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UK APS > Gareth's Question Bank > Flashcards

Gareth's Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?

A

(EU)2015/340

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2
Q

List 5 items that must appear on an ATCO’s licence

A
  1. State issuing the licence
  2. Title of the licence
  3. Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
  4. Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
  5. Competent authority
  6. Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
  7. Signature of issuing officer and date
  8. Seal or stamp of competent authority
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3
Q

Within what time period must an MOR be filed?

A

72 hours

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4
Q

What does an APS rating entitle the holder to provide?

A

To act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment

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5
Q

What endorsements are associated with the APS rating?

A

SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments

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6
Q

A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…

A

…non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment

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7
Q

A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…

A

…ground-controlled precision approaches with the use of precision approach radar equipment to aircraft on the
final approach to the runway;

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8
Q

For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?

A
  1. Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
  2. Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
  3. Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
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9
Q

State the two mechanisms available to the licencing authority if licencing action is required?

A

Suspension and Revocation

Suspension- To place licences, ratings or endorsements in abeyance, with conditions set.

Revocation- The act of withdrawing licences, ratings or endorsements

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10
Q

Which item are holder responsible for adding to the licence themselves?

A

Their signature

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11
Q

When will the APS rating be issued?

A

When the applicant has completed the relevant rating course

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12
Q

Which two additional items are required for a licence to be valid?

A

Medical certificate and a language proficiency endoresement if required

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13
Q

For how long is a medical certificate valid?

A

2 years under the age of 40

1 year at and over the age of 40

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14
Q

What is the purpose of investigations by the Safety Investigation Branch?

A

To improve aviation safety by determining the causes of air accidents and serious incidents and making safety recommendations intended to prevent recurrence

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15
Q

What does the SIB not do?

A

Apportion blame or liability

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16
Q

Define a non-precision instrument runway

A

An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight in approach.

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17
Q

Define a precision approach runway

A

An instrument runway intended for the operation of a/c using precision approach aids that meet the facility performance requirements defined in ICAO Annex 10 appropriate to the categories of ops

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18
Q

When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions

When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II

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19
Q

List the types of precision approach

A

PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)

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20
Q

List the types of non-precision approach

A

RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF

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21
Q

Define the ARP

A

Aerodrome Ref Point

The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.

Ususally the centre of the longest runway

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22
Q

Define runway

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

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23
Q

Define a manoeuvring area

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, excluding aprons

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24
Q

Define a movement area

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons

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25
Q

Define a non-instrument runway

A

A runway intended for the operation of a/c using visual approach procedures

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26
Q

Define a hotspot

A

A location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots/drivers is necessary.

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27
Q

Define the stopway

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the TORA prepared as a suitable area in which an a/c can be stopped in the case of abandoned take-off.

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28
Q

Define the clearway

A

A defined rectangular area under the control of the appropriate entity, selected or prepared as suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.

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29
Q

Define the TORA

A

Take-Off Run Available

The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. In most cases it will correspond to the length of the runway pavement

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30
Q

Define the TODA

A

Take-Off Distance Available

The TORA + the length of any associated clearway

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31
Q

Define the ASDA

A

Accelerated Stop Distance Available

TORA+ any associated Stopway

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32
Q

Define the LDA

A

Landing Distance Available

The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground landing of an a/c

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33
Q

What colour will aerodrome beacons be?

A

White flashes/ white and coloured flashes alternating

Land=green

Water=yellow

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34
Q

Where is the ARP normally located?

A

At the centrepoint of the longest runway

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35
Q

Define aerodrome elevation?

A

The elevation of the highest point of the landing area

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36
Q

Define landing area

A

That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.

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37
Q

Which two parts of the aerodrome make up the manoeuvring area?

A

Runways and taxiways

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38
Q

What effect would a displaced threshold have on a TORA?

A

No effect

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39
Q

What effect would a displaced threshold have on a TODA?

A

No effect

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40
Q

What effect would a displaced threshold have on a ASDA?

A

No effect

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41
Q

What effect would a displaced threshold have on a LDA?

A

Reduces the LDA

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42
Q

Why would there be a displaced threshold?

A

To allow for longer TORAs for departing a/c

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43
Q

Describe three types of pre-threshold markings and state meaning of each 1 of 2

A
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44
Q

Describe three types of pre-threshold markings and state meaning of each 1 of 2

A
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45
Q

How are taxiway centrelines delineated?

A
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46
Q

Describe a rapid exit taxiway

A

A taxiway connected at an acute angle and designed to allow landing a/c to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times

Intersection angle not less than 25 degrees, not greater than 45 degrees (30 degrees preferred)

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47
Q

How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?

A

900m

48
Q

What colour are threshold lights?

A

Green

49
Q

What colour are runway end lights?

A

Red

50
Q

What colour are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue

51
Q

What colour are taxiway centreline lights?

A

Green

52
Q

In what area are taxiway centreline lights not all green, and what colour would they be here?

A

Inside the OFZ or ILS critical/sensitive areas, these will be alternating green and yellow lights

53
Q

Describe coded runway centreline lighting towards the end of the runway

A

900m from the end the lights start to alternate red and white (for 600m), final 300m are solid red

54
Q

Describe the change in colour of runway edge lights towards the end of the runway

A

Lights turn yellow for the last 600m or 1/3 of the runway length whichever is less.

