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Nervous Nellies > from_flashcardlet_20140214023501 > Flashcards

from_flashcardlet_20140214023501

1
Q

“Blackstone’s definition.” Rules of civil conduct commanding what is right and prohibiting what is wrong. A governmental rule prescribing conduct / caring out a penalty for violation.

A

law

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2
Q

bodies of law

A

Criminal Law / Civil Law

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3
Q

Related to crimes and punishment of wrong doers.Laws dealing with offenses against society

A

criminal law

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4
Q

legal proceedings concerned with the rights of public citizens.Laws dealing with the enforcement or protection of private rights..Examples: Tort Law Contract Law

A

civil law

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5
Q

Criminal offense punishable by confinement in prison or by death. Example: Murder Bank Robbery

A

felony

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6
Q

Criminal offense which is neither treason nor a felony. Example: Speeding ticket Running a stop sign.

A

misdemeanor

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7
Q

bending or breaking the law

A

tort law

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8
Q

a private or civil wrong, either intentional or caused by negligence, for which there may be action for damages / private wrong for which damages might be recovered

A

tort

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9
Q

basis for tort liability

A

Intentional / Negligence/ Strict Liability)

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10
Q

“Failure to exercise ordinary care.”

A

negligence

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11
Q

failing to do something which a reasonable and prudent person would do under ordinary circumstance.

A

act of omission

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12
Q

doing something which a reasonable and prudent person would not do under ordinary circumstance.

A

act of commision

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13
Q

liability for injury regardless of negligence or intent.

A

strict liability

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14
Q

when seller is liable for any and all defective or hazardous products which threaten a consumer’s personal safety.

A

product liablility

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15
Q

Improper or negligent professional act by a professional person. Example: poor embalming. or the doctor leaves instrument in abdominal cavity during or after surgery.

A

malpractice

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16
Q

Related to making and executing contracts.Laws dealing with making contacts.

A

contract law

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17
Q

Rules of conduct prescribed by a government and its agencies to regulate business transactionsRules of conduct for the performance of business transactions

A

business law

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18
Q

Rules of conduct prescribed by a government and its agencies, in regulating transactions related to Real and Personal property.

A

property law

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19
Q

Land and objects permanently attached to land. Real Estate.Land, Building, Fences, Trees, etc.

A

real property

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20
Q

All property which is not real property.Cars, Furniture, Jewelry, Insurance, Stocks, Bonds, etc.

A

personal property

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21
Q

sources of US law

A

o Common Law o Constitutional Lawo Statuary Lawo Police Powero Administrative Lawo Ordinanceso Case Lawo Stare Decisis

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22
Q

The Pyramid of Law

A

Stare DecisisCase LawOrdinancesAdministrative LawPolice PowerStatutory LawConstitutional LawCommon Law

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23
Q
  1. customs which have become recognized by the courts as binding on the community. 2. Forms the historical foundation of U.S. Law. 3. Based on human experience. “Common good” of all people(Members of Society). 4. Rooted in English and early colonial law. “If it makes sense,it must be good law.”Constitutional Law - written document containing fundamental principles of government. Power and duties of a government. Guarantees Rights of the people - first 10 amendments of the constitution. “Law of the land.” Example: Federal and individual state constitutions
A

common law

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24
Q

enacted by legislative bodies.

A

statutory law

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25
Q

Legislative bodies include Federal, State and Local Governments

A

statutes

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26
Q

enacted by the U. S. Congress

A

federal statutes

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27
Q

enacted by individual state legislatures

A

state statutes

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28
Q

inherent power of every government to make reasonable laws to protect the safety, health, morals, and general welfare of its citizens. Example: Mortuary law Licensure Health standards Business operations

A

police power

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29
Q

Body of law created by federal and state administrative agencies to implement their powers and duties in the form of rules, regulations, orders, and decisions. Example: OSHA regulations FTC funeral rule State board rules and regulations

A

administrative law

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30
Q

Appointed governmental body charged with the implementing particular legislation.Examples: Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)Federal Trade Commission (FTC)Texas Funeral Service Commission (TFSC)

A

administrative agencies

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31
Q

Laws enacted by local municipalities, villages, towns or city.Example: City of Houston has parking ordinances / No Smoking In Public Buildings.

A

ordinances

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32
Q

Court decisions that establish precedent principles. Laws based on a court’s interpretation of federal, state, and local laws. Determines “constitutionality” of a law.

A

case law

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33
Q

Principle that decisions of a court should serve as guide or precedent and control the decision of a similar case in the future. Reliance on authority of established law “like cases are decided in like manner”. Applicable to mortuary law and court cases.

A

Stare Decisis (Decision Stands)

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34
Q

authority of a court to hear a case. Related to the subject matter and person(s) involved in a court case. Function of the courts – to interpret & apply law to a given situation.

A

jurisdiction

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35
Q

Have exclusive jurisdiction over – bankruptcy, claims against USA, Patent & Copy Right Cases.

A

federal courts

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36
Q

Trial courts of the federal court system. Largest class of federal courts / Deal only with criminal cases involving violation of federal law. Or civil suits that meet specified criteria. Cases brought by US Govt., Cases arising under U.S. Constitution / Federal Laws/Treaties

A

federal district courts

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37
Q

Offense which is injurious to society as a whole / punishable offense against society.

A

Crime

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38
Q

Deliberate and intentional action to cause harm

A

Intentional

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39
Q

There are 12 federal judicial districts. Courts that hear appeals in the federal court system. Hears appeals from cases originating in federal district courts. Hears appeals from federal administrative agencies and departments within its circuit. Decision have precedence over lower courts.

A

Federal Circuit Court of Appeals

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40
Q

o Highest court in the United States.o Court of original jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors, public ministers, consuls, and cases in which a state is a party.o As well as cases appealed from federal courts of appeal.Supreme decision over all lower courts

A

U.S. Supreme Court

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41
Q

issued by Supreme Courto Order to produce the record of a case.o Only such cases will be heard by the U. S. Supreme Court

A

Writ of Certiorari

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42
Q

Federal trial courts with limited jurisdiction. Limited by laws of Congress creating them. Examples: Bankruptcy Court / Tax Court / Court of International Trade U.S. Court of Federal Claims (against the courts).

A

Special Courts

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43
Q

Inferior courts - Courts of original general jurisdiction - Appellate courts - Special courts (State & City)

A

State Courts

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44
Q

Trial courts that hear only cases involving minor criminal offenses and disputes between citizens.Examples: District, Magistrate, County ,Municipal (city) ,Small claims, Justice, and Tax Courts.

A

Inferior Courts

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45
Q

Court in which a case is first heard. Maintain an official record of all proceedings. Broad jurisdiction over disputes between two or more parties. Criminal offenses against the state. This Court: Hear witnesses Receive evidence Try a case Examples: Trial Court, Court of Record, Circuit Court, District Court, and Superior Court

A

Court of Original General Jurisdiction (State)

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46
Q

usually in larger cities.Courts hearing cases appealed from lower state courtsExamples: Court of Appeals State Supreme Court

A

Appellate Courts (State)

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47
Q

Courts with limited jurisdictionExamples: Probate Court Juvenile Courts Domestic Court

A

Special Courts (State)

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48
Q

Laws specifying how actions are filed & that trial procedure to follow

A

. Procedural Laws

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49
Q

Person Licensed to represent others in court.

A

attorney/ lawyer

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50
Q

written request initiating a civil suit

A

complaint or petition

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51
Q

a notice of complaint given to a defendant defining the complaint and a time frame in which a response, or answer, must be filed. Serves the purpose of conferring personal jurisdiction over defendant. Also known as a process

A

summons

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52
Q

The response of the defendant to a complaint. Also known as a motion.

