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LFB Policy Notes & FRU (2020) > FRU Course - Hazardous Materials > Flashcards

FRU Course - Hazardous Materials Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Hazard?

A

Something that has the POTENTIAL to harm you

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2
Q

What is Risk?

A

The LIKELIHOOD that a Hazard WILL harm you

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3
Q

A Hazardous Material can be defined as;
‘..solids, liquids, gases or vapours that can harm people, other living organisms or the environment’
What might they also be known as? (2)

A

Hazardous Substances or Dangerous Goods

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4
Q

What are the 3 things to consider when predicting the behaviour and impact of a substance?

A

1) its PHYSICAL PROPERTIES
2) its CHEMICAL PROPERTIES
3) its QUANTITY

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5
Q

There are 8 physical properties listed in the PowerPoint, can you give 5?

A

1) Gas or Vapour Density
2) Vapour Pressure
3) Specific Gravity (liquid density)
4) Water Solubility
5) Boiling Point
6) Expansion Ratio
7) Flash Point
8) Explosive / Flammable Limits

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6
Q

Which are more easily dispersed Gases and Vapours or Liquids and Solids?

A

Gases and Vapours as they are more mobile

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7
Q

Why is the density of a gas or Vapour a particularly important physical characteristic?

A

If it’s lighter than air it will fill a compartment from the top down, if heavier it will fill a compartment from the bottom up.

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8
Q

What is the average weight of air in atomic units?

A

29

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9
Q

What happens to a gas or Vapour when it’s temperature is increased?

A

It rises

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10
Q

There are 13 gases listed on the PowerPoint that are lighter than air. Can you name 7? (Clue - 4H MEDIC ANNA)

A 
Hydrogen (H2)
Helium (He)
Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN)
Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
Methane (CH4)
Ethylene (C2H4)
Diborane (B2H6)
Illuminating Gases (Coal gas mixture)
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
Acetylene (C2H2)
Neon (Ne)
Nitrogen (N2)
Ammonia (NH3)
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11
Q

What three things will effect a liquids rate of evaporation?

A

Surface Area, Wind Strength and Ambient Temperature

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12
Q

Will Liquids with a very low boiling point (eg Ethanol 78 degrees C) evaporate more or less quickly?

A

More quickly

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13
Q

The ‘FLASH POINT’ of

Petrol is -40 degrees C. What does this mean?

A

It is the MINIMUM TEMPERATURE at which a flammable liquid can form an ignitable mixture above its surface

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14
Q

What has happened when a substance spontaneously ignites?

A

It has reached it AUTOIGNITION TEMPERATURE

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15
Q

What does LEL stand for?

A

Lower Explosive Limit (the minimum % of fuel to air that will ignite eg. Acetylene 2.5%)

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16
Q

What does UEL stand for?

A

Upper Explosive Limit (the maximum % of fuel to air that will ignite eg. Acetylene 81%)

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17
Q

What does BLEVE stand for?

A

Boiling Liquids Expanding Vapour Explosion

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18
Q

What is the expansion ratio of petroleum: 1:270 1:37 1:1700 or 1:700?

A

1:37
LPG - 1:270
Liquid Oxygen - 1:700
Water - 1:1700

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19
Q

Why is venting a dangerous sign when a cylinder has direct flame impingement?

A

As the liquid inside the container evaporates it can no longer absorb heat and therefore control the temperature of the cylinder wall

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20
Q

When using the Hazmat ID what must you avoid doing with the ON switch?

A

Switching it off, logoff both the software and then windows via the touch screen

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21
Q

The GfG has how many sensors: 1, 3 or 5?

A

5

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22
Q

When using the Rados survey meter should the contamination probe be attached?

A

No as it will then read any ionising radiation in CPS (counts per second). It is better used to measure Gamma radiation

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23
Q

Where should the EPD (Electronic Personal Dosimeter) be worn?

A

On the fly front of your tunic (chest)

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24
Q

Should the battery compartment on the Hazmat ID be closed when in use?

A

No, only during cleaning or in otherwise wet conditions as it will damage the Foam

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25
Q

Should an individual being deployed with a Rados Survey Meter also be given a GfG?

A

No, each individual in a team should only be operating one item of equipment (although EPDs will be worn by everyone)

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26
Q

In which of the following circumstances should a GfG operator withdraw from the risk area:

1) The GfG goes into alarm because there is an Oxygen deficient atmosphere
2) The GfG goes into alarm because it has a fault
3) The GfG goes into alarm because it detects a toxic gas?

A

All of the above although a team in GTS may chose to continue in an oxygen deficient or rich atmosphere following a risk Assessment

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27
Q

Does an upside down h symbol indicate a milli or a micro sievert and why is this important?

