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CLN/DTY > GEN Section > Flashcards

GEN Section Flashcards

1
Q

Which sectors comprise LAKES?

A

3, 4 and 7

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2
Q

Which sectors comprise NORTH SEA?

A

10 and 11

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3
Q

Which sectors comprise DOVER LYDD?

A

15, 16 and 17

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4
Q

Which sectors comprise DOVER?

A

15 and 16

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5
Q

Which sectors comprise WORTHING?

A

18-22

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6
Q

Which sectors comprise LUS?

A

1, 2 and 24

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7
Q

Which sectors comprise LMS?

A

25 and 26

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8
Q

Which sectors comprise BRECON?

A

5, 8, 23 and 35

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9
Q

Which sectors comprise BERRY HEAD?

A

6, 9 and 36

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10
Q

Which sectors comprise WEST END?

A

5, 6, 8, 9, 23, 35 and 36

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11
Q

What airfields are in the Brize Group?

A

Gloucester (BJ)
Fairford (VA)
Brize Norton (VN)

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12
Q

What airfields are in the Brussels TMA?

A 
Antwerp (AW)
Brussels (BR)
Charleroi (CI) [Brussels South]
Chievres (CV)
Brussels (MB) [Melsbroek Air Base - same location as EBBR]
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13
Q

What airfields are in the Farnborough Group?

A 
Blackbushe (LK)
Dunsfold (TD)
Fairoaks (TF)
Farnborough (LF)
Lasham (HL)
Odiham (VO)
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14
Q

What airfields are in the German Group?

A 
Munster (DG)
Dusseldorf (DL)
Köln (DK)
Arnsberg (LA)
Essen (LE)
Bielefield (LI)
Mönchengladbach (LN)
Paderborn (LP)
Stadtlohn (LS)
Hiederrhein (LV)
Dortmund (LW)
Geilenkirchen (NG)
Norvenich (ETNN)
Gutersloh (ETUO)
Bonn Hangelar (KB)
Allendorf Eder (FQ)
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15
Q

Which airfields are in the HSD Group?

A 
Weert (BD)
Eindhoven (EH)
Breda (GR)
Middelburg (MZ)
Rotterdam (RD) [Route via MASOS rather than HSD]
Hoeven (SE)
Uden (VK)
Bergen Op Zoom (WO)
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16
Q

What airfields are in the LTMA?

A 
ABBOT Group (SS/SC/GW)
Southend (MC)
City (LC)
Biggin Hill (KB)
Rochester (TO)
Gatwick (KK)
Heathrow (LL)
Northolt (WU)
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17
Q

What airfields are in the Midlands Group?

A 
Birmingham (BB)
Coventry (BE)
East Midlands (NX)
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18
Q

Which airfields are in the MTMA?

A

Manchester (CC)
Liverpool (GP)
Hawarden (NR)

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19
Q

What airfields are in the Paris TMA?

A 
Beavais (OB)
Le Bourget (PB)
Creil (PC)
Charles de Gaulle (PG)
Toussus-Le-Noble (PN)
Orly (PO)
Pontoise (PT)
Vaillacoublay (PV)
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20
Q

Which airfields are in the ScTMA/Scottish Group?

A 
Glasgow (PF)
Edinburgh (PH)
Prestwick (PK)
Dundee (PN)
Leuchars (QL)
Cumbernauld (PG)
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21
Q

What do LTMA airports require from an airline before accepting a diversion?

A

Notification and confirmation of a handling agent

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22
Q

Unless otherwise specified, how far can an a/c transferred from another LAC sector be turned on contact?

A

Within the confines of the offering sector

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23
Q

If the OLDI link between LAC and MAAS is down and a manual estimate for an a/c is passed between them, what must the first LAC sector instruct the a/c to do on contact?

A

Squawk Ident to confirm identity

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24
Q

What are the RVSM levels?

A

FL290-FL410

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25
Q

In what circumstances should LL i/b be restricted to 250kts or less?

