F.O. CLASS #9 - Week of 11/25/18: AUC 207 Addendums #3 - 11, T.B. – Emergency #1 (Elevators), Haz Mat #1, Eng Ops #8 & 9 Instructor: DC Jim DiDomenico

Question 1

1. An officer conducting drill on elevator operations was incorrect in which one of the following points? (TB - Elevator—2.4.1, 2.4.2, 3.2.1 C, D, F 3.2.2)
   A. A stuck elevator with trapped passengers becomes an emergency if there is fire endangering the passengers, a passenger is injured, or a passenger is in panic.
   B. The location of the counterweight will indicate the exact location of the elevator car.
   C. If the counterweight or governor ropes are seen moving, this indicates a car in motion
   D. If the emergency bell is ringing, instruct the passengers to deactivate it

Answer 1

1. B

D. The location of the counterweight can be used to approximate the position of the car. For example, in a 6 story building where the elevator serves the basement, if the counterweight is on the 1st floor, the stalled car would
be at the 5th. The counterweight can be located by viewing through the wire glass door panel or by opening a hoistway door.

Question 2

2. A ladder company arrives at an incident where they have a report of a stuck elevator on the 6th floor of a 26-story multiple dwelling. On arrival at the 6th floor, they note that the passengers have activated the Emergency Stop Button. Regarding the use of primary removal procedures in this situation, they would be correct to think? (TB - Elevator—3.3, 3.3.1 A, B, 3.3.2, 3.4)
   A. An elevator mechanic must be called before attempting any primary removal procedures
   B. Electrical contacts must be checked before placing an elevator into Fireman Service
   C. They should have passengers press either the door open button or the lobby call button. Either one of these tactics will override the Emergency Stop Button.
   D. Placing the elevator into Fireman Service-Phase 1 will override the Emergency Stop Button

Answer 2

2. D
3. 4 Summon an elevator mechanic if Primary Removal Procedures fail.

The first type of primary removal procedures checks whether simple electrical contacts might have been broken. However, if the passengers have activated the
Emergency Stop Button, these methods will not work. The passengers must be instructed to deactivate the Emergency Stop Button.

A. Have a passenger press Door Open Button. If the car is level with the landing this may open both the car and hoistway door.
B. Press lobby call button.

Question 3

3. If secondary removal procedures are necessary at an elevator operation, an Officer should know that? (TB Elevators—3.4.3, 3.5.1, 3.5.1 A, 3.5.1 C4, 3.5.2 C, 3.6.3 B)
   A. Secondary removal procedures may not be initiated until the arrival of an elevator mechanic
   B. Power removal is essential when using a secondary procedure. One handie-talkie equipped member with forcible entry tools should be sent to shut power to the stalled car.
   C. Members shutting power to a stalled car must never turn the power back on to that car during any secondary removal procedure
   D. Members operating in a shaft are to be secured by a life-saving rope

Answer 3

3. D
4. 4.3 Secondary Removal Procedures may be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.

Dispatch two members to the elevator machinery room to shut off the power to the stalled car.

This is the only circumstance in which the elevator power may be restored by members of this department. If this procedure fails, power must be shut off and members are not to restore power after completion of operations.

Question 4

4. During secondary removal procedures at an elevator operation, an Officer would be correct to think that? (TB Elevators—3.5.2 B, D, E, F)
   A. Any passenger removed from a car between floors should always be taken up and out to eliminate any possibility of them falling down the shaft
   B. Members shall never be permitted to enter the shaft below the elevator car
   C. Elevators shall never be jacked up or moved in an upward direction as this may free the car
   safeties
   D. Prying or adjusting the elevator brake may be attempted only if power is assured off

Answer 4

4. C

F. No adjustment to or prying of the elevator machinery brake shall be attempted. The brake will be in a safe position and should not be tampered with.

E. The elevator shall never be jacked up or moved in an upward direction. This action may free the car safeties causing the car to move either upward or downward depending on the live load in the car.

D. Members shall not normally be permitted to enter the shaft below the elevator car. During a rescue necessitating members entering the shaft below the car, the power switch must be turned off.

B. When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken up and out of the car if practical. This eliminates the possibility of a passenger falling down the shaft after exiting the elevator. If they are removed to the lower landing, the shaft opening must be protected.

Question 5

5. An officer arrives at a stuck elevator where he determines that the elevator has a two speed system. He decides to attempt to restart the stuck elevator car. In this situation the Officer would be incorrect to think? (TB Elevators 3.6)
   A. Two speed systems are commonly found in buildings over 10 stories
   B. The officer should order power shut to the stuck car and then power turned back on again
   C. If an Emergency Stop Button was activated, have it deactivated before turning power off
   D. If the car is to restart, it will do so within 20 to 30 seconds

Answer 5

5. D

C. If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds.

Question 6

6. Members operating at a multi-car hoistway elevator emergency are attempting to use the POLING procedure. In this situation, they should know that from the adjacent car they can trip the lock by? (TB Elevators—3.6.4 D)
   A. Depressing the roller on a hinged door; Pushing up on the locking arm on a sliding door
   B. Depressing the roller on a sliding door; Pushing up on the locking arm on a hinged door

Answer 6

6. A

D. Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock by either depressing the roller or pushing on the locking arm.

1. Hinge type door - Depress the roller.
2. Sliding type door - push up on locking arm.

E. Member on the landing near hoistway door of the stuck car opens hoistway door when the lock is disengaged.

F. Elevator car door is then opened.

Question 7

7. A ladder company is performing a top hatch emergency removal of three passengers who were injured in an elevator accident. In this situation, they would be correct to think that? (TB Elevators—3.7A—3, 4, 5, 8)
   A. When lowering a portable ladder to the elevator roof, an extension ladder is preferred, with the halyard tied around the rungs of both sections.
   B. All members in the shaft shall be secured with a Life-Saving Rope, and a maximum of three firefighters are permitted on the elevator roof at one time.
   C. The order of removal of the trapped passengers shall be determined by the Ladder Officer
   D. During removal, members shall maintain physical contact with each trapped person and insure the civilians are secured with a Life-Saving Rope

Answer 7

7. D
8. Lower a portable ladder to the elevator roof. Use straight ladder if possible. If an extension ladder is used tie the halyard around the rungs of both sections of the ladder. This will prevent the lower section from dropping on to the car roof.
9. Climb down to the car roof. Maximum of two firefighters are to be permitted on the roof of the car at one time.
10. Members are to remain in physical contact with trapped persons while they are being removed.
11. One member equipped with a handie talkie enters car. Member in the car must determine the order of removal. Secure each person with a life saving rope.

