F.O. CLASS #10 - Week of 12/2/18: FFP – Under River Ops, T.B. – Management, Haz Mat #2, 3 & 4, Eng Ops #10 - 12 Instructor: BC Ken Ruggiero

Question 1

1. In order to operate effectively, it is necessary to have a working knowledge of the physical properties of underground and under river transit facilities. Which point below is not correct regarding under river tubes and tunnels? (2.2)
   A. Tunnel is a general term which describes a below-grade passageway. There are numerous underground tunnels between transit stations throughout the NYCT system. The Transit Authority also refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels.
   B. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Under river tubes are constructed of brick, concrete, or tubular cast iron. Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete and the walls are between 2 and 2½ feet thick.
   C. Most tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas. You cannot ride a train halfway across the river, get out of the train and cross over to the adjoining tube.
   D. Under river tubes are wider than underground tunnels. There is ample space between the train and the tube. In the event of a collision or an explosion, it will be very easy to access the side of the train from the exterior.

Answer 1

1. D

 Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels. There is very little space between the train and the tube. In the event of a collision or an explosion, it may be impossible to obtain access to the side of the train from the exterior.

Question 2

2. Members were conducting inspections of emergency exits in their response area and were discussing the different shapes of tunnels and tubes. Which point made by the members is correct? (2.2.1, 2.4)
   A. Tubes and tunnels are cylindrical in shape.
   B. Tubes and tunnels are square in shape.
   C. Tubes are cylindrical in shape and tunnels are square in shape.
   D. Tubes are square in shape and tunnels are cylindrical in shape.

Answer 2

2. C

Question 3

3. The NYCT Guidebook for Emergency exits distinguishes between two types of emergency exits. Standard exits are emergency exits where the doors of the exits are flush with the sidewalk while upright exits have vertical doors and are located in the side of a structure. To open these emergency exit doors the subway triangle key and the billy bar can be used. Which point about these tools is incorrect? (2.5)
   A. Both the standard and the upright emergency exits can be opened using the subway emergency tool, the triangle key.
   B. The ring around the lock is a security device designed to prevent the opening of exit doors by unauthorized persons.
   C. The Billy Bar Tool has two points that fit into the holes in the ring, preventing its movement, allowing the locking device to be opened.
   D. The Billy Bar Tool aids in opening the doors more quickly and easily. Without the use of the Billy Bar Tool the subway emergency exit doors will not open.

Answer 3

3. D

Although not essential, the Billy Bar aids in opening the doors more quickly and easily.

Question 4

4. Members of E99 were discussing the use and construction of emergency exit stairways with their new proby and made the following four comments. Which point made by the members was not entirely correct? (2.5.2, 2.5.3)
   A. Some exit stairways are narrow and steep, while others are wider, with a pitch that is comfortable to walk on. Stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The concrete stairs are often steeper, with closed treads.
   B. Evacuating civilians and Fire Department members wearing PPE will have difficulty exiting through the stairways which are narrow and steep.
   C. Lighting is present but may need to be enhanced. Glow sticks will provide illumination without adding extra heat and will provide up to 12 hours of illumination.
   D. The depth and pitch of stairways corresponds to the depths of the under river tubes, which range from 24 to 130 feet deep.

Answer 4

4. A

 Some exit stairways are narrow and steep, while others are wider, with a pitch that is comfortable to walk on. Stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The metal stairs are often steeper, with open treads.

Question 5

5. Crossovers, also known as cross passageways, are connections between adjacent tunnels. They are located only in underground areas and at the ends of under river tubes with the exception of the 63rd St. tunnel, 161st St. tunnel, and the Lexington Ave tube which have openings between tracks under the river. You would know that the most common crossover configuration can be found in which choice below? (2.6.1)
   A. The crossover passageway above the track level.
   B. The crossover located at the track level.
   C. The crossover located under the track level.
   D. None of the above.

Answer 5

5. B

Figure 6A shows a crossover at track level, the most common configuration.

Question 6

6. Members of E99 are responding to a report of a train fire in an under river tube between Manhattan and Queens. While enroute to the box members on the back step of E99 made the following points about fire protection systems and equipment found in an under river tube. Which point made below was the only correct one? (2.7, 2.7.2)
   A. All under river standpipes in the NYCT system are dry. There are pumps to augment pressure in the standpipes when they are supplied.
   B. 2½ inch outlets are located every 600 feet throughout under river tubes. Section valves are located approximately 200 feet apart.
   C. Siameses are usually located at the emergency exits closest to the river. In all cases, check the sign attached to the siamese to ensure that the correct system is supplied.
   D. Sound-powered phone jacks are located at section valves with the exception of the Joralemon Tube.
   E. 20-pound dry chemical extinguishers are located at power removal boxes, approximately every 800 feet.