A

When delays are greater than 5 mins

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26
Q

What is mandatory for the Tac to have on their radar display?

A

Separation monitor (on the main display, and not obscured at any time)
Full Flight Plan
Sector Scales

27
Q

What is optional/recommended that the Tac has on their radar display?

A

Mode S window

Vector Lines

28
Q

What is mandatory for the Planner to have on their radar display?

A

Offered Bay
Accepted Bay
Separation monitor (on the main display, and not obscured at any time)
Full Flight Plan

29
Q

What is optional/recommended that the Planner has on their radar display?

A

Mode S window
Vector Lines
Flight Messages Window

30
Q

What filters are Tacs allowed/not allowed to use?

A

“Remove Primaries” not allowed at sectors that receive traffic from external (i.e. non LAC/LTC) units (except DTY, LMS, S1&24 who may not remove primaries unless clutter impairs ability to control traffic)
“Remove all b/g tracks” not to be used by Tac. May use quicklook key
For vertically split sectors, Tac can set “remove b/g tracks outside…” 8,000ft below sector base and 4,000ft above
“Remove 7000” not recommended for sectors with low-level airspace

31
Q

What filters are Planners allowed/not allowed to use?

A

“Remove Primaries” not allowed at sectors that receive traffic from external (i.e. non LAC/LTC) units (except DTY, LMS, S1&24 who may not remove primaries unless clutter impairs ability to control traffic)

32
Q

What is mandatory for the Assistant to have on their radar display?

A 
Full Flight Plan
Flight Messages Window
Accepted Bay (using "Collapse Some" setting)
33
Q

What is recommended/optional for the Assistant to have on their radar display?

A

Flight Data Editor
Find Flight
Departure Bay
Separation Monitor

34
Q

What is the smallest amount of planned separation a Planner can accept a/c into the sector with, without consulting the Tac? What are the actions if planned separation is less than this?

A

15nm
If less, Tac must be informed of the actions of both a/c and Planner must use “Point out to Sector” for both a/c. Planner retains responsibility for monitoring until both a/c are incomm

35
Q

What is necessary for satisfactory 2 way speech communication for the purposes of silent radar handovers for Swanwick-Swanwick handovers?

A 
One or more of:
Direct access phone line
Short code dial via number pad
ATOTN (Air Traffic Operational Telephone Network) via phone pad
SIS auto-dial
Face to Face
36
Q

What is necessary for satisfactory 2 way speech communication for the purposes of silent radar handovers for Swanwick to non-Swanwick handovers?

A

Direct access telephone lines

37
Q

For TC inbounds co-ordinated above or below the agreed level, where is the transfer of control point? What are the conditions?

A

Coincident with transfer of comms, provided:
Following standard route on own nav, or on specified track on a radar heading
And each flight is individually co-ordinated with TC

38
Q

What are the conditions for a silent handover?

A

A/c is displaying a discrete SSR identity

A/c is within the anticipated displayed radar cover of the receiving sector

39
Q

What shall tacticals instruct pilots to do when terminating a radar service?

A

Change the SSR code to the code allocated by the receiving unit, or to select A7000

40
Q

What civil a/c do the 8000fpm max ROC/D not apply to?

A

A/c in emergency
A/c in receipt of avoiding action instructions to resolve an impending loss of standard separation, or to avert a potential collision

41
Q

What mil a/c do the 8000fpm max ROC/D not apply to?

A

A/c in emergency
A/c in receipt of avoiding action instructions to resolve an impending loss of standard separation, or to avert a potential collision
MOD a/c responding to Operating ADANA or air defence priority flight, where high rate is essential to outcome of mission
Research or test flying in accordance with notified procedures
Exercise activity notified and co-ordinated via an ACN

42
Q

When can the 8000fpm ROC/D restriction be lifted?