Question 8

8. A ladder company is performing a side exit emergency removal of two passengers who are both panicking in a stuck elevator. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that? (TB Elevators—3.7—3, 6, 7, 8)
   A. The rescue car must be brought even with the stuck elevator. If a mechanic is present, use his operating key to bring the car level
   B. Power must be removed to the rescue car before beginning the side exit removal
   C. Planks of sufficient length — 4’ or longer should be used as a bridge
   D. Both the members and passengers must be secured to a Life-Saving Rope

Answer 8

8. C

6. Planks of sufficient lengths (6’ or longer) should be used as a bridge between cars.

Question 9

9. A ladder company is operating at an elevator emergency where they are going to attempt forcible entry of the hoistway and elevator car door. In this situation, it would be correct to state? (TB Elevators—3.7.3, 3.7.3 B 1, 2)
   A. Forcible entry should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic. There are no exceptions to this policy.
   B. The Rabbit Tool is the preferred forcible entry method
   C. If using an Air Bag, place it midway between (centered) the top and bottom of the door
   D. If using an Air Bag, position it to permit the center of the bag to be as close as possible to
   the door edge

Answer 9

9. D

Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during EMERGENCY REMOVAL PROCEDURES. The deformation of the doors and locks may add to the problem and delay the rescue. Upon completion of forcible entry operations have maintenance personnel secure the hoistway door or have police or security warn people of the danger.

1. Maxi Force Air Bag System.

This is the preferred forcible entry method. It is less likely than the others to push the door off its hangers or out of its track.

b. Place bag between the leading edge of the door and jamb as high as possible to apply a more direct force on the linkage and the locking mechanism.

Question 10

10. An officer drilling on elevator pit operations was correct to state? (TB Elevator—4.1-4.2)
    A. For Jump Pit operations, after shutting power to the elevator, enter the pit via the lowest hoistway door using a portable ladder. For additional safety, trip the lower limit switch and secure it in the closed position
    B. For Walk-In Pit operations, after shutting power to the elevator, enter via the pit door at the bottom of the shaft. Emergency elevator keys are required to open this pit door
    C. Never enter a Walk-In Pit before the elevator power switch is off.
    D. Buffers found in Walk-In pits may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid

Answer 10

10. D

4.2.1
Jump Pit.

A. Shut off elevator power switch.

B. Open the lowest hoistway door on shaft.

C. Use portable ladder to enter shaft.

D. For additional safety, trip lower limit switch and secure it in an open position.

4.2.2
Walk In Pit.

A. Shut off elevator power switch.

B. Enter via pit door.

C. If there is a fire in the pit, be cautious of the buffers (a device designed to stop a descending elevator beyond the normal limits of travel), they may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid.

D. In an EXTREME EMERGENCY (immediate action necessary to save life) entry to a Walk in Pit before the elevator power switch is off may be made using the following precautions:

1. Open a hoistway door on shaft to be entered. The interlock will prevent car from moving.
2. Use caution around mechanical and electrical components.
3. Turn off power as soon as possible.

Question 11

11. BC Question - In regard to the requirements for Firemen Service elevators, a BC would be incorrect to think? (Elevators—5, 5.1.1, 5.1.4)
    A. Fireman service is required in all elevators that serve 3 or more landings or travel 36’ or more if plans were filed after January 1, 1980.
    B. In a Class E building that is 100’ or more in height, every elevator serving a floor must be equipped with Firemen Service if there are 3 or less cars serving that floor
    C. In a Class E building that is 100’ or more in height, every elevator serving a floor must be equipped with Fireman Service if the total load capacity of all cars serving the floor is less than 6000 pounds
    D. Where a floor is serviced by more than three elevator cars, at least three elevator cars with a total rated capacity of not less than 6,000 pounds shall be equipped for Firemen Service.

Answer 11

11. A

Firemen Service is required in all elevators that serve three or more landings or travel 25 feet or more if plans for the elevator were filed after January 1, 1980.

Question 12

12. An Officer discussing the Lobby Keyed Switch of Firemen service elevators was incorrect to state? (Elevators—5.2.1–A, B, C, D)
    A. The Lobby Keyed Switch is required to be within 4 feet of the lobby call button
    B. A Lobby Keyed Switch will exist either on the street floor for elevators that terminate on
    the street floor or on the Sky Lobby level for elevators terminating above the street floor
    C. The Lobby Key Switch can be operated by a FDNY 1620 key, or by a citywide standard elevator 2642 key
    D. Elevator keys are removable from Lobby Keyed Switches in the Normal, Firemen Service, and Door Open positions

Answer 12

12. D

E. The Normal and Firemen Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the key. The key is not removable in the door open position.

Question 13

13. Regarding elevator car keyed switches it is correct to state that? (Elevator—5.2.2 B)
    A. In an elevator car, a 1620 key is removable only in the “NORMAL” position
    B. The “HOLD” position is required in all elevators installed since March, 1991
    C. A firefighter with a 1620 key can move a car by changing the switch from HOLD to NORMAL
    D. Firefighters shall not move an elevator car found in “HOLD” without first informing the IC or a Sector Chief

Answer 13

13. B

E. The Normal and Firemen Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the key. The key is not removable in the door open position.

NOTE: Elevators approved for installation after March 1991 are required to be equipped with a three position switch:

A firefighter with a 1620 key can move the car by changing the switch position from HOLD to FIREMAN SERVICE.
THIS ACTION SHALL NOT BE TAKEN WITHOUT FIRST INFORMING THE FIREFIGHTERS OPERATING ON THAT FLOOR.

Question 14

14. First alarm units arrive at a fire on the 24th floor of a 60-story High-Rise Office building. In regards to the recall of the elevators, it would be accurate to make which statement(s)? (Elevators—5.3.1 A, B)
    A. Manual recall of elevators terminating on the street floor occurs by use of a 1620 key at the Lobby Keyed Switch on the street floor
    B. Manual recall of Sky Lobby elevators can be accomplished at a 3-position keyed switch at the Fire Command Station or the 3-position keyed switch on that elevator’s terminal floor
    C. Automatic recall of elevators will occur if an elevator landing smoke detector activates
    D. Automatic recall of elevators will occur if there is a water flow from a sprinkler system
    E. Automatic recall of elevators will occur if an HVAC detector activates

Answer 14

14. A, C, D

Note: For elevators whose terminals are above the street floor (sky lobby), a two position keyed switch will be at the fire command station. The switch will allow the elevators to be brought down non-stop to their lowest floor landing. A three position keyed switch will also be at their terminal floor landing.

Question 15

15. First alarm units arrive at a fire on the 28th floor of a 45-story High-Rise Office building. The Fire Safety Director informs members that Phase 1—Recall, was initiated using his elevator key. They then find all the elevator doors are closed in that bank. In this situation, in order to open the doors in this bank of elevators, the officer should use her 1620 key to place the Lobby Keyed Switch to the? (Elevators—5.3.1 A, B)
    A. DOOR OPEN position
    B. NORMAL position
    C. NORMAL position momentarily, then place it to FIREMEN SERVICE
    D. NORMAL position momentarily, then place it to DOOR OPEN

Answer 15

15. C

a. Determine if Phase I was initiated manually or automatically.
b. If Phase I was initiated manually the Firemen Service lobby keyed switch will be found in the Firemen Service position. Place the Firemen Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Normal”
(OFF) position. Then return it to the Firemen Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
c. If Phase I was initiated automatically (by lobby smoke detectors or sprinkler water flow), place the lobby keyed switch in the “Door Open” position. The doors of the Firemen Service cars will then open. In some older installations the doors of the non- Firemen
Service cars will not open and must be opened by use of the emergency hoistway door key.

