CO CLASS #2 - Week of 92318 FFP – Private Dwellings Chap. #1 - 5, T.B. – Foam – Pg 1 -15, ERP – Haz Mat PG 20 – end, sec. 11 – end, Safety Bull. #7Instructor DC Jim DiDomenico

Question 1

1. An officer conducting drill on foam operations stated that when using foam on a fire, the fire must be completely extinguished, or it will begin to burn back across the surface as soon as the foam begins to break down. (TB Foam—2.2)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 1

1. A

Foam extinguishes progressively. Firefighters can begin extinguishing a fire at the
edge of the fuel that is nearest to them and continue to apply more agent, projecting
the boundary of the foam blanket further away with each movement. Other agents
are very “transient,” meaning that the area extinguished is subject to fire coming back
across the surface as the agent disperses. An important point to consider is that the
fire must be completely extinguished or it will begin to burn back across the surface
as soon as the foam begins to break down. In this case all of the foam applied will
have been wasted

Question 2

2. A Lieutenant orders the use of an AFFF extinguisher on an oil burner fire in the cellar of a multiple dwelling. In this situation, he would be incorrect to think that? (TB Foam—2.4, 3.2)
   A. The AFFF will spread rapidly over the surface leading to a fast knockdown
   B. The film produced by the AFFF may be unstable because AFFF is not aerated
   C. The AFFF should provide a good seal against hot metal tank surfaces in the boiler room.
   D. As a precaution, a foam handline should be called for as a backup

Answer 2

2. C

2.4 Foam Solution
 Foam solution is the mixture that results when foam concentrate is proportioned at a predetermined rate with water. Foam solution can be produced in several ways: o Premixed solutions such as the AFFF extinguisher are easy to prepare, but lose their strength over time, and it is impossible to premix sufficient quantities to extinguish large fires. When using the AFFF extinguisher, knockdown will be observed but the film produced might be unstable because it is not aerated. Breakdown around hot metal, especially pipes in boiler rooms, should be anticipated. As a precaution, a foam handline should be made ready. o Another method used to obtain foam solution is to educt the concentrate into a moving stream of water using a foam eductor. Water moving through a hoseline is forced through the body of the eductor, which tapers down to a narrow throat area where it is then permitted to expand back to the full size of the hose. As the water rushes across the throat and expands, it creates an area of low pressure. This is called the “venturi effect.” This venturi effect is used to draw concentrate out of its container up through a pick-up tube and into the eductor where it is mixed with the water stream. o Foam solution can be produced by injecting a supply of concentrate at the proper proportion into a pumper that is also receiving a source of water. The foam and water mix in the pump and are discharged as solution. This is accomplished by a portable Foam Injection Metering Module (FIMM) carried by Satellite Units and Foam Tankers.

3.2 Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)  Extinguishing Characteristics o AFFF spreads rapidly over the surface, leading to faster knockdown of fire than protein-based foams. This permits use of a lower application rate and results in less concentrate used. o AFFF can be used through a standard fog nozzle where the reach of the stream is a consideration, or in other specialized circumstances. o AFFF’s rapid drainage time causes poor resistance to flashback and burn-back. o AFFF is not suitable for use on Reformulated Gasoline, Gasohol or polar solvents. Its use should be restricted to hydrocarbon fuels which do not contain any polar additives. It is excellent for fuel oil, kerosene and jet fuel products. o AFFF has little fuel-shedding ability and it should not be used for sub-surface injection. o AFFF has trouble sealing against hot metal tank surfaces. Additional cooling lines on the tank exterior or higher application rates may be required to overcome this. o Wind, water spray and extended pre-burn times affect the stability of the blanket.  Distribution o FDNY’s use of AFFF is limited to a 2 ½-gallon hand-held extinguisher, through a straight bore nozzle, on small oil burner fires either in or out of the pit.

Question 3

3. There are 4 primary methods of extinguishment that occur when the FDNY uses foam to extinguish a fire. Regarding these methods, it is incorrect to state that foam? (TB Foam—2.5)
   A. Smothers—prevents air from mixing with the flammable vapors given off by the liquid
   B. Suppresses–Stops or reduces the generation and release of flammable vapors
   C. Separates the flame from the surface of the fuel, reducing the tendency of the fuel to boil, thus giving off fewer vapors
   D. Cools—Foam concentrate cools the fuel, further reducing vapor generation

Answer 3

3. D

 Finished firefighting foams are designed to be lighter than the fuels they are placed on and thus float on the surface of the fuel. This results in four primary methods of extinguishment:
o Smothers - prevents air from mixing with the flammable vapors given off by the liquid.
o Suppresses - stops or reduces the generation and release of flammable vapors.
o Separates - separates the flame from the surface of the fuel, which reduces the tendency of the fuel to boil, thus giving off fewer vapors.
o Cools - water content of the foam cools the fuel, further reducing vapor generation. It also extinguishes burning Class “A” materials in the spill area and cools adjacent metal surfaces such as tank walls.

Question 4

4. Regarding the FDNY’s Universal Gold 1%-3% AR-AFFF, it would be incorrect to state that? (TB FOAM—3.1)
   A. It is freeze / thaw stable—if frozen, upon thawing there is no performance loss
   B. Can be generated only with fresh water C. Should not be mixed as a concentrate with any other type of other foam product
   D. May be used as finished foam side by side with other foam products on the same fire

Answer 4

4. B

3.1 TYPES OF LOW EXPANSION FOAM Universal Gold 1% - 3% Alcohol Resistant - Aqueous Film Forming Foam (-AFFF)
 Extinguishing Characteristics
o AR-AFFF foam concentrate is designed to fulfill two specific functions. The first is to form a protective membrane between the fuel and the foam. The second is to make the foam much more stable and heat-resistant, which provides better burn-back resistance.
o AR-AFFF is freeze/thaw stable. If the product is frozen, upon thawing there is no performance loss.
o AR-AFFF should not be mixed with any other type of foam product.
o AR-AFFF can be used side-by-side with other foam products on the same fire, when necessary.
o AR-AFFF foam can be generated with either fresh or salt water.
o Properly stored, AR-AFFF can remain effective for up to 25 years.
 Distribution
o AR-AFFF foam is the most widely used concentrate in the Department and is currently allotted as follows:
 Three (3) red-banded five-gallon containers issued to every Engine company.
 Two (2) red-banded five-gallon containers issued to every Ladder company.
 1500 gallons stored on each of the Department’s five (5) Foam Tankers.
 Stored in 55 gallon drums at each of the Foam Tanker locations.
 Stored in five-gallon containers at each of the 19 Foam Depots citywide.
 Marine Division carries 3300 gallons in both the “343” and “Firefighter 2.” “The Bravest” holds 200 gallons and each of the 10 - 33’ boats carry 25 gallons.

Question 5

5. Foam concentrates must not be mixed, thus the FDNY color codes foam containers around the top as follows? (TB Foam—4.1)
   A. AR-AFFF—Brown, Hi-Expansion—Yellow, AFFF—Blue
   B. AR-AFFF—Red, Hi-Expansion—Yellow, AFFF—Black
   C. AR-AFFF—Brown, Hi-Expansion—Yellow, AFFF—Black
   D. AR-AFFF—Red, Hi-Expansion—Yellow, AFFF—Blue

Answer 5

5. B

4.1 4.2 It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the situation encountered. To ensure that foam concentrates are not mixed, containers are color-coded (banded) around the top, as follows:
 AR-AFFF Red
 Hi-Expansion Yellow
 AFFF Black

Question 6

6. Units are operating at a flammable liquid fire in a tank where AR-AFFF was used to extinguish the fire, but there are spot fires around the edges of the tank. Regarding the extinguishment of these spot fires, it would be most correct to think? (TB Foam—4.2)
   A. The use of dry chemical will have an adverse reaction with the foam
   B. A dry chemical extinguisher should apply a high velocity stream directly into the tank
   C. A dry chemical extinguisher should be used to discharge dry chemical into a foam stream
   D. A Purple K unit should apply a high velocity dry chemical stream directly into the tank

Answer 6

 Mixing different concentrates must be avoided at all costs, particularly in the storage tanks of Foam Tankers and the Foam Tender. The reaction that takes place when two different types of concentrate mix, or when two different brands of the same type of concentrate mix, can have a very destructive effect on the foam. This could result in a foam blanket that does not work when applied. In extreme cases, the mixing of two different types of concentrate may result in the foam gelling into a semi-solid mass that cannot be removed. When this occurs, the storage/booster tank and everything in it must be placed out-of-service and disposed of.