A

When MOD controllers determine there will be no likelyhood of interaction between their a/c and GAT inside CAS
Above FL195 within an allocated/tactical block of airspace where wo-ordination has been effected with civil to provide at least 2000ft vertical separation between the block and the ATS route above/below
A/c operating in active TRAs, MTAs and MDAs

43
Q

Unless otherwise stated, where is the first point a receiving controller can change a Mode A code?

A

At the transfer of control point

44
Q

What does code 0033 mean and when will it be displayed?

A

Parachute dropping - displayed from 5 mins before drop starts until parachutists are estimated to be on the ground

45
Q

What does code 0030 mean?

A

A/c is lost

46
Q

What is the separation standard for formation flights in RVSM airspace?

A

2000ft regardless of RVSM status

47
Q

For a non RVSM a/c transiting UK airspace from the Atlantic, what must LAC do before transfer to Maas?

A

Descend to FL270 or below

48
Q

What should controllers do if a pilot says they are “Negative RNAV”?

A

Provide navigational assistance

49
Q

What types of conditional routes are there?

A

CDR1: Permanently plannable during times published in UK AIP
CDR2: Plannable in accordance with conditions stated in daily conditional route availability message
CDR3: Route which is not route plannable per se but may be used tactically at the discretion of ATC

50
Q

Is it acceptable to deviate an air defence priority flight around civil traffic

A

Yes - civil sectors are to give priority to these flights without infringing flight safety, however it is accepted that some deviations may be necessary

51
Q

What are the separation standards against a radiating E-3 a/c?

A

Standard separation, except hawks w/30mm cannon - 3000ft if within 1nm

52
Q

When are “quiet hours”?

A

1700-0800 local, weekends and UK PHs

53
Q

What do NDS flights NOT have priority over?

A

A/c in emergency
Royal flights
Notified air defence priority flights
Special flights notified as having a higher priority

54
Q

What is the separation standard against a/c with the label HIHAZ?

A

2000ft above and below or 5nm laterally

55
Q

What are the levels of threat for disruptive passengers?

A

1 - Disruptive (suspicious or verbally threatening) behaviour
2 - Physically abusive behaviour
3 - Life-threatening behaviour
4 - Attempted or actual breach of flight crew compartment

56
Q

What are the Royal flight callsigns and what do they denote?

A

Kittyhawk - royal/VIP fixed wing flights by RAF units
Sparrowhawk - royal/VIP fixed wing flights by civil chartered a/c
Kitty - positioning flights by RAF units
Rainbow - royal/VIP flights by queen’s helicopter flight
Leopard - royal helicopter flight operated by Duke of York
R suffix denotes Royal Flight status

57
Q

What is the criteria for AMAN to apply?

A

0-5 mins delay, speeds as per MATS Pt2

6+ mins delay, 250kts or less

58
Q

What is the criteria for XMAN to apply?

A

Delay greater than 8 mins, issue speed reduction of used to M0.04 350nm from LL, subject workload

59
Q

Where can con trollers obtain EATs for MTMA arrivals?

A

Manchester Approach

60
Q

When are EATs issued?

A

When the landing delay is greater than 20 mins, but issued no more than 20 mins from the stack ETA

61
Q

When are OCTs issued? What is the exception?

A

Whenever ac is instructed to hold en-route, unless a/c destination is covered by AMAN, in which case the EAT will be given.

62
Q

What OCT should be given if it is not possible to make an accurate calculation?

A

Arbitrary OCT of 10-15 mins holding - not told that holding is indefinite

63
Q

What are the 4 levels of disruptive passengers?

A

1 - Disruptive (suspicious or verbally threatening) behaviour
2 - Physically abusive beaviour
3 - Life threatening behaviour
4 - Attempted or actual breach of the crew compartment

64
Q

When might the Mil enter a CFL of FL990

A
  • a/c has no mode C and is climbing/descending to a level. Once pilot is maintaining a level, reported level will be input
  • Tfc is released off mil frequency without agreement to maintain a specific level (eg general handling beneath an airway
  • a/c is operating at supersonic speeds and requires enhanced separation

CLN/DTY (19 decks)

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