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34
Q

What does an osteoclast look like

A

Ruffled border
Multinucleated

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35
Q

What is the pit in bone left by an osteoclast called

A

Howship’s lacunae - resorption pit

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36
Q

Where do osteoblasts come from

A

Created from osteoprogenitor cells in peri/endosteum

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37
Q

Function of osteoblasts

A

Produce bone matrix and initiate calcification

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38
Q

Where do osteocytes come from

A

Osteoblasts once they’re surrounded by matrix

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39
Q

What is unmineralised bone matrix called

A

Osteoid

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40
Q

What is it called when bone
resorption > formation

A

Osteoporosis

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41
Q

What is it called when bone
resorption < formation

A

Osteopetrosis

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42
Q

What is it called when bone
resorption and formation is increased

A

Paget’s Disease

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43
Q

2 types of bone ossification

A

Endochondral
Intramembraneous

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44
Q

Where does endochondral ossification occur

A

Within epiphyseal growth plate

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45
Q

What is endochondral ossification

A

Bone replaces cartilage model

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46
Q

What is intramembraneous ossification

A

Mesenchymal cells develop into osteoprogenitor cells into osteoblasts which deposit bone

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47
Q

What do mesenchymal cells that don’t become osteoprogenitor cells become

A

Blood vessels and bone marrow

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48
Q

2 Types of bone growth

A

Appositional
Interstitial

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49
Q

How is appositional bone growth mainly mediated

A

Intramembraneous bone growth

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50
Q

How is interstitial bone growth mainly mediated

A

Endochondral bone growth

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51
Q

What types of cell are in cartilage

A

Chondrocytes
Chondroblasts

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52
Q

What is cartilage ECM made up of

A

75% water
Mixed molecules
Fibres

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53
Q

3 main types of cartilage

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrocartilage

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54
Q

What is the weakest type of cartilage

A

Hyaline

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55
Q

Appearance of hyaline cartilage

A

Glassy

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56
Q

Examples of hyaline cartilage

A

Epiphyseal growth plate
Nose and Ears
Trachea
Ribs
Larynx

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57
Q

What structure does elastic cartilage have to make it elastic

A

Elastin as well as collagen

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58
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found

A

Ear
Larynx
Epiglottis

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59
Q

What is the strongest type of cartilage

A

Fibrocartilage

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60
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found

A

Joint capsules
Ligament/tendon insertions
Intervertebral disks

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61
Q

How does cartilage get its nutrition

A

Pores from blood vessels diffuse into cartilage matrix

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62
Q

How does articular cartilage get nutrition in addition to blood

A

Synovial fluid

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63
Q

What surrounds cartilage

A

Perichondrium

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64
Q

3 main types of joint

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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65
Q

Examples of fibrous joints

A

Periodontal ligament
Cranial sutures
Interosseus membranes

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66
Q

2 types of cartilaginous joint

A

Primary - Synchondroses
Secondary - Symphyses

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67
Q

What is a primary cartilaginous joint

A

Allows bone growth
Not in adults
No movement

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68
Q

What is a secondary cartilaginous joint

A

Does not ossify
Found in midline of body
Limited movement

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69
Q

What is the key difference between symphyses and synchondroses

A

Symphyses have 2 types of cartilage
-Fibrocartilage
-Hyaline
Synchondroses only have hyaline

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70
Q

Common features of synovial joints

A

Articular cartilage
Synovial cavity
Synovial membrane
Fibrous capsule

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71
Q

6 types of synovial joint

A

Hinge
Plane
Saddle
Pivot
Condylar - ellipsoid
Ball and socket

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72
Q

Structures that stabilise joint

A

Ligaments
Muscles

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73
Q

What is the definition of joint flexion

A

Bringing 2 ventral surfaces in the body closer together

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74
Q

What week do lower limbs in the embryo rotate

A

7-8

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75
Q

What is the layer that surrounds the outer muscle

A

Epimysium

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76
Q

What sounds fascicles of muscle fibres

A

Perimysium

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77
Q

What surrounds individual muscle fibres

A

Endomysium

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78
Q

What is a parallel muscle

A

Fibres run in 1 direction

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79
Q

What is a pennate muscle

A

Fibres run in multiple directions

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80
Q

What is a flat broad sheet of tendon called

A

Aponeurosis

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81
Q

What nerve supplies all extensors of upper limb

A

Radial nerve

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82
Q

Layer surrounding whole nerve

A

Epineurium

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83
Q

Layer surrounding nerve fascicles

A

Perineurium

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84
Q

Layer surrounding individual neurones

A

Endoneurium

85
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

86
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves in each region

A

C8
T12
L5
S5
Cx1

87
Q

Names of C1, C2 and C7 vertebrae

A

C1 - Atlas
C2 - Axis
C7 - Vertebra Prominens

88
Q

What type of fibre comes out of the dorsal root

A

Sensory, afferent neurons

89
Q

What type of fibre come out of the ventral root

A

Motor, efferent neurons

90
Q

What is in the dorsal root ganglion

A

Cell bodies of neurones

91
Q

Which ramus is bigger

A

Ventral

92
Q

What type of nerves are in rami

A

Motor and sensory

93
Q

Where are cell bodies of motor neurones

A

In the spinal cord

94
Q

Name of the point where the motor neurone meets the muscle fibre

A

Neuromuscular junction

95
Q

What type of neurone links motor and sensory neurones

A

Inter neurones

96
Q

What is a dermatome

A

Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

97
Q

What is a myotome

A

An area of muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve

98
Q

What is a cutaneous nerve map

A

Shows the area supplied by cutaneous nerves to the skin (different from dermatomes)