Question 16

16. Emergency Stop Buttons are? (Elevators—5.3.1 D-5, 5.3.3 E)
    A. Operational only in Phase 1
    B. Operational only in Phase 2
    C. Operational in both Phase 1 and Phase 2
    D. Non-operational in both Phase 1 and Phase 2

Answer 16

16. B

E. Emergency Stop Button.

1. The Emergency Stop Button is rendered inoperative during the Phase I operation.
2. The Emergency Stop Button should be operational during Phase II operation.
3. Activation of the Emergency Stop Button in Phase II will quickly stop the elevator car.

Question 17

17. In Phase II — the operational phase, members should know which one of the following points is accurate? (Elevators—5.3.2 A-2, 3, 10, 5.3.3 C)
    A. As soon as the elevator car begins to move, press the Call Cancel button. The elevator car should stop immediately.
    B. When you reach the selected floor, press the Door Open button, keeping your finger on this button until the door starts to open
    C. The elevator car can be placed on or off of Fireman Service at any landing
    D. It is recommended that the Call Cancel Button be pressed whenever a member enters a car on Firemen Service to clear the floor selection panel

Answer 17

17. D
18. When the Call Cancel Button is operated, the elevator car stops at the next available floor landing (i.e., the first floor, in the direction of travel, that the elevator is electrically and mechanically capable of serving). The
    doors remain closed. A new floor selection must then be made.

D. Door Open Button.

1. The elevator door opens only when the Door Open Button is pressed.
2. The Door Open Button must be held until the doors are fully opened.
3. If the Door Open Button is released before the doors are fully opened, the doors return to the closed position. This feature is provided so that the release of the Door Open Button will automatically close the doors in the event the car inadvertently stops at the fire floor.
4. Members leaving the elevator car must verify that the doors are fully opened. If the member leaves the car before the doors are fully opened, the door will close behind him, isolating the car and placing it out of
5. An elevator can be placed on Firemen Service or taken off of Firemen Service only when the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is located.
   service.

Question 18

18. First alarm units arrive at a fire in a 42-story High-Rise Office building where there are 3 elevator banks. Bank A runs from 1-14, Bank B runs from 14-28, and Bank C runs from 28-42. There are access stairs in the building from floors 8-10, and 24-26. In the lobby you are able to determine from information at the Fire Command Station and occupants that the fire floor is the 25th floor. In this situation, you should take? (Elevators—6.1)
    A. A stairway in the lobby to walk to the fire floor
    B. Bank A to the 16th floor, then walk up to the fire floor
    C. Bank B to the 22nd floor, then walk up to the fire floor
    D. Bank B to the 23rd floor, then walk up to the fire floor

Answer 18

18. C

B. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

Question 19

19. When operating a hose line on the floor below a fire for members that are trapped in a stalled car, the line should be operated in a fog stream with a _______ degree fog pattern? (Elevators—6.3.1–#9)
    A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 75

Answer 19

19. A
20. Hose line on the floor below can be used to spray a fog stream between the car and the hoistway door. A 30 degree fog pattern should be used to cool and protect trapped persons during the rescue operation.

Question 20

20. First alarm units arrive at a fire on the 26th floor of a 40-story HRFPMD. The 1st Arriving LCC of Ladder 59 is attempting to reach the roof of this building. In this situation, he should know which point(s) to be correct? (More than one correct) (TB Elevators—6.4.4)
    A. Never take an elevator that serves all floors to go above a fire unless that elevator has Firemen Service
    B. If there is an elevator with a blind shaft on the fire floor, that elevator may be used to go above the fire
    C. A fire tower may be used to go above the fire
    D. Attack stairs may be used to go above the fire
    E. Evacuation stairs may be used to go above the fire

Answer 20

20. B, C, E
21. 4.4 Members shall never take a Firemen Service elevator which services all floors to go above the fire. When assigned to go above the fire via an elevator, choose an elevator which has a blind shaft on the fire floor. Remember a “Firemen Service” elevator is not necessarily a “safe” elevator. It can still be affected by heat, smoke or water entering the shaft. If there is no blind shaft elevator to go above the fire, stairs shall be used.

Note: Use a fire tower or a stairway other than the attack stair.

Question 21

21. An Engine company is taking an elevator up to the 11th floor of a 46-story High Rise FPMD for a heavy fire condition in apartment 13J on the 13th floor. On arrival at the 11th floor, the elevator car opens, but the hoistway door is locked. In this situation, the Officer would be correct to think that? (Elevators 6.5.1)
    A. This lock is not required to be openable with an FDNY 1620 key
    B. If the lock can be removed or opened with only minor damage to the door, do so
    C. Attempt to remove the lock even if some bending or warping could occur
    D. The preferred tactic in this situation is to drop down to a floor where exit is possible

Answer 21

21. D
22. If the hoistway door security lock can be removed or opened with no damage to the door, do so.
23. If removal of the locking device threatens any bending or warping of the door or door buck, make no attempt at removal. Warping or springing of the door assembly may interfere with the car’s electrical circuits, putting the car out of service.

Note: In high rise buildings, on the street floor and above, any locks placed on passenger elevator car or hoistway doors must be openable with a 1620 key.

Question 22

22. In a single car blind hoistway, emergency access openings shall be provided at every ______ floor, but not more than ______ feet apart. (Elevators — 7.3.2)
    A. 2nd, 24 B. 3rd, 36 C. 4th, 48 D. 5th, 60

Answer 22

22. B

Question 23

23. Elevator Car Door Zone Locks are found on NYC Housing Authority elevator cars. Regarding these locks, it would be incorrect to state that the Zone Lock? (Elevators — Add 8)
    A. Prevents the elevator car door from opening if the car does not stop level with the floor
    B. Is installed on the outside of the elevator car door on hinged and sliding type doors
    C. Will be visible on the front side of the elevator car towards the top of the door
    D. Is disengaged on hinged doors by lifting a rod straight up, and disengaged on sliding doors by depressing a lever

Answer 23

23. D

Question 24

1. The term LP is used for Liquefied Petroleum Gases that are stored as a liquid under pressure, but vaporize into a gas when the pressure is released. Regarding these LP gases it would be incorrect to state that they are? (HM 1—1.2)
   A. Flammable
   B. Heavier than air (2 to 2.5 times heavier)
   C. Odorless
   D. Similar to a highly volatile flammable liquid, but with more rapid vaporization when the LP gas is in a liquid state

Answer 24

1. B

1. 2.5 LP gases are heavier then air (1.5 to 2 times heavier).