 At times, the Department will intentionally apply two different types of finished firefighting foam at an incident. This is routinely done at aircraft incidents. Port Authority crash trucks are mandated by the Federal Aviation Administration to use AFFF, due to its fast knockdown capability on jet fuels. Either prior to or after the evacuation has occurred, FDNY units will arrive and may be faced with the task of overhauling the scene. This could involve entering a foam blanket that is floating on jet fuel. Prior to and throughout the entry into this area, a blanket of aerated AR-AFFF foam should be applied to provide maximum security to our members.

 Modern foams do not have an adverse reaction with dry chemical, but the force of a high velocity stream of dry chemical can mechanically disrupt a foam blanket. It may be necessary to utilize a dry chemical extinguisher to extinguish spot fires around the edges of a tank. Dry chemical must be used to extinguish a three-dimensional fire when the burning fuel is dropping down. Apply dry chemical in combination with the foam stream so that any disruption is immediately recovered. This can be accomplished by discharging the dry chemical into the foam stream using hand-held extinguishers or one of the Department’s six Dry Chemical Units. The foam stream will carry the dry chemical to where it is needed.

Question 7

7. Company and Chief Officers must have knowledge of the capabilities of the FDNY Foam Delivery System. Which point below is incorrect regarding this system? (TB Foam—7.2, 8.4)
   A. A first alarm of 3 engines (who carry three 5 gallon containers of AR-AFFF) and 2 ladders (who carry two 5 gallon containers of AR-AFFF) will provide 65 gallons of AR-AFFF concentrate
   B. 65 gallons of AR-AFFF foam concentrate provides approximately 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3% setting on the educator.
   C. With one handline in operation and 65 gallons of AR-AFFF foam concentrate, you can extinguish approximately 800 square feet of fire
   D. Engine companies have handline foam eductors, which flow 125 GPM. At 3%, these eductors consume 3.75 gallons of foam concentrate per minute

Answer 7

7. C

8.4 Spills
 If the spill has ignited, stretch a foam handline and extinguish the fire. The amount of concentrate available on a first alarm assignment is 13 five-gallon containers. With one handline in operation, you will be able to extinguish approximately 600 square feet (20’X30’) of fire. This supply will last approximately 17 minutes at a 3% setting. Using two handlines simultaneously will increase the area covered, but reduce operational time. Both criteria are important for a successful operation. Anything more than a small spill may require additional alarms as well as the transmission of signal 10-86.

Note: NFPA 11 recommends having a 15-minute supply of concentrate on hand for spill fires.

Question 8

Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario:
You are a Lieutenant working in E99, which has a second piece, a Foam Tanker. You are special called by a Battalion Chief to operate at an overturned gasoline tank truck mishap where 1000 gallons of gasoline has been spilled in the street. The BC orders you to operate your Foam Deck Gun to cover the spill using the 1500 gallons of AR-AFFF in your Foam Tanker.

8. If you utilize your Foam Deck Gun with a 1000 GPM nozzle, educting concentrate at 3%, your 1500 gallon tank supply of foam concentrate will last approximately how long?

A. 50 minutes
B. 66 minutes
C. 75 minutes
D. 100 minutes

Answer 8

8. A

 Foam Tankers are excellent attack units for medium-scale flammable or combustible liquid incidents such as an overturned gasoline tank truck. Supplying water to the tanker and utilizing the foam deck gun will provide a mobile foam platform in which a 500 GPM, 750 GPM or 1000 GPM nozzle application can be applied at 1% or 3%. This procedure will enable one 1500-gallon Foam Tanker to supply finished firefighting foam for the following durations:

NOZZLE 1% 3%
1000 GPM nozzle 150 min. 50 min.
750 GPM nozzle 200 min. 66 min.
500 GPM nozzle 300 min. 100 min.

Note: During this operation the Foam Tanker does not need to be running or in pumps. If necessary during a large operation, the Foam Tanker can also provide concentrate to a portable FIMM simultaneously.

Question 9

Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario:
You are a Lieutenant working in E99, which has a second piece, a Foam Tanker. You are special called by a Battalion Chief to operate at an overturned gasoline tank truck mishap where 1000 gallons of gasoline has been spilled in the street. The BC orders you to operate your Foam Deck Gun to cover the spill using the 1500 gallons of AR-AFFF in your Foam Tanker.

9. In this situation, all of the following tactic(s) below would be correct except?
   A. A dedicated Engine with an operating hydrant should be assigned to supply the Foam Tanker
   B. Water should be supplied to the Foam Tanker at 200 PSI
   C. The Foam Tanker must be running, and must be in pumps
   D. A 3 ½” supply line should be used to supply the Foam Tanker and extra 3 ½” hose should be stretched to allow the Foam Tanker to reposition as progress is made

Answer 9

9. C

Note: During this operation the Foam Tanker does not need to be running or in pumps. If necessary during a large operation, the Foam Tanker can also provide concentrate to a portable FIMM simultaneously.

Question 10

10. BC QUESTION — Regarding the duties of FOAM Coordinators on Signals 10-86 or 1087, it would be correct to state that? (TB Foam 7.8)
    A. Three Foam Coordinators respond on signals 10-86 or 10-87
    B. One Foam Coordinator, if necessary, may be used for routine fire duty at a 10-86 or 10-87
    C. Upon completion of a major foam operation, the first arriving Foam Coordinator shall request a Foam Inventory through the dispatcher.
    D. When more than 400 gallons of foam concentrate is used at an operation, a Foam Coordinator shall take steps to replenish concentrate to the Foam System

Answer 10

10. C
11. 8 8. 8.1 Foam Coordinators  All Battalion Chiefs have been trained in foam operations and may be designated as “Foam Coordinators.” Two Foam Coordinators will respond to all incidents where signal 10-86 or 10-87 is transmitted to manage foam operations and serve as technical advisors to the Incident Commander. Responsibilities include:

o Report to the Incident Commander and identify yourself as the Foam Coordinator.

o Ensure the Department’s foam capability is effectively utilized and coordinated as operationally required.
 Determine which product is required to control the fire or spill.
 Advise the Incident Commander of the type of foam needed, flow rates and duration.
 Select the foam staging area and supervise set-up of the supply system.  Advise on application methods and appliances.

o Establish and conduct foam training programs and drills within their assigned borough, as requested by the Borough Commander. Consultation with the Foam Manager will be necessary to ensure training will not conflict with citywide schedules.
o Make recommendations to the Department’s Foam Manager for improving operational procedures, foam equipment and drills.
o Upon completion of a major foam operation, the first-to-arrive Foam Coordinator shall request a foam inventory through the dispatcher. The Dispatcher will notify Foam Depots via teleprinter to provide inventory.
o When more than 500 gallons of foam concentrate is used, or at a prolonged operation where delivery to the scene is required, the Foam Coordinator shall comply with applicable procedures outlined in Section 11.
o Establish and maintain foam pre-fire plans for bulk oil facilities where they will be the first assigned Foam Coordinator. This should be coordinated with the Borough Commander and Foam Manager.

Note: Foam Coordinators shall not be used for routine firefighting duties at these incidents.

Question 11

11. First alarm units arrive at a spill of a liquid product from a tank truck, where the driver requests that the product not be covered with foam so that it can be recovered. FDNY units should know that a foam handline should be stretched and put into operation if?
12. The product is on fire
13. The product is a combustible or flammable liquid
14. Members will be operating in the area of the spill
15. The spill causes an exposure problem

A.  1, 3, 4         
B.  1, 2, 3      
C.  2, 3, 4      
D.  1, 2, 4      
E.  1, 2, 3, 4

Answer 11

11. A

Question 12

12. A unit operating a foam handline at a spill that is contained should know that the widest pattern at the lowest velocity will be achieved by directing the foam stream? (TB Foam 8.4)

A. On the ground ahead of the fire
B. Against something to deflect the stream and allow the foam to slide downward
C. Skyward in a back and forth motion
D. Skyward in a counterclockwise motion

Answer 12

12. A

 If the spill is contained or not flowing:
o Direct a foam stream on the ground ahead of the fire in such a manner as to bounce the foam onto the fire. This will achieve the widest pattern at the lowest velocity.
o Try to deflect the stream against something and allow the foam to slide down and work its way across the burning liquid.
o If the above methods are not possible, then direct the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion, allowing the foam to fall as gently as possible over the surface. This will cover the spill and reduce disruption at the blanket.

Question 13

13. First alarm units arrive a Tank Truck accident where the tank is slowly leaking a flammable liquid product. The BC orders to members to add water to the tank at the top because there is room in the tank to do so, stating that the water will settle and create a water leak from the tank. The BC is correct only if the leak is near the?