99
Q

Why is cutaneous nerve map different from dermatomes

A

Nerves combine to form cutaneous nerves in the plexuses

100
Q

What is an axial muscle

A

ONLY attaches to axial bones

101
Q

What is an appendicular muscle

A

Can connect apendicular-apendicular bone or apendicular-axial bone

102
Q

How are muscle compartments split

A

Interuscular septa formed by deep fascia

103
Q

Arm flexors

A

Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Coracobrachialis

104
Q

Arm extensors

A

Triceps Brachii

105
Q

Anterior upper limb muscles nerve supply

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

106
Q

Posterior arm muscle nerve supply

A

Radial Nerve

107
Q

Anterior forearm nerve supply

A

Median and Ulnar Nerve

108
Q

Posterior forearm nerve supply

A

Radial Nerve

109
Q

What nerve supplies the Glutes

A

Sciatic Nerve

110
Q

What does the G.Max do to the hip

A

Extension

111
Q

What do the G.Medius and G.Minimus do to the hip joint

A

Abduction

112
Q

Hamstring nerve supply

A

Sciatic Nerve

113
Q

Quadricep nerve supply

A

Femoral Nerve

114
Q

Adductor nerve supply

A

Obturator Nerve

115
Q

What 3 muscles make up the hamstring

A

Bicep Femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

116
Q

What muscles make up the quadriceps

A

Rectus Femoris
Vastus Lateralis
Vastus Medius
Vastus Intermedius

117
Q

Which 2 tendons connect to the patella

A

Quadricep tendon
Patellar Tendon

118
Q

Adductor muscles of leg (5)

A

Adductor Longus
Adductor Magnus
Adductor Brevis
Pectineus
Gracilis

119
Q

Lower leg muscle nerve supply

A

Sciatic Nerve

120
Q

Which muscles allow for precision movements of the digits

A

Intrinsic hand muscles

121
Q

Which muscles give strength to the digits

A

Forearm muscles

122
Q

Functions of intrinsic foot muscles

A

Support walking
Maintain foot arch

123
Q

3 types of neurone

A

Bipolar
Multipolar
Pseudounipolar

124
Q

What cells myelinate neurones

A

Schwann Cell - PNS
Oligodendrocyte - CNS

125
Q

What are gaps in myelin sheath called

A

Node of Ranvier

126
Q

What are the blood vessels that support nerves called

A

Vasa Nervorum

127
Q

What dermatome does the manubrosternal joint lie in

A

T2

128
Q

What dermatome do the nipples lie in

A

T4

129
Q

What dermatome does the umbilicus lie in

A

T10

130
Q

How many cranial nerves are there

A

12

131
Q

What is in the grey matter vs white matter of spinal cord

A

Grey - cell bodies
White - Axons

132
Q

What does each horn of the spinal cord contain

A

Dorsal horn - Sensory neurones
Ventral horn - Motor neurones

133
Q

What is the large mass within the dorsal root called

A

Dorsal root ganglion
Contains cell bodies

134
Q

Which rami form plexuses

A

Ventral rami

135
Q

Brachial plexus root values

A

C5-T1

136
Q

Lumbar and sacral plexus root values

A

L1-S4

137
Q

Where is the spinal nerve

A

Where the roots combine just before they split into rami again

138
Q

What landmark is the spinal nerve at

A

Intervertebral foramen

139
Q

How many bones in vertebral column

A

33

140
Q

How many vertebrae in each region

A

C7
T12
L5
S5
Cx3-5

141
Q

How does foetal vertebral column differ to adults

A

Single concave shape
Whole spine is kyphosis in foetus

142
Q

What parts make up the vertebral arch (5)

A

Pedicle
Transverse Process
Superior/inferior articular process’
Lamina
Spinous Process

143
Q

Features of cervical vertebrae

A

Foramen Transversarium
Bifid Spinous Process

144
Q

Features of thoracic vertebrae

A

Heart shaped body
Long downwards-pointing spinous process

145
Q

2 components of IV disk

A

Nucleus Pulposus
Annulus Fibrosus

146
Q

3 types of meninges (outer to inner)

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

147
Q

Where is CSF found

A

In the subarachnoid space

148
Q

What type of joint is costovertebral joint

A

Synovial plane

149
Q

What type of joint is between skull and atlas

A

Synovial ellipsoid

150
Q

What type of joint is between atlas and axis

A

Synovial pivot

151
Q

Ligaments in the vertebral column

A

Anterior longitudinal
Posterior longitudinal
Ligamentum flavum
Interspinous
Supraspinous