55
Q

Describe all possible PAPI indications

A
56
Q

What colour are a) Civilian and b) Military Aerodrome Identification Beacons?

A

a) Green

b) Red

57
Q

What is meant by ACN and PCN? (or ACR and PCR as it is in the presentations now)

A

ACR-Aircraft Classification Rating (or Number) -A number expressing the relative effect of an a/c load on a pavement for a specified sub-grade

PCR- Pavement Classification Rating (or Number)- A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations

58
Q

What is meant by a Strip?

A

An area enclosing a runway or any associated stopway

Reduces risk of damage to a/c that run off the runway

59
Q

What is meant by the Clear and Graded Area?

A

An area within the runway strip whose dimensions are determined by the function of the strip in which it lies

Only obstacles small and frangible are allowed in this area

60
Q

What is the maximum width of a)the strip, and b) the clear and graded area on a precision approach runway?

A

a) 300m (150m either side of centreline)

b) 210m (105m either side)

61
Q

How far before the threshold do the strip and cleared and graded area start on a precision approach runway?

A

both 60m

62
Q

What other protected surface is found at each end of the runway, where does this surface start from and how long is it?

A

Runway end Safety area

90m

63
Q

In which order will ops report the runway condition codes to ATC?

A

Starting from the lowest runway denominator

64
Q

In which order must ATC report them to pilots?

A

In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use

65
Q

A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?

A

Wet

66
Q

What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?

A

up to and including 3mm

67
Q

What does the number 6 indicate?

A

Dry runway

68
Q

What number will be assigned to a wet runway?

A

5

69
Q

What is meant by the term slippery wet?

A

A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded

70
Q

What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?

A

Standing Water

71
Q

List the 8 descriptors which constitute a contiminated runway?

A

Compacted Snow
Dry Snow
Frost
Ice
Slush
Standing Water
Wet Ice
Wet Snow

72
Q

What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?

A

25%

73
Q

List the descriptions of braking action which can be contained in pilots’ braking action reports

A

Good
Medium
Medium to poor
Poor
Less than poor

74
Q

When is braking action to be described as normal?

A

When the Condition Code is 5 or 6

75
Q

When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?

A

When they are worse than those being officially reported

76
Q

In addition to runway surface conditions, what else should be reported to pilots when runways are contiminated with snow and ice?

A

Runway de-icing activity that has taken place, such as chemical treatment or sanding

Snowbanks on the runway giving the distance left/right from the runway center line

Frozen ruts and ridges

77
Q

What name is given to NOTAMS which deal with contimination by snow?

A

SNOWTAMS

78
Q

Describe the procedures for surface condition reporting on grass runways?

A

One descriptor and code for the entire runway length (no thirds)

79
Q

At what rate are hold turns made?

A

Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)

80
Q

What is an EAT?

A

Expected Approach Time

The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing

81
Q

When shall an EAT be issued?

A

When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 10 mins or more (or as determined by authority)

82
Q

What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?

A

Normal;

CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 230kt

Turbulent

CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 280kt

83
Q

What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?

A

Normal- 240kt

Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80

84
Q

What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft

A

Normal- 265kt

Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80

85
Q

What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?

A

1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft

86
Q

Describe the standard holding procedure

A
87
Q

Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold

A
88
Q

Describe the Offset Entry procedure

A
89
Q

Describe the Direct Entry Procedure

A
90
Q

How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?

A

4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft

5 mins above this

91
Q

What purposes do, a) a limiting radial, and, b) a limiting DME perform?

A

To limit the length of the outbound leg

92
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?

A

<91kts IAS

93
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?

A

91kts-120kts IAS

94
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?

A

121kts- 140kts<90kts IAS

95
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?

A

141kts- 165kts IAS

96
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?

A

166kts-210kts IAS

97
Q

Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?

A

Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME

98
Q

What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?

A

The a/c’s Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight

99
Q

What is the strip marking for delay not determined?

A

Z

100
Q

What is the strip marking for delay for no delay expected?

A
101
Q
A
102
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot reports “TCAS RA”?

A

Acknowledge by saying “C/S roger”

103
Q

After a pilot has reported “TCAS RA” when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?

A

When the pilot reports “clear of conflict”

104
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?

A

Pass appropriate pressure setting

105
Q

Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed

106
Q

What is the difference between a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA?

A

TA=Traffic Advisory- Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action

RA= Resolution Advisory and Pilots will take action in response to these

107
Q

In which direction or plane are RAs given?

A

Vertical

108
Q

What reporting action is required following a RA?

A

MOR to be filed, must also file an AIRPROX if necessary

109
Q

What must the conflicting a/c have in order to trigger TCAS alert?

A

A transponder with A & C or S

110
Q

What instructions can be given to an a/c during an RA?

A

None

111
Q

What is meant by co-ordinated/complimentary RAs?

A

Transponders of both a/c will communicate with one another and agree on a course of action.

112
Q

Below what levels are a) increase descent RA’s, b) Descend RA’s and c) All RAs inhibited?

A

a) 1450ft AGL
b) 1100ft AGL
c) 1000ft AGL

113
Q

List two other forms of Airborne Collision

A

TAS and FLARM

114
Q
A
115
Q

What must be available between two controllers for one to give a radar handover to the other?

A
  1. Satisfactory two-way comms is available between controllers

UK APS (13 decks)

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