A. (TB Foam—8.5) Top of the tank and the leaking product has a specific gravity of less than one.
B. Top of the tank and the leaking product has a specific gravity of more than one.
C. Bottom of the tank and the leaking product has a specific gravity of less than one.
D. Bottom of the tank and the leaking product has a specific gravity of more than one.

Answer 13

13. C

o If the leak is near the bottom of the tank and the leaking product has a specific gravity of less than 1 (almost all flammable and combustible liquids do) it may be advisable to add water to the tank if there is room at the top to do so. The water will settle to the bottom of the tank and the product will float on top of the water, resulting in a “water leak.”

o Once the spill is abated and the leak stopped, a decision has to be made whether to allow the tanker to proceed or have it off-loaded. If confident that the vehicle can be moved without the leak starting again, an Engine company may escort the vehicle to its loading facility if the facility is within New York City. If the truck has to leave New York City, notify the adjoining jurisdiction and have an Engine company escort the vehicle to the border. If the vehicle is not in a condition to move, the contents will have to be off-loaded

Question 14

14. First alarm units arrive at a serious tank truck accident where there is a heavy fire exposing the tank truck. Regarding the concerns of a possible BLEVE, it would be correct to state that? (TB Foam—8.7)

A. With older steel tanks, a BLEVE will not occur
B. With newer aluminum tanks the chance of a BLEVE occurring has been greatly increased
C. Aluminum tanks melt at approximately 1220 degrees
D. It is extremely important to get a large caliber stream on the fire quickly.

Answer 14

14. C

8.7 Tank Truck Accident with a Fire  This scenario leads to a more serious situation with the addition of fire exposing the tank truck. With the older steel tanks a BLEVE can occur. With the newer aluminum tanks, the problem of a BLEVE has been reduced because the shell will melt at approximately 1220 degrees F. If the tank is made of steel, or when an aluminum tank remains intact, the chance of a BLEVE still exists and it is extremely important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly. This should be done before, or if enough resources are on-scene, in conjunction with stretching a foam handline.
 Follow all applicable procedures of Section 8.4.
 After stretching the initial foam handlines for this operation, have a separate pumper test and hook up to a hydrant. This pumper will supply the Foam Tanker when it arrives

Question 15

15. BC QUESTION — A Battalion Chief operating at a major Bulk Oil Tank fire should know which point(s) below to be accurate? (TB Foam—8.3)

A. If the liquid in the tank is filled to the top, have bulk oil personnel remove product via the bottom of the tank
B. Ensure that the product is within 10 feet of the top of the tank
C. Apply foam into the “WINDOW”, located on the downwind side of the tank
D. The “WINDOW” is a small area where the flames aren’t as tall, and has less convection currents, allowing more foam to reach the surface of the fuel

Answer 15

15. A & D

 If the tank is filled to the top, bulk oil personnel will have to remove some product via the bottom of the tank. If planning to extinguish the fire, ensure that the product level is within five feet of the top of the tank. If too much product is removed a large “chimney” will form and carry away much of the foam. Also, the lower the product level in the tank, the more likely the top of the tank is to curl in, making application of foam more difficult. Apply the foam as gently as possible to the surface of the tank. Try to apply the foam into the “WINDOW”. This is an area in the plume, which is located on the upwind side of the tank. It is a small area where the flames aren’t as tall. There are less convection currents in this area, which allows more foam to reach the surface of the fuel.

Question 16

1. Regarding the use of CIRS, it would be correct to state that the Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all? (SB 7—2.1, 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 3.5)
2. Injuries
3. Biological Exposures
4. Non-Biological Exposures
5. Illnesses (the Flu) not related to an exposure, which stop a member from continuing on duty
   A. 1, 2, 3
   B. 1, 2, 4
   C. 1, 3, 4
   D. 2, 3, 4
   E. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer 16

1. B

2.2.2 Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous
substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is required only for symptoms.
Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure,
both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

Question 17

2. Which one of the following injuries may be classified as a “Minor Injury”? (SB 7 - 2.1.3)
   A. A small 2nd degree burn injury
   B. A sprained ankle with mild swelling
   C. A member trips and falls resulting in fainting or blackout for a few seconds
   D. Mild conjunctivitis

Answer 17

2. D

2.1.3 Minor Injury is an injury determined by the on duty medical officer. A minor
injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be
granted a medical leave. Examples of some minor injuries include, but are not
limited to:
 Small abrasions
 First degree burns
 Mild conjunctivitis
 Minor contusions
 Foreign body in eye, already removed
 Lacerations, not requiring sutures
 Minor sprains and strains with no swelling or discoloration
The following shall not be classified as Minor Injuries:
 Burns, other than first degree
 Chest pains
 Sprains or strains, with swelling or discoloration
 Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory
 Shortness of breath

Question 18

3. The Captain from Engine 99 returns from a Haz-Mat job where she and all of the firefighters were exposed to a chemical, but no member is exhibiting any symptoms of illness at this time. The Captain and three of the firefighters are assigned to E99, and the fourth exposed FF is a 90 day detail from Ladder 100. In this situation, regarding the use of CIRS, the Officer would be correct to think?
   (SB 7 - 3.4, 3.7, 4.1, 4.4, 4.6)

A. The Officer cannot initiate a non-biological exposure report without first notifying the medical officer
B. When initiating the exposure report on CIRS, the Officer should enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space
C. The Captain may utilize Group Reporting for herself and all 4 firefighters, provided they have the same non-biological exposure, no symptoms, and were all working in the same unit
D. The exposure reports must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the exposure. Within 7 days from the date of the exposure, if modifications are made to the report, the report will continue to be categorized as original

Answer 18

3. D
4. 7 A Non-Biological Exposure Report for a member who does not exhibit symptoms can be initiated without medical officer notification.

If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets where the injury/exposure occurred (e.g. address in front of hydrant, address of training academy, firehouse).

4.1 All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later
than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances.

4. 4 Within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original.
5. 6 Supervisors may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms by the following procedure: This functionality avoids duplicate data entry but requires that the group of members all had the same non-biological exposure and are assigned to the same unit. Any member not assigned (e.g., detailed and working in that unit for the tour) must be entered separately.

Question 19

4. A member will be placed on “Medical Leave” if a member is granted “Remainder of the Tour” by the on-duty medical officer. (SB 7 - 2.1.2)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 19

4. D

2.1.2 Remainder of the Tour is an excused absence granted by the on duty medical
officer for an injury. This excused absence does not exceed the current tour the
member was working. This excused absence is not designated as Medical Leave.

Question 20

5. At 0545 hours, E283 returns to quarters from an EMS run where one member had a biological exposure. The officer should be aware that this Biological Exposure report must be entered into CIRS? (SB 7 — 4.1 Note)
A. Within 24 hours 
B. Within 7 days
C. By the end of the tour 
D. Immediately

Answer 20

5. D

Note: Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately to ensure
appropriate exposure investigation and follow-up.

Question 21

6. Members of E92 return from a Haz-Mat job where they were exposed to a chemical and now all the members from Engine 92 are coughing and wheezing on their return to quarters. In this situation, it would be correct for the Officer to prepare? (SB 7 — 3.8)
   A. Only an exposure report
   B. Only an injury report
   C. Both an injury report and an exposure report
   D. Both a CIRS-1 report and an exposure report

Answer 21

6. C
7. 8 An Injury Report shall be prepared if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an exposure. The exposure that caused the injury or illness and the fact that a Biological or Non-Biological Exposure Report has been prepared shall be noted in the narrative of the Injury Report. A notation shall also be made in the narrative of the Exposure Report that an Injury Report has been prepared.

Question 22

7. Officers preparing injury / exposure reports would be incorrect to think? (SB 7 - 4.1, 4.3)
   A. Injury and exposure reports may be initiated and submitted with or without the members signature
   B. Injury and exposure reports may be initiated and submitted with or without the narrative
   C. All injuries sustained in quarters require the Officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief
   D. Injuries in quarters investigated by the Administrative Battalion require the BC to forward a letterhead report to the Chief of Safety

Answer 22

7. D
8. 1 All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
9. 3 All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief. The administrative Battalion Chief shall forward a letterhead report to the Chief of Operations as outlined in Section 7.5.1 of the Uniformed Regulations.