A

answer

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53
Q

The decision of the court. Favor of the Plaintiff or Defendant

A

judgement

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54
Q

Carrying out of completion of some task

A

execution

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55
Q

Individual who initiates a civil action

A

plaintiff

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56
Q

Person against whom legal action is brought

A

defendant

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57
Q

agreement between two or more competent persons (parties) which is enforceable by law.

A

contract

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58
Q

Classifications of contracts: Based on:

A

formation / performance / enforceability

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59
Q

parties express their intentions, either orally or in writing, at the time of the agreement.

A

express contract

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60
Q

terms of the contract are implied by acts or conducts of the parties.In fact - example: “first call.”

A

implied contractsalso called contract implied in fact

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61
Q

those with a special form or produced in a certain way.Contract “under seal.”Today most contracts are these kindExample: Real Estate ContractsNegotiable InstrumentsFuneral Contract

A

formal contracts

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62
Q
  • any contract which is not a formal contract
A

simple contract

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63
Q
  • calls for an act in consideration for a promise.One promise is given in exchange for an act.you find my lost dog; I pay you $100
A

unilateral contract

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64
Q

mutual exchange of promises.Exchange a promise for a promise.You agree to buy my car for $5,000. Car is yours when you give me the money.Most contracts are bilateral contracts.

A

bilateral contract

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65
Q

terms of the contract have not been completely executed or fulfilled by the parties.

A

executory contracts

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66
Q
  • terms have been fulfilled by the parties
A

executed contracts

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67
Q

contract enforceable by court.

A

valid contract

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68
Q

Agreement with no legal effect. Example: contract to rob a bank.

A

void agreementalso called a void contract

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69
Q

Contract which would be an enforcement agreement, but due to circumstances, may be set aside by one of the parties. Example: party to a contract is declared “mentally incompetent” / party contracts with a minor / minor contracts with anotherminor

A

voidable contract

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70
Q

Agreement which is not in the form required by law, but can be made so by the parties.- a contract that is not currently binding Example: simple contract made into a formal contract.

A

unenforceable contract

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71
Q

The science or study of social groups; the study of forms of social groups or modes of an organization, the processes which tend to maintain or change these forms of organizations and the relations between groups.

A

sociology

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72
Q

A systematic effort to develop general principles about a particular subject matter, based on actual observation and stated in a form that can be tested by any competent person…. This is done in sociology.

A

science

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73
Q

Science is usually divided into two main branches. What are they?

A

Natural science - anatomy, biology, chemistry, etc.Social Sciences - pyschology, sociology, etc.

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74
Q

Psychology vs. Sociology(explain the one difference we need to remember)

A

Psychology is focused more on individuals.Sociology is focused more on groups.

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75
Q

The funeral director’s responsibility

A

Funeral directors must understand the cultural requirements of their client families. Each family is unique with many of their needs and wants based on the culture of the family.

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76
Q

When does the learning process begin?

A

at birth

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77
Q

Consists of abstract patterns (rules, ideas, and beliefs) shared by members of society and for living and dying, which are learned directly or indirectly.

A

culture

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78
Q

learned by someone teaching (school is a form)

A

direct learning

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79
Q

items that are learned through observation

A

indirect learning

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80
Q

According to sociologist, ________ is one of the major carriers of culture.

A

language

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81
Q

a division, or smaller identifiable unit of a culture, connected to that culture by common traits, having unique traits to itself.

A

subculture

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82
Q

or shared ideas about desirable goals

A

values

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83
Q

After language, one distinguishing aspect of culture is?

A

values

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84
Q

The various social values that are learned by individuals is referred to as?

A

enculturation or socialization.

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85
Q

The method by which the social values are internalized (learned).

A

enculturation (Socialization)

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86
Q

subculture may be based upon:

A

Geographic location Religious beliefs Ethnic groups Language

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87
Q

Culture and subculture determine:

A

customstaboomoreslaws

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88
Q

Must behavior; the basic important patterns of ideas and acts of a people but one which is enforced by those governing.

A

mores

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89
Q

These are procedures involving death that are required not necessarily by a culture, but by those who govern.

A

laws

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90
Q

an event which allows those who have something in common with each other to deal with one another in regard to that which they share

A

social function

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91
Q

Social behavior as dictated by the traditions of the people.– developed by enculturation.

A

customs

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92
Q

Must-behavior which dictates the individual must abstain from certain acts dealing with death

A

taboos

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93
Q

Rites with the human body not present.

A

memorial service

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94
Q

Rites with the body present

A

funeral

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95
Q

Any event performed in a solemn and prescribed manner.

A

rite

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96
Q

An all inclusive term used to encompass all funerals and/or memorial services

A

funeral rite

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97
Q

Ideas and beliefs or, and for, the living and dying, which are identical in all cultures.

A

cultural universal

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98
Q

Why is the funeral rite considered cultural universal?

A

because some type of a response to death can be found in all cultures

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99
Q

a funeral rite that is adjusted to the needs and wants of those directly involved. One which has been altered to suit the trends of the time.

A

adaptive funeral rite

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100
Q

cultural universal includes:

A
  1. Announcement of the death. 2. Some type of care for the dead. 3. A method of disposition. 4. Memorialization. 5. Ceremony or ritual.
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101
Q

a funeral rite that follows a prescribed ritual or ceremony which may be dictated either by religious belief or social custom.

A

traditional funeral rite

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102
Q

a funeral rite that is in essence devoid of religious connotation

A

humanistic funeral rite

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103
Q

a funeral rite which may be construed as being identifiable with a pre-literate society (American Indians

A

primitive funeral rite

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104
Q

any disposition of a human remains which is completely devoid of any form of funeral rite at the time of disposition

A

immediate disposition

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105
Q

Behaviors which are constructed as somewhat less compulsive than mores of the same society, and do not call for a strong reaction from the society if violated.Example is pulling to side of the road and taking off your hat when a procession passes.

A

folkways

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106
Q

instrumental action dealing with death is expressional, it is charged with symbolic content expressing among other things, attitudes of the participants, possible onlookers.

A

ceremony

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107
Q

specified method of procedure

A

rules

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108
Q

of or relating to geography concerning the topography of a specific region.

A

geographic

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109
Q

having or showing belief in and reverence for God or a deity, especially as it is reflected in the practice of religion: implies adherence to religion in both belief / practice.

A

religious

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110
Q

basic division or groups of mankind, distinguished by customs, characteristics of race, derived from the Greek ethos meaning “people”.

A

ethnic

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111
Q

Begins at the arrangement conference and ends at the graveside

A

Sociology

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112
Q

Earliest Ethnic Group: tribes kinship – based ethnic group; andCountry non-kinship – based ethnic groups, evolution of the state.

A

–

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113
Q

Begins at the time of death and ends at one’s acceptance of death

A

Psychology

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114
Q

Social behavior as dictated by the tradition of the people in that culture.

A

customs

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115
Q

Consists of abstract patterns (rules, ideas, and beliefs) shared by members of society and for living and dying, which are learned directly or indirectly.

A

culture

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116
Q

a division, or smaller identifiable unit of a culture, connected to that culture by common traits, having unique traits to itself.

A

subcultures

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117
Q

things to which socially created meaning is given

A

symbols

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118
Q

Most members of a culture and subculture develop pride in their cultural and subculture beliefs and customs, but some begin to think that their culture is superior to all others. This is called

A

ethnocentrism

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119
Q

As a funeral director, you need to stay under the idea of ,________ that is, keep the emotional idea that all cultures are equal and pertinent!

A

cultural relativism

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120
Q

Examples of some cultural universals are

A

establishment of families (marriage), establishment of rules and regulations for orderly living (government), and YES, the responses to death of a member of their culture (funeral rites).