Question 25

2. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a LP Gas fire in a tank truck on an express highway. Regarding the basic precautions during initial operations it would be correct to state that? (HM 1—1.3.1-1.3.3, 1.4.1)
   A. When approaching the fire from the upwind side, the engine officer ordered the nozzle firefighter to keep the nozzle low and aim it downward to disperse gases or flaming vapors
   B. Ladder Company members immediately evacuated areas in the vapor cloud and in the path of the vapor cloud
   C. The Chief ordered members not operating to remain at least 500 feet from the front and rear of the tank and at least 1000 feet from the sides
   D. Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped
   E. If a frost line is seen on the tank, apply water to the area below the frost line

Answer 25

2. B

1.3.1 Whenever possible, approach the fire or leak from upwind. Keep nozzle low and aim it upward to disperse gases or flaming vapors. Use multiple lines where
necessary.

1. 3.3 Keep everyone, not actually engaged in operations, at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.
2. 4.1 Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, except under extremely unusual conditions.
3. 4.7 Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the vapor area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.

Question 26

3. Battalion Chief arrives at a fire in a rear yard of a commercial business where an outside LPG tank is being exposed to high heat from a garage fire. In this situation, which tactic would be correct for him to consider? (HM 1—1.4.3, 1.4.5, 1.4.7, 1.4.8, 1.4.9)
   A. The LP gas tank exposed to the serious fire can be moved to a safe location by moving it in a position horizontal with the ground
   B. If LP gas is on fire and the flow of gas cannot be shut, immediately extinguish the gas fire
   C. Large quantities of water should be applied to the tank surface, particularly on the liquid area of the tank
   D. A bubble or blister forming on the tank shell should cause members to be withdrawn

Answer 26

3. D
4. 4.5 Where escaping gas is on fire and the flow cannot be shut off, application of large quantities of water on the tank and piping will permit controlled burning, allowing the fire to consume the contents of the tank without the danger of tank or pipe failure. Make certain that fire is NOT extinguished.
5. 4.7 Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the vapor area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.

1.4.9 Ordinarily no attempt should be made to move a tank involved in a fire. Usually little would be gained in reducing the hazard. However if specific conditions
develop that make it desirable to move the tank, it should be moved in an upright position. Never drag it in a manner that might further damage valves or piping.
Any attempt to turn the tank upright, to remove it to some remote location or to facilitate product withdrawal, should be done carefully to avoid damage to valves and piping, Portable LP gas cylinders that are exposed to a serious fire should be removed to a safe location.

Question 27

4. Units arrive on the scene of a LP gas leak with no fire, where LP gas vapors are dispersing in the area. In this situation, they would be correct to disperse the vapors by using a? (HM—1.5.2)
   A. Straight stream from the rear of the vapor path
   B. Water spray from the rear of the vapor path
   C. Straight stream across the vapor path
   D. Water spray across the vapor path

Answer 27

4. D

Question 28

5. LPG is indicated on a diamond shaped placard which displays what 4-digit number and what single digit DOT Hazardous-Material Class pictured below? (HM-1—Pg 9—Figure 17)

A. 1075 
       2
B. 1075 
     3
C. 1971 
     2
D. 1971
       3

Answer 28

5. A

Question 29

6. An officer discussing the possibility of a BLEVE with LPG would be correct to state that? (HM-1—2.4)
   A. LP gas is stored in cylinders just below its boiling point
   B. One cubic foot of LPG as a liquid will expand 170 times as a gas
   C. An impact failure of a cylinder in an accident can cause a BLEVE
   D. Satisfactory performance of a relief valve will generally prevent a BLEVE

Answer 29

6. C

2.4.1 Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature above its boiling point and remains under pressure and in liquid form only so long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
2.4.2 Heat applied to the cylinder will cause excessive pressure to build up in the cylinder opening the relief valve. One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times
as a gas.
2.4.3 There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of
minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve can not prevent a BLEVE.

Question 30

6. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a car accident where one of the vehicles is dual-fueled, utilizing both gasoline and LP gas. Because the vehicle has a propane leak, they would be incorrect to think that? (HM-1—2.5.1—A, B, C, 2.6.2 C)
   A. They should evacuate downwind and in low areas like cellars, evacuating first where the life hazard is greatest
   B. A combustible gas detector should be utilized
   C. When shutting the LP gas tank, they should turn the valve counter-clockwise
   D. Fog streams should be used to channel any vapors

Answer 30

6. C

The fuel shutoff valve can be turned off by turning it
CLOCKWISE.

Question 31

7. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a car fire where the vehicle is dual-fueled, utilizing both gasoline and LP gas. They determine the rear area of the car where the LPG tank is located is involved in fire. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think they should? (HM-1—2.6.4)
   A. Immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep this area clear
   B. Direct water fog on the LP gas tank’s outer surface
   C. Know the discharge point of the relief valve will be within 60 degrees of the vertical
   D. If they cannot locate the discharge point of the relief valve, then under the cover of water fog, open the trunk to turn off the supply valve to the fuel tank and apply water to the fuel tank

Answer 31

7. C

C. The discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars are positioned within 45 degrees of vertical. This could be located on top of the trunk or in the rear quarter panel or possibly off the rear bumper.

Question 32

8. Regarding the placarding of vehicles that are powered by CNG, it would be incorrect to state that? (HM-1—3.2.1)
   A. The ID number 1993 seen on a placard indicates Compressed Natural Gas
   B. Any vehicle that requires an FDNY permit to use CNG will be placarded only on the rear bumper
   C. CNG powered vehicles registered in NYS that do not require an FDNY permit are likely to be placarded only on their front bumper
   D. There may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard

Answer 32

8. D

Identification number 1971 in the diamond indicates that compressed natural gas is being used for propulsion. All other CNG powered vehicles registered in the state of New York are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper. Vehicles originating outside of New York
State are likely to be placarded in accordance with their applicable state regulations.
Note: There may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard.

Question 33

9. Regarding the properties of CNG it would be correct to state that it is? (HM-1—3.3, 3.4)
   A. Lighter than air (¾ as heavy)
   B. Non-Flammable
   C. Subject to a possible BLEVE if the cylinder containing CNG fails
   D. Also known as Methane because it is composed of 95% methane

Answer 33

9. D

3.3 Properties
3.3.1 Natural gas is flammable.
3.3.2 Natural gas is non-toxic. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement in
an enclosed area.
3.3.3 Natural gas is lighter than air.
3.3.4 Natural gas is composed of 95% Methane and 5% other gases. The two terms Natural Gas and Methane are used interchangeably.

Question 34

10. Units arriving at the scene of a bus accident where CNG gas is leaking would be incorrect to think they should? (HM-1—3.5.1)
    A. Evacuate areas downwind, especially cellar areas, and where the life hazard is greatest
    B. Use a fog line to direct the flow of vapors and protect exposures
    C. Locate the bus emergency shut-off — which is a ¼ turn valve
    D. Close the individual CNG cylinder valves by turning them clockwise

Answer 34

10. A
11. 3.3 Natural gas is lighter than air.

B. Evacuate the area:

1. Down wind
2. Where the life hazard is the greatest
3. Expand evacuation as necessary

Question 35

11. Regarding the properties of methanol, it would be incorrect to state that Methanol? (HM-1—4.2)
    A. Is a highly volatile flammable liquid
    B. Has a flashpoint of 54 degrees F
    C. Is soluble in water
    D. Has vapors slightly lighter than air
    E. Burns cleanly with little smoke and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight

Answer 35

11. D

4. 2.4 Methanol vapors are slightly heavier then air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas.