Question 23

8. All levels of Command (Supervisors—Company Officers; Reviewers—Battalion Chiefs) should access CIRS \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, to provide any required review / recommendations? (SB 7—3.3, 6.1)
A. Every tour 
B. Daily 
C. Weekly 
D. Monthly

Answer 23

8. B

Question 24

9. BC Question - If a member sustains a burn, smoke or heat exhaustion injury, it would be incorrect to state that? (SB 7—5.1-5.4, 6.2.3)
   A. A new screen in CIRS will automatically open for the Officer preparing the report containing a burn, smoke, heat exhaustion injury report
   B. Burn, smoke, heat exhaustion injury report recommendations on how to prevent future injuries must be written by Supervisors for firefighters, by Officers when preparing their own report, and by Battalion Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs and the Borough Commander
   C. The Bureau of Operations and Safety Command will receive an electronic notification when a burn, smoke, heat exhaustion injury report is completed
   D. A burn, smoke, heat exhaustion injury report screen is only available to Battalions, Divisions and Boroughs and shall be reviewed daily to provide required recommendations

Answer 24

9. D

6.2.3 Burn/Smoke/Heat Exhaustion Injury Report Screen
 This screen is only available to Boroughs and Divisions, and shall be reviewed daily to provide required recommendations.

Question 25

10. BC Question - When reviewing an injury or exposure report, a Chief should not return a report for clarification that is missing a member’s signature and / or narrative. (SB 7—6.2.1)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 25

10 A

 Return for Clarification: If the injury/exposure report requires clarification, the Reviewer will send the report back to the Supervisor. A report missing a member’s signature and/or narrative is not a reason to return for clarification.

Question 26

11. Captains are required to post a summary of occupational illnesses and injuries for the preceding year every? (SB 7—Add 1, 1.3)
A. Jan 1st thru March 31st
B. Feb 1st thru April 30th
C. Jan 1st thru July 31st
D. Feb 1st thru Dec 31st

Answer 26

11. B

The Supervisor is no longer required to record SH-900 information in the Office Record Journal. These records will be captured by the CIRS program. In February, each unit
shall post the SH-900.1 Summary report. Using the date range of the previous year, print a copy of the report. From February 1st to April 30th the Summary SH-900.1 of all injuries and illnesses for the previous year must be posted on a notice board accessible to all employees.

Question 27

12. A letterhead report shall be forwarded to the Chief of? (SB 7—Add 2—1.3)
    A. Operations, if three or more members suffer injuries during the same tour, resulting in medical leave within 7 days of that tour
    B. Safety, if three or more members suffer injuries at the same tour, resulting in remainder of the tour or medical leave that tour
    C. Operations, if three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident, resulting in medical leave that tour
    D. Safety, if three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident, resulting in medical leave that tour

Answer 27

12. C

1.3 In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries and to prepare
strategies to prevent injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a report when:
 Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave
that tour.

Question 28

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.
1. The first arriving ladder company, who is responsible for Hazard Assessment, would be correct to think they should? (ERP—11.1.2, 11.1.5, 11.1.6)
A. Divide into two teams—one for Hazard Identification and one for Site Access Control. No person involved in the operational activities of these teams is to work alone.
B. The LCC should position the unit apparatus as a barrier for site access control, then immediately join the Hazard Identification team
C. The Hazard Identification team should identify container shapes and sizes, identify visible markings and labels and provide primary search reports for any location they enter
D. The Information Resource team should access the Hazard Action Guidebook, DOT Guidebook to confirm guide numbers, isolation distances and evacuation information. This information should be verified with the second arriving Engine

Answer 28

1. C

11.1.1 The First Arriving Ladder Company is responsible for hazard assessment.
11.1.2 Members of the First Arriving Ladder Company will be divided into teams.
The team concept is to provide for the safety and accountability of all the
members. No person involved in the operational activities of these teams is to
work alone.

11.1.4 Ladder Chauffer: Apparatus placement
A. Positions apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access
control as ordered
B. Coordinates apparatus placement with other responding units
C. Remains with apparatus until further ordered

11.1.6 First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources
A. Back-up Team for Team 1
B. Access Hazard Action Guidebook & D.O.T. Guidebook, locating appropriate
Guide, isolation and evacuation recommendations
C. Confirm Guide Number, isolation distance and evacuation information.
Verify with Second Arriving Ladder Company

Question 29

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.

2. The primary back-up team for the first arriving ladder’s Hazard ID team is the? (ERP 11.1.6)
   A. First arriving Engine C. First Arriving Ladder’s Information Resource Team
   B. Second Arriving Engine D. Second Arriving Ladder’s Exclusion Zone Team

Answer 29

2. C

11.1.6 First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources
A. Back-up Team for Team 1
B. Access Hazard Action Guidebook & D.O.T. Guidebook, locating appropriate
Guide, isolation and evacuation recommendations
C. Confirm Guide Number, isolation distance and evacuation information.
Verify with Second Arriving Ladder Company
D. Report information to Officer
E. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio

Question 30

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.

3. The second arriving ladder duties are all indicated correctly except for which point? (ERP—11.2.1, 11.2.5)
   A. They are responsible to control access to the site and establish the Initial Exclusion Zone
   B. They should divide into two teams—one for Information Resources and one to setup the Initial Exclusion Zone
   C. When establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone—they should use Yellow Haz-Mat barrier tape, utility rope and traffic cones
   D. The team establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone should remain outside the Exclusion Zone to deny access until relieved or as ordered

Answer 30

3. C

A. On orders of the Officer, establish physical barriers as an initial Exclusion
Zone using RED Haz-Mat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc

Question 31

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.

4. It is correct to state that the first arriving engine should? (ERP—12.1.2, 12.1.4, 12.1.6)
5. Establish the initial water supply.
6. Stretch a line, but not place it into operation until ordered by the IC
7. Stretch a 2 ½” line as a precaution — the largest size handline is required
8. Not perform CFR-D duties under any circumstances, as this may delay water supply
   A. 1, 2
   B. 1, 2, 3
   C. 1, 3, 4
   D, 2, 3

Answer 31

4. A

Question 32

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.

5. Regarding the 2nd and 3rd arriving engines duties, it would be correct to state? (ERP—12.2, 12.3)
6. The second engine is responsible to assist and coordinate with the second ladder to control access to the site
7. The second engine may perform CFR-D duties, if necessary
8. The third engine should be assigned CFR-D duties for victims or members
   A. 1, 2
   B. 1, 3
   C. 2, 3
   D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 32

5. D

12.2.2 The Second Arriving Engine Company is responsible for assisting and
coordinating with the Second Ladder Company to control access to the site.
12.2.3 Members of the Second Engine Company will remain together as a unit unless
otherwise ordered by the Incident Commander to perform duties appropriate to
specific tactical objectives. This may include assisting the First

12.3 Third Arriving Engine
12.3.1 The Third Arriving Engine Company should be assigned CFR-D duties for the
safety of Fire Department members as well as victims removed that have been
exposed or injured.

Question 33

Answer Questions 1 - 6 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical spill at Saint John’s University in Queens. Campus security indicates that there was an experiment taking place on the third floor of the science building, and now there exists a strong chemical odor throughout the building.

6. BC Question - Because Haz-Mat Technician Units (HMTU) are more numerous and geographically assigned, they will most often arrive before HMC1 and begin operations. Regarding their operations it would be incorrect to state that? (ERP—14.2.1-14.2.3)
   A. HMTU Entry Team must have at least 2 members.
   B. HMTU Backup Team must have at least 2 members.
   C. HMTU are capable of neutralizing and mitigating haz-mat incidents within the exclusion zone
   D. HMTU must insure a Decontamination Team is established as soon as possible after the HMTU Entry enters the Exclusion Zone
   E. The HMTU Decontamination Team may be established with an Engine Company using the HMTU’s decontamination equipment or a handline with a fog nozzle

Answer 33

6. D

14.2.3 Decontamination (Decon) Team
A Decontamination Team must be established before the HMTU can make entry.
Due to limited staffing of HMTUs, an Engine Company in full PPE and SCBA
may need to be assigned to the Decon Team.

Question 34

7. BC Question - Regarding the use of other agencies at Haz-Mat incidents, it would be incorrect to state that? (ERP—17.21 - 17.2.5)
   A. OEM functions as the On-Scene Coordinator, coordinating all City agency activities
   B. The Department of Environmental Protection will sample and analyze substances and the environment
   C. The Department of Sanitation will clean up and dispose of all materials, including liquids, rendered harmless
   D. The New York City Department of Health and Mental Hygiene will ensure proper mitigation of radioactive and biological agents

Answer 34

7. C

17.2.4 Department of Sanitation
 Maintain/supply materials for containment and confinement operations

Question 35

8. At the termination of a Hazardous Materials incident it would be incorrect to state that? (ERP—18.1.2, 18.2.1, 18.2.2)
   A. Clean up operations are not FDNY functions
   B. The FDNY is responsible to ensure clean-up operations take place and will cooperate with the DEP in arranging clean-up activities
   C. Haz-Mat 1 may take samples, and if necessary transport samples of hazardous materials for testing by DEP
   D. The IC may leave a FDNY unit or a Fire Marshal to remain with samples awaiting pick-up by the DEP or DOHMH

Answer 35

8. C

18.2.1 The Hazardous Materials Unit may take samples of materials for testing by DEP or
DOHMH. Under no circumstances should any Fire Department unit, including the
Hazardous Materials Unit, transport these samples or any hazardous material.