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121
Q

the father rules the family; power is passed to the oldest male child

A

Patriarchal

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122
Q

the mother rules the family

A

Matriarchal

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123
Q

the male and female have equal rights, duties, and governing power.

A

Equalitarian

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124
Q

a household or family unit includes father and mother, all their children (except married daughters), their son’s wives and children (except married daughters).

A

extended (joint) family

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125
Q

Characteristics of a joint family

A

 Agriculturally based. Economically self-sufficient unit (usually grow own food) Patriarchal form of government. Restricted mobility. (Usually due to duties of the farm) Religious, usually begin religion by teaching children bible stories Tend to be Conservative.

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126
Q

membership within the household includes one man, one woman and their children, if any.

A

Nuclear family

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127
Q

Characteristics of a nuclear family

A

May be patriarchal, matriarchal, or equalitarian. In past, the nuclear family was patriarchal with one income earner - father. Today, nuclear family is equalitarian and a two-income family. Economics is structured around the total income unit. Religion is usually institutional based. Highly mobile (will move if another area offers better opportunities) More liberal in thought, dress, and actions

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128
Q

cluster of two or more nuclear families united by social bonds of security, protection and help. A neighborhood, apartment complex.

A

Modified extended family

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129
Q

Characteristics of a modified extended family:

A

Begins with a nuclear family which then develops kinships and/or friendship with other nuclear families for security, protection, or help.

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130
Q

membership consists of one adult, either male or female and his/her children.

A

Single parent family

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131
Q

membership consists of one male and one female and the children from their previous marriages, and may include children from the present marriage.

A

Blended family

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132
Q

shared ideas about desirable goals

A

values

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133
Q

study of group behavior patterns

A

sociology

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134
Q

study of individual behavior patterns

A

psychology

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135
Q

Of the following, which one is a social behaviorcustoms, taboos, mores, laws, folkways

A

customs

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136
Q

Why do we embalm?

A

“We embalm to disinfect the body and protect the living.”

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137
Q

What is embalming?

A

o EM - in, or abouto Balm - resinous substance or balsamic agents.

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138
Q

embalming is a process of chemically treating the dead human body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to retard (slow down) organic decomposition, and to restore an acceptable physical appearance.

A

non-legal definition of embalming

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139
Q

The process of disinfecting, temporary preserving and restoring the dead human body by the injection into the arteries, a suitable amount of a proper chemical. –is based upon fluid distribution - movement of arterial fluid from point of injection to the capillaries.

A

vascular embalming

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140
Q

We inject into the arteries because

A

the fluid goes away from the heart The chemical is arterial fluid 16.oz - one gallon/50 lbs. of body weight.

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141
Q

movement of arterial fluid from point of injection to the capillaries.

A

fluid distribution

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142
Q

movement of arterial fluid through the capillaries to the tissues from intravascular to extravascular (inside to outside)

A

fluid diffusion

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143
Q

retain the fluid within the body.

A

retention

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144
Q

a. Direct treatment -other than vascular embalming of the content of the body cavities and the lumen of the hollow viscera.

A

cavity embalming

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145
Q

cavity embalming Accomplished by two major steps:

A

Aspiration of the contents of the cavities and viscera. andThe injection of a suitable amount of a proper chemical

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146
Q

maximum amount of disinfecting and preservation with the minimum amount of fluid.

A

undiluted cavity fluid

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147
Q

A rule of thumb on a normal case, for undiluted cavity fluid is

A

16 ounces in the thoracic cavity and 16 ounces in the abdominal cavity.

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148
Q

: injection of embalming chemicals directly into tissues through the use of needle, syringe, Trocar.The disinfecting and temporary preservation of a local area by the subcuticular injection of a suitable chemical.

A

hyperdermic embalming

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149
Q

types of disinfecting

A
  1. Primary disinfecting 2. Concurrent disinfecting 3. Terminal disinfecting
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150
Q

• The disinfecting and temporary preservation of a local area by the external application of a compress of a suitable material. This is a supplement to vascular and arterial embalming

A

Surface (pack or absorption) Embalming:

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151
Q

reasons for embalming

A
    • The primary reason (need) we embalm - To disinfect. The destruction or inhibiting of pathogenic bacteria and their products in or on the body.2. * Temporary preservation - Treating the dead human body chemically so as to inhibit (slow down) decomposition.3. * Restoration - The care of the deceased to recreate natural form and color.
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152
Q

disinfecting carried out prior to the embalming process. Washing the body.

A

primary disinfecting

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153
Q

disinfecting carried out during the embalming process.

A

concurrent disinfecting

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154
Q

disinfecting and decontamination measures after the preparation of the remains. Also include cleaning the prep room and instruments, etc. Also, the re washing of the body.

A

terminal disinfecting

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155
Q

credited with being the father of embalming

A

Dr. Frederick Ruysch

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156
Q

Father of modern US embalming / invented hand pump / disaster pouch

A

Dr. Thomas Holmes

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157
Q

wrote the “History of Embalming” in French.

A

Jean Gannal

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158
Q

translated Gannal’s book to English.—1st to realize value of embalming from disease standpoint— performed research of bubonic plaque while at Penn State

A

Dr. Richard Harlan

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159
Q

was the first to produce formaldehyde (HCHO) Chemical formula - HCHO. Primary formula for embalming, free state gas.

A

• August Wilhelm vonHofman

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160
Q

NOTES

A

• Always show respect to the deceased.• Always maintain the highest standards.

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161
Q

PREP ROOM

A

o Limit admission to the preparation room during preparation.o Licensed funeral service professional and registered trainees.o Those authorized by law / authorized by familyAuthorized persons can be in the prep room when no embalming.o Maintenance employees.o Hairdresser, cosmetologist, etc.o Staff members for dressing and casketing remains.

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162
Q

Identify and secure the prep room

A

• Place a sign on the preparation room door indicating private; authorized persons only.• State of Texas indicates that it must be private and have no general passageway through it.• Keep the door locked.

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163
Q

instruct and maintain the highest standards

A

• Keep the body covered as practical - genital area always.• Guard against loose talk and remarks.• Repeat nothing outside the preparation room.• Disclose no confidential facts as to conditions, deformities or diseases causing death.

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164
Q

authorization to embalm

A

Not a state law to embalm. 1. Verbal permission. (Do we have your permission to embalm?) 2. Written permission.

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165
Q

Identification procedures

A

• Personal effects - inventory a must. (House Call)• Proper remains - the body itself - identify by the family - especially a body to be cremated.• Make sure you remove jewelry that the family has requested after the funeral service.• There may be cases that you need to inform authorities, police, ME, Coroner’s office (JP is used in Texas), if something is found. It is your duty to follow OSHA requirements and inform all employees to follow required procedures and train employees. Help protect your employees.

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166
Q

embalming report

A

complete an embalming report for every case, on which you perform any embalming procedure. This is your documentation as to the embalming procedure you have performed. (see pages 13-17 for example forms).

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167
Q

Vascular embalming is based upon

A

Fluid distributionFluid diffusionRetention

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168
Q

when you decrease the angle between the body parts UPWARDTO BRING TO TO SHOW OR FLEX YOUR MUSCLES

A

flexion

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169
Q

to increase the angle between two body parts.LEG OUTWARDRAISING HEAD UP TOWARD SKY

A

extension

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170
Q

move a body part away from the medium plane.DOING JUMPING JACKSABDUCT A CHILD AWAY FROM THEIR PARENTS

A

abduction

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171
Q

to move a body part toward the medium plane. BRINGING SOMETHING CLOSER IN

A

aduction

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172
Q

to turn the palm of the hand posteriorly (out of anatomical position). pour soup out

A

pronation

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173
Q

to turn anteriorly (back to anatomical position). hold soup up

A

supination

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174
Q
  • to turn outward or inside out
A

eversion

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175
Q

to draw inward or outside in. MOST TIME THIS IS HOW YOU WILL TWIST YOUR ANKLE

A

inversion

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176
Q

the feet are initially positioned how?