Answer 6

6. C

 All under river standpipes in the NYCT system are wet.

 2½ inch outlets are located every 200 feet throughout under river tubes.

 Sound-powered phone jacks are located at standpipe outlets (exception: Joralemon Tube).

 20-pound dry chemical extinguishers are located at power removal boxes, approximately every 600 feet.

Question 7

7. The Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) was designed by the New York City Transit Authority and is provided for FDNY use. EED’s are located throughout the Transit Authority’s subway system. Which point below is the only incorrect point about the EED? (AUC 207 Add. 11)
   A. The EED is a yellow, 7-foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 70° angle.
   B. At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location north of the northbound platform (typically within 100 feet of the platform end). At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of all token booths. An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, on one side of each under river tunnel.
   C. Metal mounting brackets are provided at each location and are secured with a corrosion resistant padlock. If a key cannot be obtained, the locks can be forced using conventional forcible entry methods.
   D. EED’s can be used as a ladder from the bench wall or a train to track level, or as a bridge between adjacent subway cars. With the flat side up they can be used to move passengers from one train to another. When this is done, ropes or hooks should be used as guides.

Answer 7

7. B

3. 3 An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

Question 8

8. L100 is operating at a train derailment in an under river tube that connects Manhattan and Queens. There are no reported injuries however, a determination has been made by the IC that the passengers must be walked out of the tube to the nearest station on the Queens side which is about 1000’ away. The power has been removed and the passengers will walk on the track bed. Members of L-100 would be most correct to take which action below? (2.2.1)
   A. Have the passengers walk between the rails since this area is flat with no obstructions. Also be aware that the 3rd rail always runs along the right side of the train.
   B. Have the passengers walk between the rails but use caution since there is a drainage trough which could create a tripping hazard. Also be aware that the 3rd rail always runs along the left side of the train.
   C. Have the passengers walk in the area outside of the rails on the opposite side of the 3rd rail. Also be aware that the 3rd rail alternates sides as it goes through the tube/tunnel.
   D. Have the passengers walk in either the area between the rails or outside of the rails whichever is easiest for the passengers. Also be aware that the 3rd rail alternates sides as it goes through the tube/tunnel.

Answer 8

8. C

Typical under river NYCT subway tube. Note the following features: Cylindrical tube shape, drainage trough between running rails, benchwall, dry chemical extinguisher, blue light phone and standpipe. Also note that it would be unsafe to walk between the running rails due to the drainage trough. Personnel and evacuating passengers should walk in the area outside the rails, opposite to the third rail; be aware that the 3rd rail alternates sides as it goes through the

Question 9

9. Most under river tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas. You cannot ride a train halfway across the river, get out of the train and cross over to the adjoining tube. There are however three tubes which are newer in construction that will have openings in the partition throughout the under river areas. All of the following tubes listed below have openings in the partition and will allow access to the adjoining tracks except which one? (2.2.2, 2.3)
   A. Montague Street Tube.
   B. 63rd Street Tunnel between Manhattan and Queens.
   C. Lexington Ave. Tunnel between Manhattan and the Bronx.
   D. 161st Street Tunnel between Manhattan and the Bronx.

Answer 9

9. A

2.3 Exceptions to Typical Tube Layout
The following three tunnels, 63rd Street, 161st Street and Lexington Avenue, were constructed differently than previously described:

Question 10

10. Lt. Smith was discussing communications with his members during an afternoon drill and was talking about using the Post Radio at under river rail operations. Which point made by Lt. Smith was not entirely correct? (2.9.6)
    A. When the Post Radio is going to be used within the subway system NYC Transit must be notified.
    B. The increased wattage of the Post Radio may increase our operating range within the subway system.
    C. The Post Radio can be used in any area of the subway system since it is electrically shielded and won’t cause electrical interference.
    D. Post Radios may be useful to communicate above ground from one side of the river to the other side of the river.

Answer 10

10. C

2.9.6 Post Radio
Do not use Post Radios in immediate vicinity of signals, communications equipment or train operator cabs, due to the possibility of electrical interference. Notify NYCT
when Post Radios are in use within the subway system. The increased wattage of these Post Radios may increase our operating range. Post Radios may be useful to communicate above ground from one side of the river to the other.