Question 36

12. Units operating at a major vehicular accident where a methanol powered vehicle has spilled a large amount of Methanol. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that a fog stream? (HM-1—4.4)
    A. Should be used to channel vapors away from possible ignition sources
    B. Should applied upwind of the spill to be most effective
    C. Will absorb vapors
    D. Will dilute vapors

Answer 36

12. B

D. Use fog stream to channel vapors away from possible ignition sources. Fog stream will absorb and dilute vapors. Apply down wind of the spill to be most effective.

Question 37

13. A Battalion Chief is operating at a large spill of methanol. He decides to apply a large amount of water to dilute the methanol rendering it non-flammable. He should know that the concentration of methanol must be reduced below \_\_\_\_\_\_ % to be effective? (HM-1—4.4.2B)
A. 10 
B. 20 
C. 30 
D. 40

Answer 37

13. B

B. Application of large amounts of water will dilute the Methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below
20% to be effective. Adequate water supply must be available. Run-off should be contained by diking or other means to prevent entry into sewers and to assist in the dilution.

Question 38

1. An officer conducting drill on access to subway stations was incorrect to make what statement about globes found on light posts at subway street entrances? (AUC 207 Add 3—1.2, 1.3, 1.4)
   A. Red globes indicate the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24-hour day
   B. Green globes indicate the subway entrance is open 24 hours a day
   C. Split type globes have the top half either red or green, and the bottom half will be clear providing lighting for the entrance
   D. Whenever light posts are installed, the first point of access, if possible, is the closest entrance with either a red or green globe

Answer 38

1. D

1.2 There are two globe colors being used at these entrances:
Red Globe: Indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day.

Green Globe: Indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day. There may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served
by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate.

1.4 Members are advised that where these light posts are installed, the first point of access, if possible, should be an entrance with a green globe.

Question 39

2. Metrocards issued to units are for access to the subway system only during fire and emergencies. Regarding the procedures for a lost, stolen or damaged Metrocard, it would be correct to state? (AUC 207 Add 3—3.6)
   A. Metro cards are required to be checked daily at the 0900 roll call only
   B. If a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen, or damaged, the Officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU of the particulars, the ID# of the Metrocard, and ensure it is deactivated
   C. The Officer on duty shall file a police report and complete a Lost Property Report including the Metrocard ID# on all reports, when a Metrocard is lost or stolen
   D. The Police Report and Lost Property Report shall be forwarded to PTSU requesting a replacement card be issued whenever a Metrocard is lost, stolen, or damaged,

Answer 39

2. C
3. 6.1 After each roll call, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus.

3.6.3 When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY Resource Center at 917-722-3251 advising of the
particulars, including the identification number of the Metrocard, to ensure that the Metrocard is deactivated.

Question 40

3. Due to the installation of High Exit / Entry Turnstiles (HEETs), many subway station entrances are now open full-time with a green globe. At these locations, it would be correct for members to think they will find an FDNY lock that?
4. Opens with a 1620 key
5. May have a red cylinder or a red faceplate
6. Is installed on the HEET itself
   A. 1, 2
   B, 1, 3
   C. 2, 3
   D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 40

3. A

Due to the installation of HEETs, a number of station entrances that had been open part-time are now open full-time (Green Globe). At these locations, a Fire Department 1620 lock (designated with a red cylinder or red faceplate) has been installed on the gate that is adjacent to the HEET in the fare area. This will allow access to the system (see Photos 1 and 2). Any unit that finds a gate at one of these entrances without a Fire Department 1620 lock shall forward a report through the chain of command to the PTSU, Bureau of Operations.

Question 41

4. It is incorrect to state subway station platform track identification signs? (AUC 207—Add 4)
   A. Are located at each end of the platform
   B. Show the “Normal” train movement
   C. Show the direction and distance to the nearest emergency exit
   D. If there is no emergency exit before the next station, then the ID of the next closest emergency exit will be indicated

Answer 41

4. D

• If there is not an emergency exit before the next station, then the identification of the next station is listed.

Question 42

5. The Captain of Ladder 127 arrives at a report of a track fire and after setting up the HT relay with Engine 298, he determines there is a small fire between stations. The MTA informs the Captain they have a Light Train in the station waiting for the FDNY. Battalion 50 has requested a 10-12 and is a few minutes out. In this situation, which point(s) would they be correct to consider? (AUC 207—Add 7—1, 2.1, 2.2, 2.2, 2.3, 2.5, 2.6)
   A. The Captain, as the IC, can decide to use the Light Train, based on the initial size-up
   B. The primary source of communications is for the FDNY to have direct use of the Train Conductor’s radio, as it is the only reliable means of communication on the train
   C. The Train Conductor’s radio is removable and will operate from any Train Conductor’s compartment in any car
   D. When power removal is requested, the Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the Light Train directly and the Chief through the dispatcher when power is confirmed off
   E. Progress Reports from the train shall be given as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes
   F. A Light Train may not travel past the next station without the permission of the MTA
   G. Battalion 50 can board the train if it is deemed necessary, but then must special call another Battalion Chief to coordinate operations

Answer 42

5. D, E, G
6. 1 The decision to use a “Light Train” is to be made only by the Chief in Charge (CIC), based on the size-up of the incident.

A. Agreement has been reached with the TA to allow the FD Unit direct use of the Train Operator’s radio.
It is essential that the FD Unit on the “Light Train” maintain control of this radio, since
it is the only reliable means of communications for the FD Unit on the train.

B. The Train Operator’s radio is removable, similar to removable automobile stereo players. This radio will operate from any Train Operator’s compartment in any car.

2.6 A “Light Train” shall not travel past the next station without the permission of the CIC.

Question 43

6. BC Question — Subway Ventilation fans are located throughout the Transit System. Regarding these plants, it would be correct to make which point(s)? (AUC 207—ADD 8—2.1–2.5)
   A. Most fan plants have two fans. Plants serving under-river tubes may have up to 4 fans
   B. All under-river tubes have fans located at both ends of the tube
   C. Every subway station has an associated fan plant
   D. Individual fans have an air movement capacity of 50,000 to 300,000 CFM
   E. Ventilation fans associated with under-river tubes are reversible, as are replacement fans

Answer 43

6. D, E
7. 1 There are approximately 200 ventilation fan plants located throughout the Transit System, with each fan plant having between one and four fans. Most of the plants have a single fan. Plants serving under-river tubes may have up to four fans.

2.2 With the exception indicated in the note, fans are located at both ends of all other under river tubes.
Note: The Lenox-White Plains tube of the Broadway IRT line located between the 135th and 149th Street stations, has no fans at either end of the tube.