A

inverted

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177
Q

movement such that the distal end of a bone describes a circle and the shaft describes a cone.THIRD BASE COACH AS HE WAVES IN A RUNNER FROM SECOND BASE TO TRY TO SCORE A RUN

A

circumduction

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178
Q
  • to close
A

constriction

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179
Q

muscle that expands an organ, vessel, or orifice

A

dilator

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180
Q

are called sphincter and all will constrict.

A

circular shaped muscle

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181
Q

to raise a particular body part.

A

elevation

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182
Q

circular shaped

A

orbicularis, sphincter muscles

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183
Q

sternoclavicular articulation and mastoid process of the temporal bone.

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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184
Q

to lower a body part

A

depresssion

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185
Q

Turning a bone about its long axis. Shaking head no. [This muscle action has no antagonistic muscle action, but rather refers to the turning of a bone about its long axis, as when you shake your head no.]

A

rotation

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186
Q
  • triangular
A

deltoid(DELTA)

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187
Q
  • thin and flat
A

platysma

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188
Q

four-sided

A

quadratus

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189
Q

large

A

vastus

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190
Q

four sided diamond

A

trapezius

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191
Q

straight

A

rectus(ERECT)

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192
Q

occipital bone and frontal bone

A

Occipitofrontalis

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193
Q

may be used to designate “divisions”

A

ceps

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194
Q

between the ribs

A

intercostal

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195
Q

facial cheeks

A

buccinator

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196
Q

circular-shaped muscle of the mouth

A

orbicularis oris

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197
Q

circular-shaped muscle of the eye

A

orbicularis oculi

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198
Q

superficial vs deep

A

The muscles of facial expression lie superficially in relationship to the muscles of mastication, which lie deep.

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199
Q

muscles of the arm, between shoulders to elbow

A

brachii

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200
Q

– muscles of the thigh, between hip and knee

A

femoris

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201
Q

the relatively FIXED point of attachment of the muscle

A

origin

202
Q

the relatively MOVABLE point of attachment of the muscle

A

insertion

203
Q

7 classification of muscles

A

actionshapepoints of attachmentnumber of divisionslocationdirection of fiberssize

204
Q

the fibers of this muscle found in the ventral abdominal wall form a “V”

A

external oblique

205
Q

the fibers of this muscle, located just beneath the external oblique, form an inverted “V” (a teepee).

A

internal oblique

206
Q

innermost of the muscles of the ventral abdominal wall, its fibers go transversely (horizontally).

A

Transverse abdominus

207
Q

head musclesBroad flat tendon which joins the Frontalis

A

galea aponeurotica Occipitofrontalis (epicranius)

208
Q

study of muscles; all are used for movement of and within the body

A

mycology

209
Q

three types of muscle

A

cardiacvisceralskeletal

210
Q

(muscle)heart only, moves involuntary, slightly striated

A

cardiac muscle

211
Q

(muscle) – in organs of body, involuntary movement, smooth, single nucleus per muscle cell

A

visceral (smooth) muscle

212
Q

(muscle) striated (connected with tendons or ligaments), multi nucleated, voluntary, used for flexing and extending

A

skeletal muscle

213
Q

the bulky, fleshy part of the muscle which shortens and thickens during contraction

A

body or belly

214
Q

muscles of mastication (4)chewer muscle; close mouth and clench teeth

A

masseter

215
Q

muscles of mastication (4)– fan shaped muscle located on the squamous portion of the temporal bone; close mandible; as well as protrude the mandible. Clench teeth; retract lower jaw

A

temporalis

216
Q

muscles of mastication (4)opens and protrudes mandible; moves mandible side to side

A

lateral (external) pterygoid

217
Q

name from most superficial to most deep, or outer to inner the direction of fibers

A

external obliqueinternal obliquetransverse abdominus

218
Q

(LG) breast muscles

A

pectoralis major

219
Q

(SM) breast muscles

A

pectoralis minor

220
Q

(LG) top or most superficial butt muscle

A

gluteus maximus

221
Q

(SM) butt muscle just below madius

A

gluteus minimus

222
Q

(LG) upper thigh, boundary of femoral triangle

A

adductor magnus

223
Q

(SHORT) upper thigh

A

adductor brevis

224
Q

another name for short

A

brevis

225
Q

calf muscle, large in terms of size

A

gastrocnemius

226
Q

cause goose bumps; small in terms of size; circular; at bottom of hair shaft

A

arrector pili muscles

227
Q

muscles of the head

A

occipitafrontalis (epicranius)- galea aponeuroticamuscles of the mastication (chewing and swallowing)massetertemporalislateral (external) pterygoidmedial (internal) pterygoid

228
Q

muscles of the neck and trunk

A

neckplatysmaomophoidsternocleidomastoidtrunk(back muscles)trapeziuslatissimus dorsichestpectoralis majorexternal intercostalsinternal intersostalsabdomen(anterolateral wall)external obliqueinternal obliquetransverse abdominus(anteromedial wall)rectus abdominus(posterior wall)psoas major (iliopsoas)diaphragm (phrenic muscle)openingsespohageal orificeaortic orificeinferior vena caval orifice

229
Q

muscles of upper extremities

A

shoulder musclesdeltoidteres majorarm muscles (between shoulder and elbow)biceps brachiicoracobrachialisbrachialistriceps brachiiforearm muscles (between elbow and wrist)ventral aspect (medial to lateral)flexor carpi ulnarisflexor digitorum superficialisflexor carpi radialisdorsal aspectsuperficial: brachiradialisdeep: remember that as a group, they aid in extension and supination of the hand

230
Q

muscles of mastication (4)closes and protrudes mandible

A

medial (internal) pterygoid

231
Q

muscles of the neck (3)flat thin muscle (paper thin) of the neck, tense or wrinkle skin of neck and depresses lower jaw

A

platysma

232
Q

muscles of the neck (3)depress and lower the hyoid bone

A

omohyoid

233
Q

muscles of the neck (3)mark the widest part of the neck, used to rotate and extend the head; anatomical guide for embalming in carotid (neck) area** forms the lateral boundary of the anterior cervical triangle

A

sternocleidomastoid

234
Q

diamond shaped muscle of upper back; used to elevate or shrug shoulders

A

trapezius

235
Q

large flat muscle of lower back

A

latissimus dorsi

236
Q

largest muscle of upper chest region; used to flex and adduct arm

A

pectoralis major

237
Q

draws ribs together; outermost muscle between ribs

A

external intercostals

238
Q

draws ribs together; innermost muscle between ribs

A

internal intercostals

239
Q

the lowest temperature at which an organism can live

A

minimum temperature

240
Q

the highest temperature at which an organism can live.

A

maximum temperature

241
Q

the temperature at which organism grows best.

A

optimum temperature

242
Q

organisms that grow best at cold temperature. Usually below 20 degrees Celsius or less than 68 degrees Fahrenheit

A

Psychrophiles (cryophiles) (CHRO- CRY- COLD)

243
Q

most pathogens - bacteria that prefer medium temperature. Usually between 20 - 40 degrees C. The optimum of most pathogens is normal body temperature of 98.6 F or 37 C. When the body temperature goes up (fever) it does so to kill the organism.

A

Mesophiles (MESO MEDIUM)

244
Q

helps to kill most pathogens that like medium temperature.