152
Q

What intrinsic back muscle extends the back and keeps posture

A

Erector spinae

153
Q

What happens when 1 side of erector spinae contract

A

Lateral flexion

154
Q

Main chest muscle name

A

Pectoralis major

155
Q

Deeper chest muscle name

A

Pectoralis minor

156
Q

Abdominal muscles that have vertical fibres

A

Rectus abdominus

157
Q

Outer shoulder muscle name

A

Deltoid

158
Q

What muscles are lateral to rectus abdominus

A

External obliques - v shape
Internal obliques - ^ shape

159
Q

What muscles flex the trunk

A

Rectus abdominus
Psoas major

160
Q

What muscles extend the trunk

A

Erector spinae

161
Q

What muscles rotate the trunk

A

External obliques
Internal obliques (opposite side)
Erector spinae

162
Q

What muscles laterally flex the trunk

A

Erector spinae
Internal obliques
External obliques

163
Q

3 main posterior abdominal wall muscles

A

Illiacus
Psoas major
Quadratus lumborum

164
Q

Which horn are autonomic cell bodies found in

A

Lateral horn

165
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerves come from

A

Cranial nerves
S2-S4

166
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves come from

A

T1-L2/3

167
Q

How do areas outside T1-S2/3 are get sympathetic innervation

A

Sympathetic chain

168
Q

Where are parasympathetic ganglia located

A

Within target organs

169
Q

Where are prevertebral ganglia found

A

In abdomen

170
Q

How does somtic innervation differ to autonomic innervation

A

Somatic - 1 nerve to target muscle
Autonomic - 2 nerves to smooth muscle
and 2nd nerve is unmyelinated

171
Q

How is sympathetic outflow described

A

Thoracolumbar

172
Q

How is parasympathetic outflow described

A

Craniosacral

173
Q

Where are the grey and white ramus communicantes

A

Grey closer to spinal cord
White further away

174
Q

Why are the grey and white ramus communicantes their respective colours

A

Grey due to no myelination
White due to myelination

175
Q

Describe sympathetic outflow

A

Ventral root > white ramus.c > sympathetic ganglia > grey ramus.c > ventral + dorsal rami

176
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves synapse

A

Sympathetic chain

177
Q

What is a splanchnic nerve

A

Autonomic preganglionic nerve that passes through sympathetic chain without synapsing and supply abdominal organs.
They synapse at their target organ gangion

178
Q

How do sympathetic nerves supply above the C1 area (end of SC)

A

Nerves run along blood vessels going to the head

179
Q

What syndrome can sympathetic nerve damage above C1 cause

A

Horner’s syndrome

180
Q

Symptoms of Horner’s syndrome

A

Partial ptosis - upper eyelid drooping
Miosis - constriction of pupil
Anhydrosis - decreased sweating
Usually effects 1 side of face

181
Q

Where do sympathetic sensory nerves enter spinal cord

A

Dorsal root/horn

182
Q

Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic outflow

A

3rd
7th
9th
10th (vagus)

183
Q

What are parasympathetic nerves carrying signals to pelvic organs also known as

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

184
Q

What level does the spinal cord extend down to

A

L1/2

185
Q

Where are the enlargements of the spinal cord

A

Cervical and lumbar region

186
Q

Why are there enlargements in the spinal cord

A

Where the plexus’ are

187
Q

What is the bundle of nerves after the termination of the spinal cord called

A

Cauda equina

188
Q

What is the conical inferior end of spinal cord called

A

Conus medullarise

189
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater from the conus medullaris to the periosteum of the coccyx called

A

Filum terminale

190
Q

What is the dilated dural sac called

A

Dural cistern

191
Q

Where does the dural cistern end

A

S2 vertebral level

192
Q

Function of filum terminale

A

Anchor the spinal cord in place

193
Q

What is RER in neuron cell bodies called in the spinal cord

A

Nissl Bodies

194
Q

Which spinal cord fissure is deeper

A

Anterior

195
Q

What are the lateral projection of pia mater that connect to the arachnoid mater called

A

Denticulate ligaments

196
Q

What level is a lumbar puncture done

A

L3-4
L4-5

197
Q

How is lymph flow kept unidirectional

A

Valves

198
Q

What are the section dividers in a lymph node called

A

Trabecula

199
Q

What is found within lymphoid follicles

A

Germinal center

200
Q

What are the areas within lymph nodes with the lymphocytes called

A

Cortex

201
Q

What drains lymph from the upper right quadrant of the body

A

Right lymphatic duct

202
Q

What drains lymph from the whole body minus the upper right quadrant

A

Thoracic duct

203
Q

Where do lymph vessels drain into

A

Jugular/subclavian junction

204
Q

What is the enlargement in the thoracic duct called

A

Cistern chyli

205
Q

What is the lymph vessel within villi called

A

Lacteal

206
Q

2 main histologic features of spleen

A

Red pulp
White pulp

207
Q

What is in the red pulp of spleen

A

Erythrocytes

208
Q

What is in the white pulp of the spleen

A

Lymphocytes

Medicine (13 decks)

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