2.3 Not every subway station has an associated fan plant.

Question 44

7. BC Question — A Battalion Chief arriving at a subway fire is informed by on-scene TA personnel that the ventilation fans for the involved subway station have been activated. In this situation, the Chief would be incorrect to think that? (AUC 207—Add 8—3.3, 4.3, 4.5, 4.7)
   A. Control of the fans passes to the FDNY upon arrival of the IC
   B. If fan operation needs to be stopped, the IC should coordinate this order directly with the on-scene TA personnel
   C. The IC can request, via the dispatcher, information regarding the capability of fans in the vicinity of the operation
   D. Fans operating in close proximity to emergency exits may cause smoke and heat to be drawn towards those exits, especially in the case of under-river tubes

Answer 44

7. B
8. 3 Where fans have been activated by the TA prior to FDNY arrival, the IC must determine, as quickly as possible, if fan operation should be shut down and convey that information to TA via FDNY dispatcher.

Question 45

8. BC Question — A Battalion Chief is operating at a train fire in an under-river tube between Manhattan and the Bronx. There is a significant smoke condition impacting the passengers and the Chief wants to use the Ventilation fans to minimize the smoke condition. In this case, the BC could choose which option(s)? (AUC 207—Add 8—5.3)
   A. Activate one fan only—Brooklyn or Manhattan, in the supply mode
   B. Activate one fan only—Brooklyn or Manhattan, in the exhaust mode
   C. Activate fans at both ends—one in the supply mode, one in the exhaust mode
   D. Activate fans at both ends—both in the supply mode
   E. Activate fans at both ends—both in the exhaust mode

Answer 45

8. A, B, C
9. 3 The ventilation fans of under-river tubes are reversible, that is, capable of being operated in either the supply or exhaust mode and are located at both ends of the tube. The IC may opt to activate fans at one end of the tube only or activate the fans at both ends of the tube, one in the exhaust mode and the other in the supply mode.

Question 46

Answer questions 9 - 10 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units are operating at Penn Station where there is a train on fire that has 3rd rail, catenary, and 480 volt standby power.

9. In this situation, it would be correct to think that the application of water while residual static power still exists requires? (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 9—2.6, 3.1, 3.2)
   A. A voltage detecting device present, to be used by a Class A rail employee who can detect and / or confirm residual static current
   B. When applying water while residual static electricity is present, members should use a fog nozzle, in a fog pattern, from a platform, using short bursts.
   C. All fire teams applying water with a hand-held fog nozzle must observe a minimum approach distance of 4 feet to the catenary wires
   D. Water may only be applied into the train, avoiding contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph. Do not direct water above or below the train

Answer 46

9. B
10. 6 VOLTAGE DETECTING DEVICE – A device use by the railroad Class “A” employee (A Man) to detect alternating current (AC) Voltage. When the voltage detecting device is held against the catenary conductor (by means of a long pole), it detects if the catenary conductor is energized or de-energized. This instrument will determine if a power source has been discontinued. It WILL NOT detect residual static current.

All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach distance of ten feet (10’) to catenary wires.

3.2.7 Hose stream should not be directed over the top of a train where pantograph or catenary wires are located.

Question 47

Answer questions 9 - 10 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units are operating at Penn Station where there is a train on fire that has 3rd rail, catenary, and 480 volt standby power.

10. BC Question — A Battalion Chief may choose to not place water on a train fire after all power sources are removed, but residual static electricity is still present if there is no \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ present at the ICP? (AUC 207—Add 9—4.3)
A. Trainmaster 
B. Railroad Transportation Supervisor
C. Railroad Power Director
D. FDNY Deputy Chief

Answer 47

10. B
11. 3 Railroad Transportation Supervisor/s will respond to the ICP, report in, and remain there for the duration of the operation to assist the IC. If a railroad supervisor is not stationed at the ICP to assist in coordinating all the activities in this addendum, then the IC may choose not to implement the above procedures and wait for the railroad to place of the grounds prior to the use of any fog stream or water.

Question 48

11. BC Question — Amtrak and NJ Transit operate on 12KV, 25-cycle Hz, catenary power in the NY tunnel system. Amtrak has installed motor operated catenary grounding switches to connect the catenary circuits to a solid ground at each end of the catenary circuit in order to remove the static charge. For operational purposes during tunnel fires or emergencies, the FDNY requires? (AUC 207—Add 9B)
    A. Only the grounding sticks be applied
    B. Only the motor operated grounding switches be applied
    C. Both the grounding sticks and grounding switches be applied
    D. Neither the grounding sticks nor the grounding switches be applied

Answer 48

11. D

Question 49

12. Regarding the use of Sound Powered telephones and dry standpipes in subway stations, it would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 207—ADD 10—2.2, 2.3, 3.5, 3.6)
    A. Standpipe outlets on the platform are found in a locked stainless, steel cabinet opened by a Subway Emergency Exit Key. They do not contain hose.
    B. Sound Powered Telephone outlet jacks are located in a secure metal box that can be opened with an FDNY 1620 key
    C. In most cases, the Sound Powered Telephone outlet jack box will be inside the standpipe cabinet. Therefore, units need to bring both a 1620 key and a Subway Emergency Exit Key to the platform, along with the SPT headset.
    D. The standard HT relay procedure may be replaced or augmented by the use of Sound Powered Telephones

Answer 49

12. D
13. 6 The standard handi-talkie relay procedure for communicating during subway emergencies can be augmented by sound-powered telephones, depending on the circumstances and the location of the incident.

Question 50

13. An Emergency Evacuation Device is a yellow, 7-foot long device, with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside that weighs about 42 pounds. Regarding its use and location, which point(s) below would be correct? (AUC 207—Add 11—2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 5.1.1, 5.1.3)
    A. The EED positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car, will reach the roadbed at a 75-degree angle
    B. At underground or grade level stations, the EED is located at the first blue light south on the southbound platform, typically within 200 feet of the station
    C. At elevated stations, the EED will be located within 50 feet of the full time token booth
    D. In under-river tubes, an EED is located at the base of the emergency exits, at both ends of the tunnel
    E. An EED may be used as a bridge between 2 adjacent cars, provided there are personnel stationed in each car to provide assistance and stability.
    F. An EED may be used as a stair between the platform and the roadbed, with personnel assigned to both the top and bottom of the ladder

Answer 50

13-(D, E, F)

2.3 When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 70° angle (safe for ascent / descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface (Figure 3). A notch cut in the beams on one end of the
ladder helps to anchor the EED in position against the car and or platform.

3. 1 At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
4. 2 At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

Question 51

1. Stretching and operating hoselines is the primary function of an engine company. Regarding the placement of hoselines at structural fires, it would be incorrect to state? (Engines 8.2.1)
   A. The purpose of the first line is to protect the primary means of egress for occupants evacuating the building and to confine and extinguish the fire
   B. In most cases the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire. An exception may be made if heavy smoke or flames are issuing from windows opening onto fire escapes and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape
   C. If there is no life hazard in the fire building, the first line should be positioned between the fire and the most severe life exposure
   D. In the absence of a life hazard in the fire building or exposures, the first line is placed to protect the greatest amount of property
   E. If using streams to protect an exposure, place water onto the building’s surface

Answer 51

1. B

An exception to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when FLAME is issuing from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape.