A

A micro sievert, it is a far lower measure than a milli sievert (1000 micro sieverts = 1 milli sieverts and don’t forget that it is shown as an hourly dose /h)

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28
Q

What is the maximum radiation exposure that a Firefighter should be limited to in a 12 month period?

A

10 milli sieverts (the industry norm is 20) the only exception is a snatch rescue situation where the individuals are aware of the risk when a dose of up 100 milli sieverts is permissible

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29
Q

What item of equipment might be useful when trying to decide if a chemical reaction is occurring?

A

The TIC as many chemical reactions generate energy and may give off heat (exothermic - give off energy) or could even get cold (endothermic - absorbs energy)

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30
Q

The properties of hazardous substances fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 1 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On The Run Carries Money)?

A

1) Explosive Materials

Explosives have 7 levels of warning sign 1 being the worst and 1.6 being the least

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31
Q

When using the Portable Infrared Spectrometer (Hazmat ID) a display graph showing ‘A big bump, a little bump and the going up at the end’ indicates what?

A

Water. Beware the Hazmat ID will only see the water in a sample (water is a great dancer) this will mask any other substance.

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32
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 2 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On The Run Carries Money)?

A

Gases. Gases can cause ‘Simple’ asphyxiation or ‘Chemical’ asphyxiation (stops blood from absorbing Oxygen)

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33
Q

What does SA stand for?

A

Scientific Advisor. An SA can be requested to an incident by an IC or contacted by phone via control to give advice

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34
Q

Where does Asbestos come from?

A

It is a naturally occurring mineral that was mined

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35
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 3 (clue: Every Good FIRE Fighter On The Run Carries Money)?

A

3) Flammable Liquids

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36
Q

What does the PEAK function on the GfG allow the operator to do?

A

By pressing the Right hand button once the PEAK function indicated by an icon is set. This then keeps the highest reading taken on display. Useful when lowering the GfG in to an inaccessible area or where showing the reading to advisors outside the risk area

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37
Q

Before use at an incident it is essential that what is done with the GfG?

A

That it is Calibrated in clean air. Right button when indicated during start up sequence or centre and right button together later

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38
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 4 (clue ‘Every Good Fire FIGHTER On The Run Carries Money)?

A

4) Flammable Solids. Self reactive materials or readily combustible materials

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39
Q

Which types of radiation can the Electra Contamination Meter detect?

A

Alpha and Beta (though not the particles it’s designed to look for it can also detect Gamma)

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40
Q

What does CPS indicate on the radiation meters?

A

Counts Per Second of Ionising Radiation. The survey meter will only read CPS when the contamination probe is attached

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41
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 5 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter ON The Run Carries Money)?

A
  1. Oxidising Agents. ‘A chemical which whilst not combustible in itself may, by yielding oxygen, cause or contribute to the combustion of another material’
42
Q

When does the first alarm on an EPD sound?

A

At 100 micro Sieverts (upside down h) PER HOUR. Remember there are 1000 Micro Sieverts in a Milli sievert and 1000 Milli Sieverts in a Sievert.

43
Q

Which of the four following statements applies to Oxidising Agents:

1) They provide a source of Oxygen
2) They support the combustion of another substance
3) They can help start a fire
4) They can increase the ferocity of a fire

A

All 4

44
Q

Which of the following can a Hazmat ID (potable infrared Spectrometer) detect:

1) Gases
2) Elemental Compounds
3) Metals
4) Materials in concentrations of less than 10%
5) Samples dissolved or in water
6) Simple Ionic Salts

A

None

45
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 6 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On THE Run Carries Money)?

A
  1. Toxic. This Class includes 6.2 Biological Hazards
46
Q

A fully charged battery should allow the Hazmat ID to be used continuously for how many hours?

A

2

47
Q

Which type of high frequency radiation did Wilhelm Röntgen discover in 1895; Gamma Rays or X Rays?

A

X Rays. He famously took a slide of his wife’s hand. Paul Villard from Paris is credited with discovering Gamma Rays soon after

48
Q 
The Hazmat ID has almost:
A) 500
B) 5000
Or 
C) 50000
Different spectra in its library?
A

B) 5000 (4997 including 3700 common lab chemicals, 10 chemical warfare agents, 31 Explosives and 40 drug precursors) Fire Service Personnel are not permitted to add to this library

49
Q

What are 3 main types of asbestos?

A

White (Chrysotile) cement etc. Least harmful
Brown (Amosite) insulating boards etc
Blue (Crocidolite) strongest. Most harmful

50
Q

Why might the use of 2 devices to detect/measure the same materials be advisable at an incident?