Question 36

9. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a Hazardous Material incident involving a railroad car that has a liquid product in a low pressure rail tank car. The last resort to be used for making tactical decisions as to how to deal with this incident is to? (ERP—Page 37)
   A. Attempt to locate the commodity name stenciled on the sides or ends of the tank car
   B. Attempt to locate the reporting marks and car number stenciled on the sides or ends of the tank car
   C. Attempt to locate placards found on the sides or ends of the tank car
   D. Use the recommended guide (#131-for rail cars) for low pressure tank cars with liquids found in the Hazardous Materials guidebook

Answer 36

9. D

Question 37

Utilize the following scenario to answer questions 10 - 13
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a Hazardous Material incident where they see an NFPA diamond on the entrance door leading to the room with the incident. The central diamond has 4 smaller diamonds with markings as shown below:

10. Regarding the “0” in the red diamond, it is correct to state this indicates? (ERP—Pg 39)
    A. Flammability Hazard — A very low flashpoint, below 73 degrees Fahrenheit
    B. Flammability Hazard — The product will not burn
    C. Reactivity Hazard — The product is stable
    D. Reactivity Hazard — The product may detonate

Answer 37

10. B

Health Hazard or Blue Section
4 Deadly
3 Extreme Danger
2 Hazardous
1 Slightly Hazardous
0 Normal Material

Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash Point below 73oF
3 Flash Point below 100oF
2 Flash Point above 100oF, not exceeding 200oF
1 Above 200oF
0 Will Not Burn

Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section
4 May Detonate
3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
2 Violent Chemical Change
1 Unstable if Heated
0 Stable

Special Information or White Section
OX = Oxidizer
w\ = Use no water
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive

Question 38

Utilize the following scenario to answer questions 10 - 13
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a Hazardous Material incident where they see an NFPA diamond on the entrance door leading to the room with the incident. The central diamond has 4 smaller diamonds with markings as shown below:

11. Regarding the “3” in the blue diamond, it is correct to state this indicates? (ERP—Pg 39)
    A. Health Hazard — The product is an extreme danger
    B. Health Hazard — The product is slightly hazardous
    C. Reactivity Hazard — The product is stable
    D. Reactivity Hazard — The product is unstable if heated

Answer 38

11. A

Health Hazard or Blue Section
4 Deadly
3 Extreme Danger
2 Hazardous
1 Slightly Hazardous
0 Normal Material

Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash Point below 73oF
3 Flash Point below 100oF
2 Flash Point above 100oF, not exceeding 200oF
1 Above 200oF
0 Will Not Burn

Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section
4 May Detonate
3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
2 Violent Chemical Change
1 Unstable if Heated
0 Stable

Special Information or White Section
OX = Oxidizer
w\ = Use no water
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive

Question 39

Utilize the following scenario to answer questions 10 - 13
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a Hazardous Material incident where they see an NFPA diamond on the entrance door leading to the room with the incident. The central diamond has 4 smaller diamonds with markings as shown below:
12. Regarding the “1” in the yellow diamond, it is correct to state this indicates? (ERP—Pg 39)
A. Special information — The product is corrosive
B. Reactivity Hazard — The product is unstable if heated
C. Reactivity Hazard — The product may detonate
D. Flammability Hazard — The product will only burn above 200 degrees Fahrenheit

Answer 39

12. B

Health Hazard or Blue Section
4 Deadly
3 Extreme Danger
2 Hazardous
1 Slightly Hazardous
0 Normal Material

Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash Point below 73oF
3 Flash Point below 100oF
2 Flash Point above 100oF, not exceeding 200oF
1 Above 200oF
0 Will Not Burn

Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section
4 May Detonate
3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
2 Violent Chemical Change
1 Unstable if Heated
0 Stable

Special Information or White Section
OX = Oxidizer
w\ = Use no water
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive

Question 40

Utilize the following scenario to answer questions 10 - 13
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a Hazardous Material incident where they see an NFPA diamond on the entrance door leading to the room with the incident. The central diamond has 4 smaller diamonds with markings as shown below:

13. Regarding the “OX” in the white diamond, it is correct to state this indicates the hazardous material is? (ERP—Pg 39)
A. Oxygen
B. Oxycodone
C. An oxidizer
D. An oxymoron

Answer 40

13. C

Health Hazard or Blue Section
4 Deadly
3 Extreme Danger
2 Hazardous
1 Slightly Hazardous
0 Normal Material

Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash Point below 73oF
3 Flash Point below 100oF
2 Flash Point above 100oF, not exceeding 200oF
1 Above 200oF
0 Will Not Burn

Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section
4 May Detonate
3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
2 Violent Chemical Change
1 Unstable if Heated
0 Stable

Special Information or White Section
OX = Oxidizer
w\ = Use no water
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive

Question 41

1. The major weakness from a firefighting and fire protection standpoint of Private Dwellings is the? (PDs Ch 1 — 2.1)
   A. Lack of a secondary means of egress from upper floors
   B. Use of balloon construction
   C. Use of lightweight construction — wood I-beams, wood trusses, and C-joists
   D. Open and unenclosed stairway

Answer 41

1. D

2.1 Originally built for one or two family occupancy, these structures are usually one to three stories in height. It is not unusual to find more than two families living in these types of structures. They may be attached, semi-attached or detached. The interior of split level homes however, may have as many as five levels within a three-story building. An open and unenclosed stairway is the major weakness from a firefighting and fire
protection standpoint

Question 42

2. Balloon construction in Private Dwellings is commonly found in what style houses? (PDs Ch 1—3.1, 3.3)
   A. Straight Line Colonial and Cape C. Queen Anne and Ranch
   B. Straight Line Colonial and Queen Anne D. Straight Line Colonial and Split Level

Answer 42

2. B

3.1 Straight Line Colonial (Figure 1.1 & Photos 1.3 & 1.4)
These dwellings are typically 2½ to 3 stories and 20’x40’. Balloon frame construction is commonly found. The side door generally gives access to the kitchen and to the cellar stairway. The utilities are found in the cellar. The 1st floor has a front porch area, a living room with an open stairway to the 2nd floor, a dining room, and a kitchen in the rear. The kitchen contains the stairway leading to the side door and cellar. The 2nd floor has 2 or 3 bedrooms, a bathroom, and access to the attic. This access space can be as large as a normal stairway or as small as a hatch in a closet. Due to the limited
ventilation of the attic/3rd floor, conditions in this area will be extremely punishing.
The roof of the front porch allows for easy access to upper floor bedrooms.

3.3 Queen Anne (Photos 1.7 & 1.8)
The overall size of these structures range from 2½ to 3½ stories in height, 25 to 30 feet in width, and 30 to 50 feet in depth. Construction is wood frame with exteriors of wood siding, asphalt shingles, brick veneer, or stucco. The roofs have many peaks, dormers, overhanging eaves and possibly a cupola. (A cupola/turret is a tower-like room with a round or dome shaped roof). The roof coverings are roof tile, slate, or layers of asphalt shingles over the original wood shingles. Multiple variations in size and number of dormers and gables create a maze of peaks and valleys at roof level. Balloon construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines, etc. Large open stairs in the living room connect the 1st and 2nd floors.
A narrow rear or side stair connects the 1st, 2nd and 3rd floors, or a stair may lead directly to the 3rd floor from the 1st floor. Vertical arteries supplied by old hot air ducts, dumbwaiter shafts, boxed in space around fireplaces and pipe recesses, contribute to undetected and fast upward fire travel. There are hidden voids in attics around hips, valleys, dormers, ridges, etc. They may have a fire escape or a sprinklered stairway. The fire escape will be attached to a combustible wall. Careful consideration should be given to its use due to age, or if that wall is exposed to or involved in fire.