A

fever

245
Q

The optimum of most pathogens is normal body temperature of

A

98.6 F or 37 C.

246
Q

organisms that grow best at warm temperatures. Usually above 40 degrees C

A

thermophiles(THINK THERMAL UNDERWEAR TO WARM UP OR A THERMOS OF HOT COFFEE)

247
Q

ultraviolet means

A

above violet

248
Q

ultra violet light is bactericidal which means what?

A

will kill bacteria but will not kill all organisms because over a period of time organisms exposed to excessive amounts of ultra violet light will genetically mutate and develop resistance.

249
Q

Ultraviolet light which ___________ be seen will ______ bacteria

A

cannotkill

250
Q

Deals primarily with solutions. deals with something you cannot see without a microscope.

A

Osmotic Pressure (Osmosis- diffusion through membranes)

251
Q

the substance or solution dealing with osmotic pressure present in greater quantity

A

solvent

252
Q

the substance or solution dealing with osmotic pressure present in lesser quantity

A

solute

253
Q

name the different osmotic pressure

A

Isotonic solutionsHypertonic solutions Hypotonic solutions

254
Q

is the type of Osmotic Pressure necessary to properly study bacterial cells and red blood cells to ensure no change in size, shape, and volumethe number of particles entering the cell roughly equals the number of particles leaving. The shape and integrity of the cell is maintained

A

Isotonic Solution

255
Q

excess solute. If a bacteria is placed in this type of solution it changes the shape of the cell. There will be more particles leaving than entering. The end result – the cell will atrophy

A

hypertonic solution

256
Q

to wrinkle or shrink

A

atrophy

257
Q

the shrinkage of a bacterial cell when placed in a Hypertonic Solution

A

plasmolysis

258
Q

the shrinkage of a red blood cell when placed in a Hypertonic Solution

A

crenation

259
Q

beneath or below - less solute than normal. If a bacteria cell is placed in this solution, more particles will enter the cell than leave

A

hypotonic solution

260
Q

The bursting of a bacterial cell when placed in Hypotonic Solution

A

plasmoptysis(MOP) mop below the counter surface

261
Q

The bursting of a red blood cell when placed in Hypotonic Solution

A

hemolysis

262
Q

living organisms living together

A

symbiosis

263
Q

relationship of two or more organisms that is of benefit to all involved

A

mutualism

264
Q

relationship of two or more organisms that is of benefit to one w/ no effect to the other e.g. normal flora (living in on the human body)

A

commensalism

265
Q

relationship between two or more organisms which is of benefit to one, harmful to the other.

A

parasitism

266
Q

a relationship between two or more organisms which produces an effect, be it good or bad, not possible by each one alone. Both parties have to do their part.

A

synergism

267
Q

a relationship between two or more organisms in which the presence of one inhibits or prevents the growth of the other; mutual opposition or contrary action.

A

antagonism

268
Q

entry establishment & multiplication of pathogens within a host. Any disease caused by a microorganism

A

infection

269
Q

the mere presence of infectious material, with no reaction produced.

A

contamination

270
Q

the ability of an organism to cause infection in man.

A

Pathogenicity

271
Q

True or FalseA great number of pathogenicites are not infectious

A

True

272
Q

relative to produce disease, the likelihood that the pathogenic organism will cause infection in man.

A

virulence

273
Q

a dilution or weakening in the virulence of an organism. This will reduce or destroy its pathogenicity.

A

attenuation

274
Q

micro-organisms naturally living in and on a host. Present on both dead and living bodies - the reason for disinfecting during embalming.

A

Indigenous flora - (normal flora)

275
Q

resistant, as in bacteria, to the action of a drug or drugs. Bacterial having developed a resistance to a drug.

A

drug-fast

276
Q

An infection in which the causative agent (organism) comes from outside the body. Could come from on the body or from the air

A

exogenous infection

277
Q

An infection which is caused by microorganisms which are normally present within the body.

A

endogenous infection

278
Q

An infection of sudden onset and short duration, less than one year. Examples: Meningococcemia - Creutzfeldt - Jakob (CJ) -

A

acute infection

279
Q

A fatal form of blood poisoning

A

Meningococcemia

280
Q

early form of Alzheimer

A

Creutzfeldt - Jakob (CJ) -

281
Q

An infection of slow onset and long duration. Greater than a year. Example: Alzheimer

A

chronic infection

282
Q

An infection capable of being transmitted, either directly or indirectly, from host to host. Host could be a person or animal

A

communicable infection

283
Q

means highly communicable. The likelihood that the transmission to others will occur is greater

A

contagious

284
Q

are antagonism to another organism.

A

antibiotics

285
Q

An infection that is constantly present to a greater or lesser degree in a community Examples: cold and flu

A

endemic

286
Q

an infection which attacks a large number of people in a community in a short period of time

A

epidemic infection

287
Q

Worldwide epidemic; an infection which becomes an epidemic in a number of countries at the same timeExample: Flu of 1919 20 million died

A

pandemic infection

288
Q

An infection which occurs only occasionally (now and then) in a community.

A

sporadic infection

289
Q

The initial (first) infection of a mixed infection. The first of two infections

A

primary infection

290
Q

An infection due to (caused by) two or more organisms. When a person or animal is suffering from two or more infections at the same time.

A

mixed infection

291
Q

The second and generally more complicating infection in a mixed infection. * is usually more lethal.

A

secondary infection

292
Q

An infection in which the pathogenic organisms remain confined to a particular area. Examples: Abscessed tooth

A

local infection

293
Q

An infection confined to a particular area, but from which the bacteria spread to other parts of the body. An infection spreads

A

focal infection

294
Q

Infection throughout, spread generally over the body by the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Sepsis, Septicemia - organisms in the blood

A

general infection

295
Q

A condition in which bacteria are in the bloodstream, but are not multiplying there. Presence of bacteria in the blood

A

Bacteremia

296
Q

Invasion of the bloodstream by pathogenic organisms, with their subsequent multiplication therein. Common name is “blood poisoning.”

A

Septicemia

297
Q

the presence of an organism in the blood.

A

sepsis

298
Q

The presence of toxins (poisonous substances) in the blood.

A

toxemia

299
Q

An infection, which occurs during the course of a chronic disease and cause death.

A

terminal infection

300
Q

The presence of infectious material, without a reaction necessarily being produced. This term can also refer to inanimate objects

A

contamination

301
Q

inanimate objects. Seen only with a microscope

A

fomite

302
Q

The invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites, i.e., those able to be seen with the unaided eye. Maggots

A

infestation

303
Q

unaided eye to see the infestation

A

macroscopic

304
Q

The ability (or likelihood) of a microorganism to produce disease.

A

virulence

305
Q

implies a weakening or reduction in the virulence of a microorganism.

A

attenuation

306
Q

An infection primarily of animals that may be secondarily transmitted to man

A

zoonatic

307
Q
  • inflammation of the brain
A

encephalitis

308
Q

caused by mosquitoes

A

Encephalitis and Malaria

309
Q

mosquitoes biting migratory birds

A

encephalitis

310
Q

mosquitoes biting monkeys

A

malaria

311
Q

A hospital-acquired infection; one obtained while in the hospital. Staph. (Staff)

A

Nosocomial

312
Q

Literally, pus in the blood; a form of septicemia caused by pyogenic (pus-forming) bacteria. Puss in the blood. Staph. Strept

A

pyemia

313
Q

An infection which causes a fever (elevated temperature).

A

pyremia

314
Q

A sudden, severe, and overwhelming infection, such as spinal meningitis.

A

fulminating

315
Q

Infection throughout the body, having been spread by the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Sepsis, Septicemia - organisms in the blood

A

generalized infection

316
Q

A seemingly inactive infection; it is apparently held in check by the body’s defense, but may spread when the body resistance is reduced.Cold sores, Syphilis. They go away but are not dead. In the case of syphilis the disease has gone to the second stage.