Question 52

2. Engine 308 arrives as the second engine for a fire on the first floor of a 2-story PD. In this situation, the second arriving engine officer should know that? (Eng 8.4, 8.7)
3. If there is a suspected or confirmed life hazard that requires the immediate stretching of a second line, E308 should stretch an immediate second line
4. If the amount of hose required is 4 lengths or less, E308’s officer should make contact with the first engine officer to ascertain if E308’s assistance is required
   A. 1 only
   B. 2 only
   C. Both 1 and 2 are correct
   D. Neither 1 or 2 is correct

Answer 52

2. B
3. 4 Unless the presence of a confirmed life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line, the second engine shall augment and assist the first engine.

8.7 In one and two story structures, where the amount of hose required is four lengths or less, the need to assist on the first hoseline is not as great and engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. In such cases, the officer of the second engine company should make contact with the officer of the first engine company to
ascertain if their assistance is required.

Question 53

3. Regarding the initial apparatus positioning of engine companies who are going to backstretch at a fire, it would be incorrect to state that? (Engines 8.12.1, 8.12.2)
   A. Generally it is better for engine apparatus to stop the proper distance beyond the building entrance, taking into account the type of ladder apparatus responding directly from behind
   B. The location of the ladder apparatus turntable dictates how far from the front of the building the engine backstep should initially be on arrival
   C. Engines may line up directly with the building entrance in between parked cars when they are on wide streets with room for both engine and ladder placement or when large buildings are encountered and a long complicated stretch is anticipated
   D. The most desirable position is stretching around the engine apparatus if stopped before the fire building

Answer 53

3. D
   The least desirable position is one that requires stretching around the apparatus as in the case when the engine stops before reaching the fire building. This is a
   difficult and time consuming stretch, but sometimes is unavoidable. A situation that requires the immediate use of an aerial or tower ladder will preclude the
   engine apparatus from stopping in line with the building entrance if this would delay the positioning and operation of the ladder company apparatus. Engine and ladder company chauffeurs must communicate.

Question 54

4. An Engine officer drilling on the well-hole stretch was correct to state that? (Engine 8.14.1, 8.14.3)
   A. The rule of thumb is that a 6-story stretch up a well-hole requires about one length of hose
   B. The nozzle firefighter performing a well-hole stretch should carry the nozzle and lead length up the well hole at both narrow and wide well-hole stretches
   C. If a second hose line is stretched up a well-hole, the nozzle firefighter should carry both the nozzle and lead length, only if the well-hole is wide
   D. When sufficient line has been pulled up the well-hole, the line must be secured with a hose strap

Answer 54

4. D

The rule of thumb is that a 5 story stretch up a well-hole requires about one length of hose (see Fig. 8-4A & 8-4B).

A. The nozzle firefighter has two options depending on the size and configuration of the well-hole.
• Narrow well-hole - nozzle firefighter drops his/her folds at the base of stairway, securely grasps the nozzle and proceeds up stairway pulling hose up through well-hole.
• Wide well-hole - nozzle firefighter carries nozzle and lead length in well.

8.14.4 When a second hoseline is stretched up a well-hole, caution must be exercised to ensure the first and second lines do not become entangled. To prevent
entanglement, the nozzle firefighter should carry only the nozzle and change hands at each newel post (turn) as the line is stretched up the well-hole. A utility rope can also be used if the well-hole is large enough to accommodate its use.

Question 55

5. An Engine Company arrives first due at the scene of a fire in a commercial building and finds a yellow siamese connection on the front of the building. In this situation, they would know that it indicates an/a? (Engines 9.3.2)
   A. Automatic Sprinkler System
   B. Non-Automatic Sprinkler System
   C. Combination Standpipe / Sprinkler System
   D. Sprinkler System with Perforated Pipe

Answer 55

5. C

Question 56

6. An Engine Company arriving first due finds fire on the 31st floor of a 40-story FPHRMD. Regarding the supply of the standpipe system, the Officer would be incorrect to be guided by which point? (Engines 9—9.3.3, 9.3.4, 9.3.5, 9.3.6, 9.3.12)
   A. Always supply a standpipe with 3 ½” hose
   B. When possible, supply a standpipe with at least two different pumpers and through at least two independent siamese connections.
   C. Do not supply a standpipe via a floor outlet that has a Pressure Reducing Device (PRD) unless it cannot be removed and there is no other outlet available without a PRD
   D. The standpipe system should be supplied with 250 psi

Answer 56

6. D

Recommended Pump Discharge Pressures for Standpipe Operations
Fire Floor
Recommended
Pump Discharge Pressure
1 – 10 150 psi
11 – 20 200 psi
21 – 30 250 psi
31 – 40 300 psi
41 – 50 350 psi
51 – 60 400 psi
61 – 70 450 psi
71 – 80 500 psi
81 – 90 550 psi
91 – 100 600 psi
101 – 110 650 psi

Question 57

7. The Captain of Engine 65 is inspecting a new High Rise Multiple Dwelling being constructed in his administrative area. The building is already 75 stories and over 750 feet high, and has separate standpipe risers and siameses for the standpipes labelled “Low Zone” and “High Zone”. Regarding the standpipe system for new buildings constructed under the 2008 Building Code, it would be correct to state that? 9.3.13
   A. When a standpipe riser is over 500 feet, separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” risers and siameses are required
   B. Separate risers for a “Low Zone” and a “High Zone” are interconnected only so that the “Low Zone” can augment the “high zone” if necessary, but not vice versa.
   C. The Siamese Connections shall be identified with signs stating “Low Zone” or “High Zone” and indicate the floors they serve
   D. The “High Zone” is also known as the “Express Lane” since it bypasses lower floors

Answer 57

7. C
8. 3.13 Buildings constructed under the 2008 building code having a standpipe riser over 600 feet in height shall have separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections (See Fig. 9-4). These separate risers are not interconnected, so supplying the High Zone riser will not charge the Low Zone riser and vice versa. The connections shall be identified with signage stating either “Low Zone “or “High Zone” and indicate the floors they serve. The High Zone riser is also known as “Express Piping” since it bypasses lower floors.