Question 43

3. An officer conducting drill on special concerns found at Private Dwelling operations was correct when he stated that? (PDs Ch 1—4)
   A. Pull down type stairs with a rope may be used by members for attic access and line advancement only after they are checked for stability
   B. A PD with two secondary entrances (one with a stoop, one at the ground level) adjacent to each other on the exposure 2 or 4 side, indicates that two staircases run to the second floor
   C. Offset windows found on the Exposure 2 or 4 side of a PD should be entered for VEIS as escaping occupants are often found there
   D. Open joist construction, often found on cellar ceilings, combined with heavy fire and an overloaded first floor may cause a localized or complete early collapse of the first floor

Answer 43

3. D

 In some dwellings the stairs to the attic or third floor are found behind a small door resembling a closet door. Access may also be found in a bedroom closet with no ladder provided. In other homes, access to the attic is via a pull down type stairs with a rope attached for ease of use. These are lightweight stairs and should not be used for attic access or line advancement. A portable ladder should be used.

 When multiple secondary entrances (one with a stoop, and one at ground level) are found adjacent to each other on the same side (exposure 2 or 4) of the building, this indicates most likely that; One secondary entrance at ground level will have a few steps leading to the kitchen and also a half flight of stairs leading to the cellar. The other secondary entrance with the stoop typically has a staircase that runs to the second floor, and may be the only access to that level.

 The presence of a stoop at a secondary entrance on the exposure 2 or 4 side of the building may indicate that the entrance leads to a second floor stairway. This is
especially pertinent when there are multiple secondary entrances and only one or two offset windows are seen from the exterior on the same side of the dwelling as the
stoop entrance. These offset windows are at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase and should not be used for VEIS (see Chapter 1–Photo 1.4. and Chapter 2– Photos 2.1 and 2.2)

Question 44

4. An officer drilling on Size-Up at Private Dwelling fires was correct to state that? (PDs Ch 2—2.6, 2.7)
   A. PDs with balloon frame construction will lack fire stopping between floors on both interior and exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension
   B. Members may use porch or garage roofs constructed of normal wood frame construction, aluminum, or lightweight materials to conduct operations as these materials provide a suitable platform from which to work
   C. If it can be determined upon arrival, transmit whether a PD has a flat or peak roof with the signal 10-75, as this will impact both inside team and outside team ladder company positions
   D. Window spacing can be an indication of room locations

Answer 44

4. D

 Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

 Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction may provide a suitable
platform from which to work. Windows at these locations will allow quick access to the
upper floor rooms. Be aware that screened or open porches may not provide protection
from fire venting below.
Note: Members shall not use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations.

 Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

Question 45

5. The primary consideration in the placement of the first hoseline for access to fires in Private Dwellings is via the? (PDs Ch 3—1.6, 1.7)
   A. Main entrance door for all fires in Private Dwellings
   B. Entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area for all fires in Private Dwellings
   C. Main entrance door for fires on the first floor or floors above and the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area at cellar fires
   D. Main entrance door for fires in the cellar and the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area for fires above the cellar

Answer 45

5.C

1.6 The primary consideration in the placement of the first hoseline for access to a fire on the first floor or floors above in private dwelling when an interior attack is ordered is the main entrance door to the building. Generally, this location provides the quickest access to the fire area. It is also a strategic location that enables a charged hoseline the ability to contain fire extension via the open interior stairs and provides a level of protection to
members as well as victims trapped or unconscious on the floor(s) above.

1.7 The primary consideration in the placement of the first hoseline for access to a fire in the cellar when an interior attack is ordered is via the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area. This access may be through either the main entrance or a secondary entrance door. The rapid knockdown and extinguishment of the main body of fire provides the greatest protection for both civilians and members. During the initial size-up at apparent first floor and/or second floor fires, members should ensure they check to determine that the fire did not start on a lower floor or in the cellar, before committing the first hoseline

Question 46

6. A Chief conducting drill about PD cellar fires was incorrect when he stated that? (PDs Ch 3—2.2, 2.5, 2.6)
   A. Smoke showing from first floor baseboards, attic windows, louvered vents or a chimney are all possible indications of a cellar fire in a PD
   B. A Thermal Imaging Camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling indicates that the first floor interior cellar entrance door is open
   C. Members operating on the first floor are operating in a very dangerous area if they are operating over lightweight constructed floors, unless of course the fire is not severe
   D. The IC at a PD fire, may order an exterior hoseline into a cellar window for a quick knockdown of fire if there will be delay in applying water from the interior or whenever fire conditions dictate. This may be a Company Officer who is the initial IC.

Answer 46

6. C

Note: Members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire must be aware that they are operating in a very dangerous area. This is particularly important when the cellar door
cannot be closed; or when members are operating above a heavy fire; or when members are working over lightweight constructed floors, regardless of the fire severity.

Question 47

Use the following scenario to answer Questions 7 - 9:
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story Private Dwelling where there is fire in the cellar of the building. The Dispatcher indicates there are reports of people possibly trapped in the cellar.

7. When determining the proper placement of the first hoseline, it would be correct for officers to think that? (PDs Ch 3—2.7.1, 2.7.2)

A. The Engine Officer is primarily responsible to size up and determine the placement of the first hoseline
B. A secondary entrance on the front, side or rear is usually the quickest access to the cellar in detached PDs. In semi-attached or attached PD’s, the front door is usually the quickest access.
C. Bilco doors covering an exterior cellar entrance may be used as the first option in detached or semi-attached PDs
D. A Bilco door covering an exterior cellar entrance is more indicative of an unoccupied cellar

Answer 47

2.7.1 Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and
communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer.

Note: Bilco style doors may cover an exterior cellar entrance. This type of secondary entrance often requires extensive forcible entry, and is more indicative of an unoccupied cellar. Utilizing this type of entrance for line placement is the least desirable of the secondary entrances and shall not be utilized for hoseline placement unless it is the only option. (See Photo 2.5 and 2.6 in Chapter 2)

In detached and semi-attached PD’s,
the secondary entrance found on the side or rear of the dwelling is usually the
option that provides the quickest access to the cellar

Question 48

Questions 7 - 9:
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story Private Dwelling where there is fire in the cellar of the building. The Dispatcher indicates there are reports of people possibly trapped in the cellar.

8. In which situation(s) below would it be appropriate to operate an exterior hoseline into a cellar window for a quick knockdown at this fire? (PDs Ch 3—2.6)
9. There is a serious or advanced cellar fire; however, do not operate the line into a cellar window if there is a possibility of civilians in the cellar
10. CIDS indicates the cellar has lightweight construction supporting the first floor, even if the fire condition is not serious
11. If members are unable to advance down the interior cellar stair, and there is no exterior cellar entrance that can be located
12. If members are unable to locate any cellar entrance
    A. 1, 2
    B. 1, 3
    C. 3, 4
    D. 2, 3, 4
    E. 1, 2, 4

Answer 48

8. D

2.6 The IC (Chief or Company Officer) should consider ordering an exterior hoseline
operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay
in applying water from the interior or whenever fire conditions dictate. Some examples
are as follows:
 Unable to quickly access or locate a secondary cellar entrance and unable to advance
down the interior cellar stair.
 Unable to locate any cellar entrance.
 At a serious or advanced cellar fire.
 At a cellar fire involving lightweight construction.

Question 49

Questions 7 - 9:
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story Private Dwelling where there is fire in the cellar of the building. The Dispatcher indicates there are reports of people possibly trapped in the cellar.

9. During operations at this fire, if an exterior hoseline needs to be operated into a cellar window for a quick knockdown, it would be correct to consider which tactic(s)? (More than one correct) (PDs Ch 3—2.6)
   A. Members remaining on the first floor must operate under the protection of a hoseline, secure an area of refuge, or exit the building
   B. The primary consideration for the members operating on the first floor is to operate under the protection of a hoseline
   C. An additional, precautionary, charged hoseline should be placed near the front of the PD
   D. Under no circumstances should an exterior hoseline be operated into a cellar window for a quick knockdown if there are members in the cellar

Answer 49

9. A & C

This should only be attempted when no members are operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene. The primary consideration for members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire is to close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs. The following options should be considered for the safety of the members remaining on the first floor, based on conditions encountered:
 Operate under the protection of a charged hoseline on the floor(s) above.
 Secure an area of refuge, ensuring a ready means of egress.
 Exiting the building.
Note: In an emergency such as members trapped by fire in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse has occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into a cellar window. It is a good practice at PD fires, especially serious cellar fires, to have a precautionary charged hoseline in position near the front of the building for these contingencies.

Question 50

10. If the first hoseline is stretched through the front door at a PD cellar fire to attempt an attack via the interior cellar stairs, it would be correct to make which statement(s)? (More than one correct) (PDs Ch 3–2.7.2, 2.7.3)
    A. The civilian life hazard is the paramount concern in making the decision as to whether or not to advance down the interior cellar stairs
    B. Serious fire conditions in the cellar, high heat at the top of the cellar stairs or questionable stability of the stairway are all valid reasons to preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs
    C. If the first hoseline is ordered to not attempt an interior attack, the line should then remain on the first floor (if safety permits) until the cellar fire is controlled
    D. Repositioning of the first hoseline from inside of the first floor of a PD, to a secondary entrance outside the building, is a decision that can only be made by a Chief Officer. Acting Chief(s) and Company Officers may not make this decision.