A

latent infection

317
Q

An infection in which the clinical symptoms are not recognized or immediately detectable. TB

A

inapparent infection

318
Q

An infection in which all the symptoms are easily recognized. Rubella (German measles), Mumps

A

typical infection

319
Q

An infection in which all the symptoms are not easily recognizable, meaning that it could be confused with another infection. Not typical - TB. Complaint of one problem Intestinal pain and find out it is TB of the intestines

A

atypical infection

320
Q

Any microorganism that causes disease in man

A

pathogen

321
Q

Any microorganism that does not cause disease in man.

A

non-pathogen

322
Q

types of pathogens

A

normal floraopportunistsstrict (obligate) pathogens

323
Q

Microorganisms that live and grow in and on the human body. Most are non-pathogens. Indigenous

A

normal flora

324
Q

Microorganisms that produce infection only under especially favorable conditions, that is, they await the right opportunity to cause infection. Pathogens contained in a person’s normal flora are usually these, since they alone cannot penetrate unbroken skin.

A

opportunists

325
Q

Microorganisms that will cause an infection in man every time that a person is exposed to them. They are never a part of one’s normal flora. A must behavior Example: Strept throat

A

strict (obligate) pathogens

326
Q

factors influencing virulence

A

toxin productionenzymescapsulesendospores

327
Q

Poison substance

A

toxin production

328
Q

Poison substance produced all the time and continuously released to the outside of certain bacteria; e.g. Tetanus, Cholera

A

exotoxins

329
Q

Poison substance only released when the cell producing the bacteria is destroyed; e.g.: Spinal Meningitis.The ability of the bacteria to release a poison when the white blood cells of the body kills the bacteria

A

endotoxins

330
Q

substances, which speed up the rate of a chemical reaction, without being used up or destroyed in the process

A

enzyme(organic catalyst)

331
Q

an enzyme that helps spread bacteria. Increase the bacteria’s ability to spread to other parts of the body

A

Hyaluronidase (Spreading factor)

332
Q

an enzyme that clots human plasma.

A

coagulase

333
Q

the liquid portion of non-clotted human blood.

A

plasma

334
Q

an enzymes that dissolves blood clots. Especially if the clot has caused MI (heart attack). Persons having a heart attack or stroke caused by a blood clot would receive this enzyme to prevent other blood clots.

A

Fibrinolysin (steptokinase)

335
Q

jelly like material located on the outside of certain bacteria.

A

capsules (slime layer)

336
Q

The presence of the slime layer will:

A

Enhances the bacteria’s virulence. andProtects the organism from phagocytosis

337
Q

cell ingestion

A

phagocytosis

338
Q

the best protection an organism can possess is the ability to produce spores.

A

endospores

339
Q

A person or animal that possess an organism after recovery from the infection it causes. The greatest risk of spreading an infection is immediately after recovery

A

active carrier of infection

340
Q

A person or animal that has a particular organism, even though they have never suffered from the infection it causes, and passes it along to anotherExample: Typhoid Mary.

A

passive carrier infection

341
Q

sources of infection

A

A person or animal currently ill of the infection.orChronic animal or human carriers

342
Q

an animal or person that possesses an organism and transmits to someone else during recovery from the infection it causes

A

convalescent carrier of infection

343
Q

outside environments

A

environment

344
Q

modes of transmission of infections

A

direct transmissionindirect transmission

345
Q

types of direct transmission of infections

A

physical contact (sexually transmitted disease)droplet infection (aerosol- sneezing)congenital- rubella (German measles) contacted during pregnancy from mother to child

346
Q

types of indirect transmission of infections

A

a. Food poisoning (could taste fine at time of eating) b. Milk (bovine strain of TB) c. Fomites - lifeless inanimate objects - doorknobs, money, trocars, toilet seats, etc. d. Water (water signs – approved: Dept. of Health) e. Soil - tetanus or lock jaw. f. Vectors - an animal usually an insect that is serving as an indirect mode of transmission.

347
Q

portals of entry and exit of pathogens

A
  1. Skin and mucous membranes - staph. These organisms are living on your skin and are opportunistic and invades the body through a cut. The skin is the largest organ of the body (liver the largest organ in the body) 2. Respiratory tract - TB, pneumonia (infection of lung tissue itself) 3. Digestive tract - cholera, loss of 10quarts of water per day), dysentery 4. Genito - urinary tract (gut) - STD’s (sexually transmitted disease’s) 5. Placenta - rubella (German measles) transmitted from mother via the placenta into developing infant. Rubella always means German measles. (we would prefer a mother to be sick with 10 day measles so as not to be sick with this)
348
Q

vehicles of exit pathogens

A

fecesurinesemenvaginal secretionssputumsalivabloodpus and lesion exudatestears

349
Q

Waste product from the digestive tract - dysentery, cholera extremely watery stool

A

feces

350
Q

a substance made of a combination of saliva and mucus brought up from the respiratory tract.

A

sputum(phlegm)

351
Q

produced by three sets of salivary glands. Vehicle of exit of disease spread to humanscytomegalovirus (CID) rabies

A

saliva (spit)

352
Q

a vehicle for exit of disease spread to humans. Example: hepatitis A & B

A

blood

353
Q

A vehicle of exit of disease to humans; consists of both dead and living pus and blood. Examples: abscesses, decubitus ulcers – bed sores

A

Pus and lesion exudates

354
Q

contain enzymes that kill bacteria

A

tears

355
Q

FACTORS INFLUENCING THE OCCURRENCE OF AN INFECTION:

A
  1. Portal of entry of the pathogens and elective localization – when an organism chooses to restrict itself to a particular area or region of the body this is called “elective localization.”2. Number of organisms - the more in number of an organism, the more likely you will be infected.3. Virulence of the organism - the likelihood an organism will cause infection in humans.(measuring how likely it is to cause infection.) Example: 1918 Flu – they died.4. Resistance of the host - having a good immune system. Good resistance to the organism. (Deals with immune ty of the host). Opportunistic or secondary infection. Health or illness = N (V) R N - number of organisms V - virulence of the organism R - resistance N x V divided by - R
356
Q

when an organism chooses to restrict itself to a particular area or region of the body this is called

A

localization

357
Q

inhibits microorganisms from entering the body.

A

Mechanical Defenses (Anatomical)

358
Q

anatomical barriers

A

skin mucous membranes - soft moist tissue side the nose, ear, mouth, and eyes. Bony encasements - skull, ribcage.

359
Q
  • the bodies total response to an injury.
A

inflammation

360
Q

an agent that causes the body temperature to risethe substance that stimulates the production that causes a fever. may come from within or from outside the body.

A

pyrogens

361
Q

(white blood cells) scavengers - large cell ingestors like packman.

A

phagocytosis

362
Q

enzymes present in tears which kill bacteria

A

lysozyme

363
Q

(HCL) hydrochloric acid produced within the stomach to kill bacteria.

A

gastric juice

364
Q

chemical defenses (body secretions)

A

lysozymesand gastric juices

365
Q

Specific protein produced within the body in response to a specific foreign protein or bacteria

A

antibodies

366
Q

virus neutralizing - a substance produced by the body cells. Can be enhanced by vaccination.

A

interferon

367
Q

Another name for antibodies is

A

immunogoblin (Ig).

368
Q

The study of immunity.

A

Immunology

369
Q

excess water

A

edema

370
Q

loss of water

A

dehydration

371
Q

what is the ph of the human body?