A

Confirmation of results

51
Q

The GfG will operate for how many hours when fully charged?

A

12

52
Q

When getting the Electra Contamination Meter to work what must you do before switching it on and why?

A

Put it together as it may give you a shock

53
Q

What is the Electra Contamination Meters default setting?

A

Alpha and Beta

54
Q

As a GTS wearer would you remove your boots prior to bagging the suit following decontamination or bag them with the suit?

A

Normally remove them following decontamination as these are reused

55
Q

If the Electra Contamination Meter becomes contaminated in the warm or hot zone would you clean it?

A

No, leave it in the warm zone pending advice

56
Q

Which of the following cannot be analysed using the Hazmat ID:

1) Liquids
2) Vapours
3) Gels
4) Solids
5) Pastes?

A

2) Vapours

57
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 7 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On The RUN Carries Money)?

A

7) Radiation. Don’t forget that the EPD is worn on the fly front of your tunic not put in a pocket

58
Q

What must be recorded on the rear of the GTS wearers tally prior to entry in a suspected radiation incident?

A

The EPD Dose reading

59
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 8 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On The Run CARRIES Money)?

A

8) Corrosive Materials. These will include Acids, Alkalies, some oxidising agents, very hot substances and Cryogenic Liquids

60
Q

How can we confirm that a Substance is an Acid, an Alkali or Neutral?

A

By using PH (Litmus) paper to sample. Don’t forget to dampen the paper with water first when sampling a powder

61
Q

Why is it important to know how to use the MUTE function on the Electra Contamination Meter?

A

So that a contaminated individual does not become alarmed by the rapid clicking noise it emits when it detects a radioactive contaminant

62
Q

Alpha Particles are easily shielded (a piece of paper will do the job) but when do they become deadly?

A

When ingested the become like a cannon ball. Smashing around inside a body, damaging every cell that they come into contact with and unable to escape.

63
Q

Which are bigger Alpha or Beta Particles?

A

Alpha. 7500 times bigger. If an alpha particle is a Cannon Ball a Beta Particles is a bullet. The radiation emitted travels further but can be stopped by clothing or flesh. But it also becomes deadly when ingested

64
Q

What needs to be removed prior to using the Electra Contamination Meter?

A

The plastic and metal cover from the probe. Be very careful not to allow contact with the contaminant when in use

65
Q

The properties of hazardous substances (chemicals) fall into 9 identified UN classes. Which is class 9 (clue ‘Every Good Fire Fighter On The Run Carries MONEY)?

A

9) Miscellaneous. This includes any substance not covered by the other 8 categories but deemed harmful. They include the substances found on ‘The Red List’ good examples being Asbestos and Mercury.

66
Q

The PH scale is 1 to 14. 1-6 Acidic 7 Neutral 8-14 Alkali. What Colour denotes an Acid?

A

Red

67
Q

What does LD50 stand for?

A

Lethal Dose 50%. Class 6 Toxic Materials have their toxicity measured in LD50. That is the lethal dose required to kill 50% of a population of test animals. The lower the LD50 the more toxic the substance.

68
Q

’An infrared light is directed at a substance that is placed on an industrial diamond. The molecular bonds of the substance are stretched which makes them move (dance) and the alterations in the infrared light are then reflected on to an IR detector. That pattern is then compared to a library of results to find a match. The substance is effectively identified by how it dances.’
The operation of which item of equipment has just been described in very loose terms!?

A

The Hazmat ID

69
Q

The 3 preset levels of Alarm on the EPD are what?

A

1) 100 micro(h upside down) Sieverts per hour
2) 5 milli sieverts (half the annual dosage
3) 100 milli sieverts (snatch rescue one off dosage)

70
Q

What does X denote on an orange ADR/HIN plate (European Dangerous goods load Plate on a lorry etc)?

A

Prohibition on the use of Water. Note the doubling of a number on such a plate also indicates an intensified primary risk. Eg 33 would mean an intensified class 3 Flammable Liquid Fire Risk. Any further numbers are other secondary risks

71
Q

What does OSU stand for?

A

Operational Support Unit

72
Q

Who is responsible for the disposal of bagged contaminated GTS suits post incident?

A

The on site responsible person. Suits are double bagged, swans necked and cable tied. The IC may make other arrangements if the responsible person is unlikely to dispose of contaminated kit correctly

73
Q

The PH scale is 1 to 14. 1-6 Acidic 7 Neutral 8-14 Alkali. What Colour denotes Neutral?

A

Green (water)

74
Q

What colour is oxidising paper and what happens if reacts to an oxidising agent during sampling?