Answer 50

10. B, C

The safety of members is the paramount concern in making the decision to
advance down the interior cellar stairs.

Note: The decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance can
only be made by an Acting Chief Officer/Chief Officer.

Question 51

11. An Engine, Ladder and Battalion Chief arrive at a PD cellar fire two blocks from the firehouse where they enter the front door, but cannot locate any first floor cellar entrance. In this situation, repositioning of the first line advanced inside to the first floor, to a secondary entrance outside the building, requires all of the following tactics except? (PDs Ch 3—2.7.4)
    A. Use of the EAB button by the IC, and an “URGENT” message by the IC
    B. Acknowledgement from all units or members operating in the interior
    C. Ladder company members on the first floor must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned from that floor
    D. Ladder members operating on upper floors must also be withdrawn to a safe area

Answer 51

11. D
    Ladder company members operating on the first floor must be withdrawn before
    the first hoseline is repositioned from that floor. Members operating on the upper
    floors may also need to be withdrawn to a safe area if no portable ladders are
    positioned and readily available. This is done for reasons of safety and operational
    efficiency. The forcible entry team will then operate with the engine company
    and facilitate the advance of the hoseline via a secondary entrance.

Question 52

12. Whenever two hoselines are stretched and operating at a Private Dwelling fire, a third hoseline should be positioned and charged at the front of the building and operated as ordered by the IC for which situations? (PDs Ch 3—2.9, 3.3, 4.3)
13. Cellar fires
14. First floor fires
15. Upper floor fires

A. Only #1
B. Only #1 + #2
C. Only #1 + #3
D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 52

12. D

2.9 Third Hoseline:
Whenever two hoselines are stretched and operating, a third hoseline will be positioned and charged at the front of the building and operated as ordered by the Incident
Commander. Additional units shall be special called or an additional alarm transmitted if
fire conditions dictate.

Question 53

13. Engine 317, Ladder 165 and Battalion 54 all arrive together at the scene of a Private Dwelling fire where the building is fully involved on arrival. The building is an occupied, detached, 2 ½ story PD, with possible exposure issues on arrival. In this situation, it would be incorrect to state that? (PDs Ch 3—5.1-5.4)
    A. If the first arriving Engine backstretches, they should drop two lines - one handline and a 3 ½” line for a tower ladder, and maintain the front of the PD accessible for TL placement
    B. Before entering the building, operate the hoseline on the exterior to protect exposures
    C. A 2 ½” line should be considered in this situation
    D. Because of the increased collapse potential of a fully involved PD, this building should be completed evaluated by the IC, before entering.

Answer 53

13. A

5.1 When the first arriving engine company backstretches to the hydrant, they should drop two handlines in front of the building.
5.2 Units shall maintain the front of fire building accessible for tower ladder placement.
5.3 Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection.
Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire. or a heavily involved first floor fire in a larger style Private Dwelling (Queen Anne ).
5.4 Operate the hoseline on the exterior to protect exposures before entering the building.
Note: Buildings fully involved have an increased collapse potential and require a
complete evaluation by the IC before entering.

Question 54

14. A company officer conducting drill on balloon frame construction was incorrect when she stated that? (PDs CH 4—3.1, 3.2)
    A. Balloon construction is very common in Queen Anne PD’s and many of the older and large 2 ½ - 3 story peak roof PD’s
    B. In balloon construction, exterior wall studs extend from the sill to the top floor ceiling, where they are capped with a top plate.
    C. The top plate on the top floor ceiling in balloon construction acts effectively as a fire stop eliminating any vertical extension to the attic
    D. If a member removes a baseboard on an exterior wall, and no sole plate is found, the building should be treated as balloon construction

Answer 54

14. C

A major concern in all fires is knowing where the fire originated. This is particularly
important in balloon frame construction due to the continuous nature of the exterior wall
studding. In this type of construction, fires originating in the cellar can easily extend to
the attic via the exterior wall channels created by this continuous studding. This type of concealed fire extension will commonly extend to the attic space, while bypassing intermediate floors. (Photo 4.1)

Question 55

15. Ribbon-Ledger board is found in what type of construction? (PDs Ch 4—Figure 4.1)
A. Platform 
B. Braced Frame 
C. Balloon 
D. Lightweight

Answer 55

15. C

Question 56

Utilize the following scenario to answer Questions 16 - 18
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story, peak roof, 1-family Private Dwelling, with heavy fire on the first floor of the building. There is also heavy smoke showing from the upper floors.

16. In this situation, how many tactics below are correct? (PD Ch 4—4.2, 5.1 A-2, D-4, D-5, 5.5A-4, 6)
17. The entrance door used to enter the PD must be controlled in a closed position by a member of the interior team, until the fire area can be further isolated or a charged hoseline is advancing through the entrance door to extinguish the fire
18. Roof operations are not an initial consideration at peak roof PD fires. When necessary, the second ladder is responsible to initiate roof ventilation.
19. If roof ventilation is required, the 2nd LCC & 2nd Roof FF should be assigned to vent the roof.
20. The first ladder outside team should initiate removal of window bars on both the front and rear of the building, early in the operation, if conditions allow.
21. The second ladder outside team should initiate and / or augment removal of window bars on both the front and rear of the building, early in the operation, if conditions allow.
22. Members proceeding to the side or rear of a PD with an apparent first floor fire should vent a cellar window to insure the fire did not start in the cellar

A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 
E. 5

Answer 56

16-D (1, 2, 4, 5)

The Roof/OV team should be assigned to vent the roof when necessary.

4. Members proceeding to the side or rear must visually examine cellar windows
   to determine interior fire conditions. Members shall not vent windows unless
   ordered to do so by the Ladder Company Officer. All observations must be
   reported to the Ladder Company Officer and IC.

Question 57

Utilize the following scenario to answer Questions 16 - 18
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story, peak roof, 1-family Private Dwelling, with heavy fire on the first floor of the building. There is also heavy smoke showing from the upper floors.

17. Ladder companies searching for possible victims should be guided by all of the following tactics except? (PDs Ch 4—5.2 A, 5.2 A-1, 5.2 B-5, 5.5 A-2)

A. If operating with portable ladders, the first Roof/OV team should take a portable ladder, 6’ halligan hook and / or halligan for each member.
B. If there is no visible life hazard showing around the perimeter of a one family PD, the first Roof/OV team should perform VEIS in the area most likely to be occupied on either the first or second floor.
C. If size up indicates an obvious occupied attic, the first LCC, when teamed up with the second LCC or another member, may use the aerial or tower ladder to perform VEIS of the attic
D. The second ladder inside team’s position is to cover all floors above the fire. It is critical that the second ladder officer contact the first ladder officer to determine the first ladder officer’s location

Answer 57

17. B

If there is no visible life hazard, perform
VEIS of an area on an upper floor that is most likely to be occupied.

Question 58

Utilize the following scenario to answer Questions 16 - 18
First alarm units arrive at a 2 ½ story, peak roof, 1-family Private Dwelling, with heavy fire on the first floor of the building. There is also heavy smoke showing from the upper floor

18. The fire now progresses to involve the second floor and attic area and the BC transmits a second alarm and orders two members to make a roof cut to vent the upper areas of the building. Regarding ladder apparatus use and positioning at peak roof operations, it would be correct to state?
    (PDs Ch 4—6.1 A-1, A-3, B-2, B-3)

A. Preferably, roof access should be gained with an aerial ladder
B. If using a tower ladder to access the roof, the preferred position of the apparatus is parallel to the front of the building, so the basket can be placed in the valley area
C. If using an aerial ladder to access the roof, position the apparatus to extend the ladder over the corner of the building, and extend the ladder at least 3’ above and to one side of the peak
D. At an advanced fire, the main objective is to position a tower ladder in front of the building

Answer 58

18. D
19. The tower ladder is the most versatile, efficient and safest method to ventilate
    the roof.
20. When possible, the preferred position of the apparatus is parallel to the front
    of building, so the basket can be placed over the corner of the building near
    the peak of the roof. The turntable should be positioned to enable the basket
    to cover two sides. This would facilitate
     Rescue of occupants or operating forces at 2nd and 3rd floor levels.
     Ventilation of the front and side.
     Entering the upper floors when stairs are unusable.
     Overhauling difficult to reach or unstable areas.
21. Position the apparatus to facilitate raising and extending the ladder over the
    corner of the building. This permits maximum coverage of the front and one
    side of the building.
22. Extend ladder at least 5’ above and to one side of the peak. This will:
     Ensure easy mounting and dismounting from the aerial.
     Ensure that the ladder will be visible in heavy smoke conditions.
     Prevent members from passing directly in front of and over the upper
    window as they ascend the ladder. This ladder placement will prevent
    members from being directly exposed in the event fires were to vent out of
    this window.