Question 58

8. All of the following guidelines concerning standpipe operations are correct except which one point? (Engines 9.4.2, 9.4.3, 9.4.4) CHAPTER 9, ADDENDUM 1
   A. All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be connected to outlets on floors below the fire floor unless a variation is approved by the Division Commander and entered into CIDS
   B. The first and second arriving engine companies shall always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hoseline
   C. If a PRD cannot be removed from a standpipe outlet, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, then it is permissible to stretch off an outlet with a PRD
   D. The recommended pump pressure for fire on the 85th floor of a building is 550 psi, and use of a 3rd stage is required at this level

Answer 58

8. D
9. 3RD STAGE PUMPING OPERATIONS
10. 1 Pressures exceeding 600 psi will REQUIRE a 3rd stage engine. When 3rd stage pumping is implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd Stage Engine is assigned to the incident. ECCs intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC. Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.
11. 2 As compared to two-stage engines, three-stage engines (with the third stage engaged) can pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump rpm’s. This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the PREFERRED choice for pumping operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi. (Figure 7)

Question 59

9. Officers and firefighters should be aware that which point below regarding standpipe operations is incorrect? (Engines 9.4.6, 9.4.9)
   A. The first arriving Control FF should always using the in-line pressure gauge, and remain at the standpipe outlet until relieved by the second arriving Control FF.
   B. When using a 2 ½” lead length with an 1 1/8” MST, the standpipe outlet pressure with water flowing should be 70 psi for 3 lengths
   C. When using a 2 ½” lead length with an 1 1/8” MST, the standpipe outlet pressure with water flowing should be 80 psi for 4 lengths
   D. At below grade operations, head pressures will increase 5 psi for every 10 feet below grade

Answer 59

9. A

9.4.6 The first arriving control firefighter shall remain at the standpipe outlet throughout the operation and
communicate with the first arriving engine officer to ensure that adequate pressure is supplied to the nozzle.

Question 60

10. High pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines have 3” high pressure hose, high pressure fittings and outlets, and tether straps with gated hooks. Regarding High Pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines it is correct to make which point(s)? (Engines 9—Add 1—1.1, 1.2, 1.3)
    A. High Pressure Engines utilizing specialized high pressure equipment can pump over 250 psi and up to 600 psi
    B. The 3rd stage of a 3rd Stage Engine can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi
    C. High Pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines both have two high pressure outlets
    D. The IC shall be notified whenever high pressure pumping (over 250 psi) is necessary
    E. A conventional engine pump should not operate in pressures over 250 psi unless emergency conditions exist or they are ordered to do so by the IC

Answer 60

10-(A, B, D)

 High-pressure outlets.
o One HP outlet on HP Engines.
o Two HP outlets on 3rd Stage Engines.

1.4 All engines, including conventional engines, are capable or providing pressures over 250 psi. However, unless emergency conditions exist and they are ordered to do so by the IC, conventional engines should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi.

Question 61

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 12:
First alarm units are dispatched to a fire reported on the 91st floor of Office building. On arrival, units find fire showing from an upper floor of a 105-story building.

11. Regarding the pumping operations in this situation, they would be correct to consider which point(s) below? (Engines 9—add 1—3.1)
    A. High pressure hose and fittings (painted white and noticeably heavier) and tether straps must be used. Supply lines should be connected to high pressure outlets.
    B. No more than 3 connected lengths of high pressure supply hose should be stretched to a fire department connection
    C. Prior to initiating high-pressure pumping, a Safety Zone of at least 50 feet in all directions must be established on each side of the engine and the high-pressure supply hose. If two connected lengths of high-pressure supply hose are in use, the zone must expand to 100 feet.
    D. Each engine operating at high-pressure must be controlled by an ECC and assisted by another ECC from a non-pumping engine
    E. ECC’s of non-pumping engines shall assist in keeping persons out of the safety zone
    F. Supply lines must be secured by tether strap to both the engine apparatus and Fire Department Connection. If more than one length of hose is required, each length must be tethered and secured to each other by the tether gated hook
    G. A Battalion Chief shall be designated as the High-Pressure Pumping Group Supervisor, and must be designated prior to implementing High-Pressure pumping
    H. Preset pressures on apparatus with Pro-Pressure Governors should not be used

Answer 61

11-(A, D, E, F, H)

 Whenever possible, an engine supplying high-pressure should be positioned within 1 hose length of the fire department connection being supplied. No more than 2 connected lengths of high-pressure supply hose should be stretched to the fire department connection.

 Prior to initiating high-pressure pumping, a safety zone must be established on each side of the engine and high-pressure supply hose. Warning tape, rope or stanchions are to be used to designate this zone. When high-pressure pumping operations are conducted,
Maintain safety zones of at least 50 feet around a working engine in all directions including the high-pressure supply hose. If two connected lengths of high pressure supply hose are in use, the safety zone may need to be expanded.

 A Battalion Chief should be designated as the High-Pressure Pumping Group Supervisor to control this pumping operation. The operation may be implemented pending their arrival.

Question 62

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 12:

First alarm units are dispatched to a fire reported on the 91st floor of Office building. On arrival, units find fire showing from an upper floor of a 105-story building.

12. The Battalion Chief, as the IC, should know which point to be correct? (Engines 9—Add 1—3.3, 4.1, 4.2)
    A. The standpipe should be supplied by two engines. Two high pressure supply lines should not be connected to a single building siamese connection, unless absolutely necessary
    B. Only a Battalion Chief or higher can order the use of a 3rd stage
    C. A 3rd stage engine with the 3rd stage engaged is preferred for pressures over 450 psi
    D. Pressures exceeding 550 psi require a 3rd stage engine

Answer 62

12. B

Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building siamese connection.

4. 1 Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage engine.
5. 2 As compared to two-stage engines, three-stage engines (with the third stage engaged) can pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump rpm’s.. This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi.

Question 63

13. Air pressurized standpipes are required in a building under construction reaching greater than 75 feet or in a building undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe. Regarding how these systems work, it would be incorrect to state? (Engines 9—Add 2—1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2)
    A. An audible alarm sounds, only at the site, if pressure in the system rises above 25 psi; or if pressure drops below a predetermined supervisory pressure due to an opening in the system
    B. When an alarm sounds, all work at the site must cease immediately. Concrete pouring operations in progress shall be permitted until an orderly termination can take place
    C. For the FDNY to use an air pressurized system at a fire operation, the air pressure must be released from the system prior to uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water
    D. A 2 ½” manual air release / drain valve is found immediately adjacent to the siamese connection. Remove the cap to manual air release / drain valve and open the valve fully to release the air.
    E. The number of air release valves required must ensure air pressure is released in no more than 4 minutes. FDNY must thus open all air release valves if there are more than one.

Answer 63

13. E

When encountering systems with more than one manual air release valve, all manual air release valves should be opened.

Question 64

14. First alarm units are operating at a construction site where there is a fire on the 20th floor and they find an air-pressurized standpipe system. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think? (Engines 9—Add 2—2.4,
    A. Screw in type siamese caps are required to provide an air-tight seal
    B. The Control FF, after reaching the floor where the hoseline connection will be made, should remove the outlet cap, open the outlet control valve, and wait for water.
    C. The air compressor should be deactivated
    D. If an engine is attempting to augment the system and they find water spraying out from siamese caps under pressure, they should stop cap removal and supply another siamese, or the first floor outlet, or the drain valve.

Answer 64

14. C

2. 4 It is not necessary to deactivate the air compressor as it will shut off when the standpipe is supplied with water.