Question 11

11. The first consideration on arrival at an operation involving electrified track will be a determination of whether the power is to remain on or be turned off. When power removal is required it shall be accomplished at all times via apparatus radio through our own Dispatcher. The only exception to this is when there is immediate danger and power must be shutoff to save lives in imminent danger. In this case the nearest power removal box shall be used and the Desk Superintendent shall immediately be notified via the emergency telephone that power is to remain off. Members operating in the various rail transit systems in NYC would know which choice below about electrical power is correct? (AUC 207 Add. 9 2.1, 2.8, Add. 11 Section 7)
    A. Overhead catenary wires deliver 10,000 to 30,000 volts of AC power.
    B. Standing trains can be supplied with power via a cable that will deliver 360 volts of AC Power.
    C. The Air Train is powered by a third rail power system which delivers 750 volts DC Power.
    D. In under river tubes 2,000 volt electrical lines may run throughout the tube at the ceiling level.
    E. The 3rd rail in the NYC Subway system delivers 660 volts of AC Power.

Answer 11

11. C
12. 1 CATENARY WIRES – Overhead electrical wires delivering approximately 12,000 (12KV) volts of alternating current (AC).
13. 8 480 VOLT STAND-BY POWER – Electrical power supplied to a standing train via a cable supplying 480 volts of AC power to operate the refrigeration, lighting, air conditioning, and any other incidental electrical equipment between runs.

9.1.1 Electrical Power
Third rails in the affected tube and in adjacent tubes may be live. In addition, 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level.

A track with a Dual Power System may be supplied simultaneously by an Overhead Catenary Line, usually
11,000 Volts AC current and also a ground level 3rd Rail, usually 660 Volts DC current.

Question 12

12. A critical element to ensure the safety of members operating in under river tubes is communications. Which point below regarding the various types of communications, subway repeaters, TA radios, and sound powered phones at under river rail operations is incorrect? (2.9.2, 2.9.3, 2.9.5)
    A. Breaks between repeater zones occur inside under river tubes. At present, members inside the tube on opposite sides of the break will not be able to communicate with each other.
    B. At present, there are no repeater antennas at most emergency exits and no repeater coverage inside most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on the tactical channel shall be used.
    C. Sound powered phone systems have been installed in every under river tube except the Joralemon Tubes between Brooklyn and Lower Manhattan.
    D. TA portable radios are carried by conductors, train operators, and TA supervisors. These radios will work above ground and in all locations in underground areas.

Answer 12

12. D

2.9.5 TA Portable Radios
TA portable radios are carried by conductors, train operators and TA supervisors. These radios may not work above ground. A communications link may be
established from a TA portable radio to the trainmaster, who could then relay information to the borough dispatcher.

Question 13

13. Operational guides have been developed to provide information regarding each individual under river tube. These operational guides are two sided and contain specific information on each side related to the particular under river tube referenced in the specific guide. Please look at the choices below and indicate which one(s) is/are correct. (2.11)
14. Side “B” contains maps, pictures and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the associated emergency exits, and stations.
15. Side “A” contains a diagram of the tube and information about emergency exits, distances, and crossovers.
    A. Both are incorrect.
    B. Both are correct.
    C. A is correct
    D. B is correct

Answer 13

13. A

Side “A” contains maps, pictures and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the associated
emergency exits, and stations.

Side “B” contains a diagram of the tube and information
about emergency exits, distances, and crossovers. The Operational Guides for all NYCT under river tubes are contained in Addendum 1 (Figures 12 and 13).

Question 14

14. L100 is operating at a train derailment in and under river tube between Manhattan and the Bronx. After power was requested and confirmed to be off members started to walk along the track bed to the area where the train derailed. As they were walking the new Lieutenant made the following statements and was correct in which one(s)? (Figures 7 and 13)
15. The standpipe outlets throughout most of the tubes are numbered and can be used to pinpoint the location of the incident.
16. The column numbers can also be used to provide a means to estimate the distance from an incident to an exit or a station.
17. Sound powered phone jacks are located at the standpipe outlets in every tube except the Joralemon Tube. The sound powered phone jacks are also numbered and are the recommended way to pinpoint an incident.
    A. All statements are correct.
    B. Statements 1and 2 are correct.
    C. All statements are incorrect.
    D. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
    E. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer 14

14. B

Figure 7
Standpipe outlet and sound-powered phone outlet. Note the standpipe outlet number, which can be used to pinpoint the location of the incident. Also note the sound
powered phone jack, located at all under-river standpipe outlets (except in the Joralemon Tubes between Brooklyn and lower Manhattan).