A

7.4-7.5

372
Q

above 7 on the ph scale is

A

alkaline

373
Q

below 7 on the ph scale is

A

acidic

374
Q

most bacteria reproduce by what

A

binary fission (simple transverse division)

375
Q

a visible growth of bacteria growing on a culture medium (nutrient broth, blood agar)

A

bacterial colony

376
Q

the material you attempt to grow bacteria

A

medium

377
Q

to grow in a laboratory setting bacteria in a medium, (nutrient broth or agar)

A

culture

378
Q

all bacteria- pathogens are so classified and must have a source of carbon. Bacteria that obtain their food from inorganic matter. They manufacture their own carbon

A

autotrophic bacteria

379
Q

all organism that cause infection in a mans are classified as this and obtain their food from organic matter (food that contains carbon) Humans contain carbon glucose

A

heterotrophic bacteria

380
Q

name the three types of heterotrophic bacteria

A

strict (obligate) saprophytesstrict (obligate) parasitesfaculatative bacteria

381
Q

a must behavior- a bacteria that must obtain its food from dead organic matter

A

strict (obligate) saprophytes

382
Q

Heterotrophic that must obtain their food from living organic matter

A

strict (obligate) parasites

383
Q

Heterotrophic bacteria that can obtain their food from dead or living organic matter

A

facultative bacteria

384
Q

Heterotrophic bacteria that must have presence of oxygen to live

A

strict (obligate) aerobes

385
Q

bacteria that must have absence of oxygen to live

A

strict (obligate) anaerobes

386
Q

bacteria that must have the presence of oxygen to live but at a level less than that required of humans

A

microaerophiles

387
Q

bacteria that can live in the presence or absence of oxygen

A

facultative bacteria

388
Q

Legal objectives of written contracts

A

legal purpose and execution, as long as elements of a contract are legal (Mutual Agreements,competent parties and Consideration) terms of contract should be executed. Illegality renders a contract void.

389
Q

expression of willingness of the offeror to enter a contractual agreement.

A

offer

390
Q

person or party who initiates or makes and offer

A

offeror

391
Q

person or party to whom an offer is made

A

offeree

392
Q

requirements of a valid offer

A

Must be Definiteo Basis for agreemento Seriously intendedo Not a joke / Nor offered in jest, fear, or anger.o Communicated from offeror to offeree.o Both parties must be cognizant of the agreement.

393
Q

Offer vs. invitation to deal

A

o Is it truly an offer?o Or an invitation to deal and make a subsequent offer?

394
Q

invitation to deal

A

• Advertisement • Price list and quotations• Bids • Estimates• Not valid offers • May lead to an offer.

395
Q

termination of an offer

A

o By revocation - annulment or cancellation of an instrument, act, promise by one doing or making it.o Communicated by offeror to offeree prior to acceptance.By terms of the offer:o If terms are not met, there is no contract.o By lapse of “reasonable” period of time.o Depends on type of offer.o By death or insanity of offeror.By rejection.o Refusal to accept.o By counter offer - intended acceptance which changes or qualifies the offer, and is a rejection of the original offer.o By intervening illegality.(Legal situation interfering with an offer and agreement. Example:Making a contract to kill someone.)

396
Q

person afflicted with a serious mental disorder impairing ability to function.

A

insane

397
Q

intended acceptance which changes or qualifies the offer, and is a rejection of the original offer

A

counter offer

398
Q

o Legal situation interfering with an offer and agreement.

A

intervening illegalityexample: making a contract to kill someone

399
Q

o Agreement to an offer resulting in a contract.o Communicated by offeree to offeror.o Oral or written.o Including mail or telegram.

A

acceptance

400
Q

o Justifiable reliance by offeree.o Offeree believes what offeror says is true.o No reason to believe otherwise.o Without this, contract is voidable.

A

reality of consent

401
Q

False statement of a matter of fact.

A

misrepresentation

402
Q

False statement made in the belief it is true.

A

innocent misrepresentation

403
Q

Intentional or reckless false statement of a material fact, upon which the injured party relied, which induced the injured party to enter into a contract, at his/her detriment.

A

fraud

404
Q

manner of committing fraud

A

o By expressed misrepresentation.o Oral or written.o By concealment. (attempting to hide information)o By silence when one has a duty to speak.(Not sharing information when asked or requested.)

405
Q

• Improper influence that is asserted by one dominant person over another, without threat or harm.o Often with a fiduciary relationship.

A

undue influence

406
Q

Person in a relationship of trust or confidence

A

fiduciary Examples• Family relationship.• Attorney and client.• Physician and patient.• Funeral director and family.

407
Q

Means of removing one’s free will. Obtaining consent by threat to do harm to the person, his/her family, or property.o Element of coercion or force.Can be physical, emotional and financial.

A

duress

408
Q

Mistake by one party to a contracto Mistake as to quality, value or price.o Mistake as to terms of contract.o Generally will not render agreement defective.

A

unilateral mistake

409
Q

Mistake by both parties to a contract.o Mistake as to nature of transaction.o Mistake as to identity or existence of subject matter.o Generally render agreement defective

A

mutual mistake

410
Q

classes of illegal agreement

A

agreements to commit a crime or torts. Agreements prohibited by statute. Agreements contrary to public policy

411
Q

injurious to individuals and society at large

A

agreements to commit crimes of torts

412
Q

What type of agreements fall under the category of agreements prohibited by statute?

A

unsuriousrestraint of tradefix pricesinfluence fiduciaries defraud creditorsobstruct justicerelieve liability for willful negligence

413
Q

exceeding maximum rate of interest which may be charged on loans or consumer credit accounts

A

usurious

414
Q

charging a higher rate of interest than the law allows

A

unsury

415
Q

highest legal rate of interest

A

maximum contract rate

416
Q

interest rate applied when no rate is specified

A

legal rate

417
Q

laws which seek to promote competition among business

A

antitrust law

418
Q

what are the advantages of antitrust laws or why were they set up?

A

to prevent creation of a monopolyprohibits contracts not to competefix prices of goods and servicesunfair competitive practices

419
Q

Legislation intended to promote competition among business by prohibiting restraint of trade.

A

Sherman Antitrust Law

420
Q

Person or persons in a relationship of trust or confidence

A

Fiduciaries

421
Q

Agreement in which someone else “takes the blame.”

A

Agreements to relieve liability for willful negligence:

422
Q

Regarding payment of a debt. Money owed.

A

Agreements to defraud creditors

423
Q

o Contracts limiting freedom of marriage.o Contracts injurious to public service of the “public good.”

A

Agreements contrary to public policy:

424
Q

Statute of Frauds

A

• Originally enacted by the English Parliament (1677).• Present in some form in all states.• Lists certain types of contracts which can only be enforced if it is in written form.

425
Q

Types of contracts in writing:

A

Contracts to transfer an interest in real property. Real estate - Land Real property - Objects attached to land.

426
Q

cannot be completed within one year from date of making. Ensures parties do not forget contract terms Example: purchase of real estate with long term loan contract/mortgage.

A

Executory bilateral contracts

427
Q

Obligation to pay money or goods

A

debt

428
Q

Non-performance of a duty or obligation

A

default

429
Q

Rather than paying debts from decedent’s estate. Agreement to pay debts of another.

A

Contracts made by executor or administrators to pay debts of an estate out of his/her personal funds.

430
Q

Promises made in consideration of marriage.

A

Prenuptial agreements.

431
Q
  • movable, tangible, personal property.
A

goods

432
Q

Termination of a contract by performance, agreement, impossibility, acceptance of breach, or operation law.

A

Discharge of contracts

433
Q

When all terms of the contract have been fulfilled, the contract is discharged by performance

A

Performance

434
Q

• Satisfactory or complete performance.• Contract that has been performed in a manner that would “satisfy” an ordinary, reasonable person.