A

White, a black line will appear

75
Q

What might a Hughes shower also be known as?

A

An MD4

76
Q

What is the difference between a sealed and an unsealed radiation source?

A

A sealed source is permanently encased in a capsule, normally a piece of metal, to prevent any possible leakage but allowing it to emit ionising radiation in a more controlled manner. An unsealed source is loose and therefore more likely to cause contamination.

77
Q

What does ‘Half life’ mean?

A

The time that it takes for one half of the atoms in a radioactive isotope to disintegrate. Depending on the isotope this can range from microseconds to billions of years. As it decays the source becomes weaker and therefore an important consideration

78
Q

The PH scale is 1 to 14. 1-6 Acidic 7 Neutral 8-14 Alkali. What Colour denotes an Alkali?

A

Blue

79
Q

What is an OKO-TEC boom and where can it be found?

A

A German 2 Tube Boom for on land or in water. The bottom larger tube is filled with water and the upper smaller tube filled with air. It comes in 50m lengths and is found on the OSU

80
Q

Which 2 Gases do the GfG’s on the DIM vehicles detect which the GfGs carried on the FRU’a don’t?

A

Chlorine and Hydrogen Cyanide (which smells like almonds)

81
Q

What does RRT stand for?

A

Rapid Response Team (CBRNE)

82
Q

Which piece of equipment has a green display, alarms that sound at 103 db and takes 6 hours to charge?

A

The GfG

83
Q

What might Soda Ash/Sodium Carbonate be used for?

A

Neutralising an Acid (its an Alkali with a PH of 11)

84
Q

During the DAM and brush method of Wet decontamination what indicates that the DAM has 25 litres of water in it?

A

A small metal spur protruding from the foot of the tray?

85
Q

What are the 3 ways of limiting the effects of ionising radiation?

A

Time
Distance
Shielding

86
Q

Why would a 10% increase in temperature be a concern where a chemical reaction is occurring?

A

A 10% rise in temperature will often Double the rate of that reaction

87
Q

When using the Hazmat ID what is the minimum level of ‘similarity’ worth considering (1 being a match)?

A

0.8 (an 80% match)

88
Q

What does ALARP stand for?

A

It’s a risk management principle and it stands for ‘As Low As Reasonably Practicable’

89
Q

What does RPA and RPS stand for?

A

Radiation Protection Advisor (Ben) who can be requested by the Radiation Protection Supervisor (Usually an SM/HMEPO)

90
Q

What does the E in CBRNE stand for (yes there is an E now)?

A

Chemical Biological Radiological Nuclear and EXPLOSIVE

91
Q

What is the difference between a DETONATION and a DEFLAGRATION?

A

Energy released in a Detonation is supersonic (faster than the speed of sound). Energy released in a Deflagration travels slower and pushes air before it, setting things alight by heat transfer (more of a flash)

92
Q

Why might large amounts of ice or ice baths be a concern at a property?

A

They can be a sign of attempts to slow/stabilise the chemical reactions of volatile substances. Eg during the manufacture of explosives

93
Q

What gas can be produced by a fire involving chlorine?

A

Phosgene Gas. A respiratory nightmare levels as low 2-3 ppm (parts per million) will cause eye and throat irritation. 50ppm and above can be fatal

94
Q

How long will the display on the Electra Contamination Meter remain illuminated following 1 press of the button?

A

30 seconds

95
Q

What must be run prior to analysis on the Hazmat ID?

A

Performance Validation (Advanced Features, Diagnostics, Performance Validation)

96
Q

What is a ‘notifiable’ amount of fuel or oil entering the drainage system:
A) 25 Litres
B) 250 Litres
C) 500 kg?

A

A) 25 Litres

It’s 250 Litres of food products, beverages or Organics and 500 kg of Rubbish

97
Q

When giving a description of a substance being sampled which of the following should be included:

1) Solid, Liquid, Paste, Gel or Particle
2) Colour
3) Amount (visual references)
4) Powder, Granular, Course, Fine
5) Contained or Loose (Lid on/off)
6) Viscosity?

A

All of the above

98
Q

How should questions be framed when communicating with GTS wearers?

A

They should be closed questions (requiring just a yes or no answer) allowing a thumbs up/down answer

99
Q

Which of the following is a government body that deals with more complex CBRNE incidents the Defence Science Technology Lab (DSTL) and Atomic Weapons Establishment (AWE)?

A

Both

100
Q

Who’s just a shit Paul Weller?

A

Geeny

101
Q

What must you be aware of and observe when taking or testing samples?

A

Forensics

LFB Policy Notes & FRU (2020) (33 decks)

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