Figure 13
Side “B” of the Operational Guide for the Clark Street Tubes. The lengths of the under river sections of the tubes are shown, along with the distances from the closest stations to the emergency exits at the start of the tubes. Column numbers provide a means to estimate the distance from an incident to an exit or a station. Standpipe outlets throughout most of the tubes are numbered, as indicated by the numbers in the red circles. In every tube, except the Joralemon Tubes, sound powered phone jacks are located at the standpipe outlets. The information in the lower
corners pertains to the land-side of the tube directly above. For example, the information bullet in the lower left corner of this guide pertains to the emergency exit and crossover on the Manhattan side.

Question 15

15. When responding to incidents in under river tubes and nearby stations it is important for units to evaluate all information upon arrival so they can distinguish between a routine incident and a more serious incident. If a potentially serious incident is suspected members should assume a defensive position while performing a thorough size up and hazard assessment. All of the following points below indicate a serious event except which one? (3.1)
    A. When the dispatcher receives information from a single source from either side of the tube.
    B. Reports indicating heavy smoke or fire, an explosion, or a chemical release.
    C. One or more trains that are stuck in the tube.
    D. Unusual smoke or vapors in the station.
    E. Reports of numerous sick or overcome passengers.

Answer 15

15. A

Indications of a serious incident:
 Reports indicating heavy smoke or fire, an explosion, or a chemical release.
 Dispatcher receives information from SEVERAL sources, possibly from both sides of tube.
 One or more trains are stuck in the tube.
 Reports of numerous sick or overcome passengers.
 Unusual smoke or vapors in the station.
 Other information obtained from rail personnel or passengers.

Question 16

16. BC Question - The first arriving Battalion Chief at an incident in an under river tube has to make many critical decisions that can affect the safety of operating members and evacuating civilians. At a recent incident in an under river tube the 1st arriving Battalion Chief took the following actions and was incorrect in which one?
    A. The Chief special called a Battalion Chief, one Engine Co., one Ladder Co. and a Haz Mat Technician Engine to stage at the stations and emergency exits nearest to the under river tube.
    B. Since SOC resources at this incident were stretched thin, the Chief only used SOC units to assist self-evacuating passengers, to perform structural assessment, and to use their meters to monitor for radiation and chemicals.
    C. The Chief consulted with the Transit Authority Liaison and took into consideration that the Transit Authority will be attempting to move any operable trains out of the affected tube in the early stages of the operations.
    D. When there were indications that there were civilians on the tracks power removal was immediately requested in the affected tube. Members were also notified to operate as if the power was still on.

Answer 16

16. B
     At an incident like this, SOC resources may be stretched thin and should be used only as necessary for monitoring, structural assessment, and technical rescue.
    If use of the SOC Rebreather System is being considered, request it as soon as possible, due to the time it takes to put into operation.

Question 17

17. BC Question - A new Battalion Chief was operating at an incident where a train stalled and was stuck in an under river tube. The stalled train was near a crossover at an emergency exit. Prior to the fire departments arrival about 20 passengers self-evacuated the train and were standing on the live tracks of the adjoining tube. When the 1st due Ladder Co. arrived they quickly got the passengers safely back on the stalled train, notified the Battalion Chief that the passengers were able to be safely sheltered in place on the stalled train, and remained on the stalled train with the passengers. Power was requested and confirmed removed to the tracks that the stalled train was on and also to the tracks in the adjoining tube. The Chief ordered power restored to the adjoining tube, and told the conductor and train operator it was safe to proceed into the adjoining tube. After removing the 20 passengers with the rescue train, a complete search of the adjoining tube was conducted. Do you Agree or Disagree with the Chief’s actions at this incident? (4.5)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 17

17. D

 A decision will need to be made regarding the power status of the adjacent tube, which may be accessible via the crossover at the emergency exit. If passengers and/or firefighters are in the adjacent tube, request power removal. AFTER the adjacent tube is searched and secured, the IC may request a “Rescue Train” be routed through this tube, in which case the power would have to be restored.

Question 18

18. The Incident Commander at an under river tube incident may authorize limited entry into the tube for reconnaissance. This can provide the Incident Commander with invaluable first-hand information about incident conditions. Which unit(s) listed below would be a logical choice to use as a reconnaissance unit? More than one correct. (6.1.1)
    A. An Engine Co. standing fast at the incident.
    B. The 2nd due Ladder Co.
    C. The Hazardous Materials Unit.
    D. A Rescue Company.
    E. A Squad Company.