A

Nature of performance:

435
Q

Fulfilling major terms of the contract. Contract can be discharged. Less any damages that might occur for minor breaches of contract

A

Substantial performance

436
Q

• Mutual agreement to cancel the contract.• Entering into a contract is a mutual agreement.• Parties can also mutually agree to cancel the contract.

A

Discharge by Agreement

437
Q

*Form SSA-721

A

“Statement of Death by Funeral Director” Completion is voluntary. Courtesy to the family. Ensures payment of survivor’s benefits. Prevents payment of monthly benefit to decedent. Returns next benefits check

438
Q

 Statute of limitation of SSA-721:

A

two (2) years from date of death.

439
Q

Veterans Administration (VA)Available benefits:

A

 U. S. Flag Headstone or grave marker Burial allowance Presidential memorial certificate Burial in a national cemetery

440
Q

*VA Form 21-2008

A

“Application for United States Flag for Burial Purposes”

441
Q

where can you get a United States Flag for Burial Purposes?

A

 Issued a U. S. Postal Service Offices National Cemetery Office VA Regional Office

442
Q

What is the statute of limitation for application for a United States Flag for Burial Purposes?

A

none

443
Q

• VA Form 40-1330

A

“Application for Standard Government Headstone Grave Marker”

444
Q

What is the statute of limitation for application for standard government headstone or marker?

A

none

445
Q

When is the application for headstone not required?

A

when burial is in National Cemetery

446
Q

statute of limitations for burial allowance

A

2 years from date of death

447
Q

VA Form 21-530

A

Application for Burial Benefits

448
Q

Cemetery created and maintained under an Act of Congress for the burial of veterans of military service and their eligible family members.

A

National Cemetery

449
Q

eligibility requirements for burial in National Cemetery

A

 Active duty in United States Armed Forces. From date of induction until discharged. After September 1980, must serve minimum of 24 months of active duty. For National Guard and Reserves. Retirement after 20 years creditable service. Or active duty at time of death. “Discharged under conditions other than dishonorable.” Verified by obtaining copy of veteran’s service record. *VA Form DD-214 or discharge papers.

450
Q

other persons eligible for burial in a National Cemetery

A

Spouse Children under 23. Grown and dependent children.

451
Q

Jurisdiction of Department of the Army

A

Arlington National Cemetery

452
Q

Classified (paid) notice publicizing death of a person. Gives details of funeral service.

A

death notice

453
Q

Obituary information

A

 Vital statistics information (date and place of birth, date and place of death, age). Family and survivors Biographical information (residence, education, employment.) Organizations/Military Photograph Date, time, and location for visitation, services, and interment. Special requests. Memorial contributions and donations.

454
Q

News item concerning death of a person. Brief biographical sketch. Fee depends on newspaper policy.

A

obituary

455
Q

FTC Funeral Rule requirements

A

Itemization of selected goods and services Includes cash advance items. Signed by family member and funeral director. Present copy to family member.

456
Q

the individual with paramount right of disposition. (Spouse or Next of kin) should read and sign all

A

Authorizations, Release forms, and Disclosures

457
Q

Before family leaves the funeral director should…

A

Verify date, time, and location for all aspects of arrangements. Especially time for family viewing. And most importantly…. Assure them of your continuing assistance.

458
Q

SSA BENEFITS

A

 $255 lump sum death benefit. Monthly benefits.For eligible survivors/dependents.

459
Q

Completion of SSA - 721:

A

Decedent’s information. Name, Social Security number, date of death, date of birth, and gender. Survivor’s information (widow or widower). Name, address, and telephone number. Funeral director or firm. Name, address, telephone number, and signature.

460
Q

Filing SSA-721:

A

Mailed or faxed to Social Security Administration.Statute of limitation: two (2) years from date of death.Survivors still need to apply for benefits.Contact local Social Security office.

461
Q

Obtaining SSA 721:

A

Available at local SSA office.Information form attached.Give to family.Funeral home computer software.Texas Electronic Registrar

462
Q

At need funeral procedures

A

Notification of death Transfer of remains Arrangement conference (including forms) Outline Section I, A-C

463
Q

Provided to any family member. Send request to the VA. Statute of limitation: none.

A

Presidential Memorial Certificate

464
Q

*VA Form DD-214

A

discharge papers.

465
Q

Time set aside for relatives and friends to pay their respects for the deceased prior to the funeral or memorial service Calling hours Visiting hours Wake

A

VISITATION

466
Q

After embalming and disinfection Dressing Cosmetizing Casketing

A

PREPARATION OF REMAINS

467
Q

Clergy record

A

: form designed to provide pertinent information about decedent and immediate survivors for use by clergy at the funeral or memorial service.

468
Q

 Foot end of casket when draped Folded and placed in cap Draped over closed casket Blue field over left shoulder Pressed prior to use No flowers or other items should ever be placed on top of the flag.

A

Placement of the U. S. Flag:

469
Q

Book signed by those attending a visitation and/or service. Memorial book Complete statistical data and service information Typed, printed with calligraphy, or computer generated Ensure enough pages for signatures Place in visitation room prior to family coming in

A

register book

470
Q

Remember: Nothing should separate the funeral coach and

A

the family

471
Q

Order of vehicles

A

Lead car / Clergy / Casket bearers / Casket coach / Family /Other mourners

472
Q

Irreversible cessation (a stop, pause, or interruption, especially a permanent discontinuation) of all vital functions. Such as: respiration - breathing heart action - circulation brain action - waves

A

non legal definition of death

473
Q

the noise made by a moribund (dying) person caused by air passing through a residue of mucous in the trachea and posterior oral cavity

A

death rattle

474
Q

time immediately preceding death

A

agonal period

475
Q

the semi-convulsive twitches which often occur before death.

A

death struggle

476
Q

conditions in which the manifestations of life are feebly maintained. (think the person is dead, coma state)Respiration, heart action, brain action are shallow and sometime hard to detect.

A

apparent death

477
Q

body of a deceased person including cremated remains

A

human remains

478
Q

those elements remaining after cremation of a dead human body.

A

cremated remains

479
Q

dead human body used for medical purposes, including anatomical dissection and study.

A

cadaver

480
Q

the study of death

A

thanatology

481
Q

death of an organism (body) as a whole. Pronouncement of death. Historically it is recognized by the failure of one of three organs. (heart, brain, lungs)

A

somatic death

482
Q

death of the heart

A

syncope

483
Q

death of the brain

A

coma

484
Q

death of the lungs

A

asphyxia

485
Q

Death of the individual cells of the body

A

post mortem cellular death

486
Q

Final cause of post mortem cellular death is

A

oxygen starvation

487
Q

Post mortem cellular death will occur _____ somatic death

A

after

488
Q

Somatic death will occur ______ or _______to post morten cellular death.

A

before or prior

489
Q

Factors influencing onset of postmortem cellular death

A

Cause of deathEnvironmental conditions – temperature can be a factor, coolers help slow down decompositionCondition of BodyMedication preceding death – meds can alter body chemistry

490
Q

death occurring in a living body

A

anti-mortem

491
Q

Can cellular death occur anti-mortem?

A

Yes

492
Q

these cells will die quicker after somatic death.

A

specialized cells

493
Q

Brain cells live about

A

5 to 8 minutes

494
Q

muscle cells live about

A

3 hours

495
Q

cornea and blood cells live about

A

6 to 8 hours

496
Q

The major element remaining after cremation is?

A

calcium (bone).

497
Q

Those manifestations of death by which we may recognize its presence in the body.

A

signs of death

498
Q

the separation of compounds into simpler substances by the action of microbial and/or autolytic enzymes.

A

decompostion

499
Q

self destruction of body compounds.

A

autolytic enzymes

500
Q

most reliable sign of death

A

decomposition

Nervous Nellies (12 decks)

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