Question 59

19. Regarding the operation of members cutting and opening up a peak roof, it would be correct to state that? (PDs Ch 4—6.3 A-1, A-4, B-1, B-3)
    A. The first hole should be made at the main gable as this will vent the blind attic space, knee walls, attic hall and rooms below
    B. The power saw may only be used from an aerial or tower ladder
    C. If cutting the roof with an axe, work from a position straddling the peak, cut a hole over the fire, perpendicular to and on the lee side of the ridge
    D. A 6’ hook should be brought to the roof for all types of peak roof private dwellings to push down the ceiling on the top floor after the roof cut is made

Answer 59

19. A
20. The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder as
    described in Firefighting Procedures, Ladders 6.

Cutting the Roof with an Axe
1. Working from a position straddling the peak, cut a hole over the fire, parallel
to and on the lee side of the ridge

3. A 6’ hook (10’ for a Queen Anne) should be brought to the roof to push down
   the ceiling on the top floor after the roof hole has been cut.

Question 60

20. First alarm units arrive at a fire in a 2-story, wood frame, flat roof PD, with heavy fire showing out the first floor front windows. In this situation, it would be correct for the 1st Roof FF to think? (PDs Ch 4—7.1A, A-1, A-3C, A-5B)
    A. The 1st Roof FF should proceed to the roof and must bring a halligan, 6’ halligan hook and Life Saving Rope
    B. If the PD is attached on both sides, the 1st Roof FF should use exposure 2 or 4 for interior access to the roof, if fire conditions (IDLH) allow
    C. The scuttle ladder shall never be used to descend to the lower floors
    D. If a Life Saving Rope rescue is required, contact the LCC via HT for assistance on the roof

Answer 60

20. D

The scuttle ladder shall never be used to descend to the lower floors unless the fire is under control.

Note: Use of an attached exposure for interior access to the roof depends on
the type of building construction. In attached wood frame type P.D.’s the
immediate adjoining building should not be used due to the possibility of
cockloft involvement. For attached P.D.’s of ordinary brick construction where firewalls exist between buildings, choose the building offering the easiest access to its interior. Familiarity with a unit’s response area will provide for effective operations

Note: Life saving rope should be taken to the roof when there will be a delay in
laddering the rear of the building due to attached exposures and/or the height of
the building requires the LSR.

Question 61

21. Roof firefighters operating on flat roof PDs must be aware that vertical ventilation is permitted only if the Roof FF? (PDs Ch 4—7.1A-5)
22. Communicates with and receives approval from the Ladder Officer operating in the fire area
23. Hears radio transmissions indicating the inside team has door control of the fire area
24. Hears radio transmissions indicating a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire area
    A. 1, 2
    B. 1, 3
    C. 2, 3
    D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 61

21. D

Question 62

22. At a flat roof PD fire, who is responsible to bring the first saw to the roof? (PDs CH 4—7.2A)

A. 1st Roof FF
B. 2nd Roof FF
C. 1st OV FF
D. 2nd OV FF

Answer 62

22. B

A. ROOF FIREFIGHTER - (Second To Arrive)
TOOLS: 6’ halligan hook & saw.

Question 63

23. First alarm units operating at a top floor fire in a row of attached 2-story, flat roof PDs would be incorrect to think?
    (PDs Ch 4—7.1 B-1, 7.2 B-1, B-5, C-2, 3)

A. If no ladder rescue is required in the front of the building, the 1st OV should immediately make his or her way to the rear to check the life hazard and perform necessary VEIS. The second OV should check the rear to ensure ventilation is completed.
B. Both the first and second OV’s should take a portable ladder, halligan and / or a 6’ hook
C. If no ladder rescue is required in the front of the building, the first and second OV’s should team up, and the first and second LCC’s should team up.
D. If there are exposure problems at a top floor fire, the 1st LCC may be used, operating alone, to quickly examine an exposure for possible life or extension, even if it is an IDLH

Answer 63

23. D
24. For top floor fires with exposure problems, the chauffeur may be used to
    examine an exposure which has not been covered by the inside team.
    Note: If the exposed building is an IDLH area, the chauffeur must team up with
    the 2nd OV or another available member before entering.

Question 64

24. At Queen Anne fires, due to the unique features of the building, it is a good practice to? (PDs Ch 4—8.4)
    A. Special call an extra engine company
    B. Special call an extra ladder company
    C. Special call an extra engine and ladder company
    D. Transmit a second alarm
25. At PD cellar fires, it would

Answer 64

24. B
25. 4 Due to the number of firefighters that may be needed for portable ladder rescue and the number of sleeping areas that may have to be entered and searched, it is good practice to special call an additional ladder company. The Incident Commander will make this decision based upon conditions encountered. Roof ventilation at this type of fire is normally not an initial consideration. It is generally performed by a later arriving unit.

Question 65

25. At PD cellar fires, it would be incorrect to make which statement below? (PDs Ch 4—9.2, 10.1, 10.2, 10.3, 10.4)
    A. In a two-family dwelling, the first Roof / OV team should survey the perimeter, and if no life hazard is found, VEIS the first floor windows and assist in searches
    B. The first ladder inside team should proceed to the same entrance as the first hoseline
    C. When no hoseline is immediately available, and fire conditions permit, the first Ladder Officer, Can FF and FE FF should all advance together down the cellar stairs to conduct a rapid primary search and to locate and confine the fire
    D. Whether the first ladder company uses the main entrance door or a secondary entrance, they must maintain control of the door they use to enter the PD until a charged hoseline advances via the main entrance door or secondary entrance

Answer 65

25. C

10.2 When no hoseline is immediately available, and if fire conditions permit, a decision may be made by the first ladder officer to advance down the cellar stairs. In this instance, the first ladder company inside team should descend to conduct a rapid primary search of the cellar for victims and to locate and confine the fire. One member should remain at the
top of the cellar stairs to control the door.

Question 66

26. First alarm units respond to a report of a fire in a PD in South Queens. Ladder 155 arrives first and Ladder 133 arrives second finding a cellar fire in a row of two-story flat roof PDs. Because the main entrance is the quickest access to the cellar, Engine 302 stretching the first attack line, and Ladder 155 decide to go through the main entrance door. In this situation, who is responsible for a primary search of the first floor? (PDs Ch 4—10.4.1)
    A. Ladder 133, and they may send one member of their interior team to provide assistance to Engine 302 to advance the line through the cellar
    B. Ladder 133, and they should not send any member of their interior team to provide assistance to Engine 302 to advance the line through the cellar
    C. Ladder 155, and they may send one member of their interior team to provide assistance to Engine 302 to advance the line through the cellar
    D. Ladder 155, and they should not send any member of their interior team to provide assistance to Engine 302 to advance the line through the cellar

Answer 66

26. C

10.4.1 When the decision has been made to advance the first hoseline through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire;
 The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar. If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the interior team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company officer and the other member complete the primary search of the first floor.
Note: It is critical at cellar fires that the first ladder inside team operate in a manner that supports the first hoseline in quickly applying water on the fire. Often, the cellar stair is narrow, confined and problematic for ladder members to descend without the protection of a hoseline. Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may actually delay the engine company advance. Once the cellar fire is controlled, the inside team is in position to perform VEIS duties.

Question 67

27. Regarding operations in attic areas of PD’s it would be incorrect to state that?
    (PDS Ch 4—11.1-11.4)
    A. Louvers for ventilation, which are often built into the underside of eaves are a special concern—as fire near louvers readily communicate to the attic and roof
    B. When opening knee walls, it’s a good practice to open walls near stairs where fire often extends, to limit extension
    C. Ladder companies should be prepared to open up a 3’ section of ceiling on the floor below to assist the engine. If wood is encountered, shift 3’ to one side
    D. The bent tip or cockloft nozzle may be used effectively in attic operations

Answer 67

27. B
28. 2 Members opening knee walls in attic spaces should avoid opening walls near the stairs. Fire venting from these openings could block members egress.

Question 68

28. Units arriving at a PD fire with two entrance doors on the front of the house should know that the door closest to the side wall will usually provide access to the second floor apartment. (PDs Ch 4—Photo 4.2 Pg 24)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 68

28. A