Answer 18

18. D, E

6.1 Reconnaissance
Depending on the results of the size-up and hazard assessment, the IC may authorize limited entry into the tube for reconnaissance (recon). This would provide us with invaluable first hand information about incident conditions.
6.1.1 A Rescue or Squad Company would be a logical choice as a recon unit for the following reasons:
 Metering capability
 1 hour SCBA cylinders
 Knowledge of structural issues

Question 19

19. One important aspect to a successful operation at an incident in an under river tube is ventilation. Controlled and coordinated ventilation will increase the chances of survival for passengers and enable firefighters to operate more safely and efficiently. Which point listed below about ventilation is not correct? (4.6)
    A. It is critical to contact the trainmaster to determine fan status, and to obtain available information about smoke conditions in the tube, especially in the vicinity of any stalled trains.
    B. Be cautious when changing the ventilation actions that were initiated by the Trainmaster. These actions may have been based on specific information that we are not aware of. Also, there may be unintended consequences of such a change.
    C. If possible, exhaust smoke and other contaminants toward evacuating passengers by using the fans on one side in the supply mode while using fans on the opposite end in the exhaust mode. This will ensure fresh a fresh air supply is being pushed toward the evacuating passengers.
    D. Evacuation should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode. This may not be possible at an incident in an under river tunnel. If a fire or explosion occurs in the middle of a train, passengers may self-evacuate in both directions.

Answer 19

19. C

 If possible, exhaust smoke and other contaminants away from evacuating passengers by using the fans on one side in the supply mode while using fans on the opposite end in the exhaust mode.

Question 20

20. BC Question - You are working a day tour in B98 and have just arrived at an explosion in a subway station that is the last station before the tube crosses the river into Queens. Upon your arrival you are told by an NYPD ESU Captain that a terrorist detonated an IED in an attempted chemical attack, but the chemical did not release and is contained at this time. He also says there are numerous injured passengers and some minor structural damage to the station. The Deputy Chief, who just arrived, turns to you and asks you the Battalion Chief the following two questions: Who is the IC at this incident, us or the NYPD? Since an IED was detonated we shouldn’t allow cell phone and handie talkie use within how many feet of the incident? You would be correct to tell the Deputy Chief? (5.3, 5.7, AUC 276 6.1)
A. The FDNY is the IC / 300’
B. The NYPD is the IC / 150’
C. The FDNY is the IC / 600’
D. The NYPD is the IC / 1000’

Answer 20

20. B

6.1 CIMS states that the NYPD is the Incident Commander for CBRN/Haz-Mat Incidents where crime or terrorism is suspected or has occurred. A Unified Operations Section will be implemented in all circumstances, based on agency Core Competencies, with FDNY responsible for life safety and mass decontamination, and NYPD responsible for overall site
management and crime/terrorism assessment and investigation. As soon as NYPD determines the incident does not involve crime or terrorism, a Unified Command is formed between FDNY and NYPD. For chemical incidents, DEP will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation. For biological or radiological incidents, DOHMH will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation.

Question 21

21. FDNY members are operating at a serious train derailment in an under river tube. Since this incident occurred at 3 am there are not many patients on the train. The Rescue Company performing recon of the train notifies the IC that there are approximately 20 passengers on the train with various injuries. The Rescue Officer reports there are:
    - Five ambulatory victims.
    - Five non ambulatory victims, two of which are red tags and three who are yellow tags.
    - Five red tag victims requiring extrication.
    - Five black tag victims.
    The victims should be removed in which order below? (7.1)
    A. Ambulatory victims, non-ambulatory victims (yellow tags first then red tags), red tag victims requiring extrication, and the black tag victims.
    B. Black tag victims, ambulatory victims, non-ambulatory victims, and the victims requiring extrication.
    C. Ambulatory victims, non-ambulatory victims (red tag then the yellow tag victims, black tag victims, and the victims requiring extrication.
    D. Ambulatory victims, non-ambulatory victims (red tag then the yellow tag victims), victims requiring extrication, and the black tag victims.

Answer 21

21. D

Victims should be removed in the following order:
7.1.1 Ambulatory Victims
Evacuate passengers who have walked from the incident to the emergency exit.
7.1.2 Non-Ambulatory Victims
 Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
 Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
7.1.3 Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication
 Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
 Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
7.1.4 Black Tag (deceased victims)

Question 22

22. Planning and logistics are an important aspect to operations since a massive search and rescue operation will present FDNY Units with many obstacles to overcome. Which point listed below is incorrect regarding planning and logistics at an under river rail incident? (6.2, 6.3)
    A. Plan tactics in the proper sequence. For example, carrying bulky equipment down an emergency exit while the exit is being used for evacuation will save time and maximize the use of the exit.
    B. Determine what can be done to maintain the highest degree of safety for operating members. Establish sectors, groups and task forces as necessary to maximize efficiency and control.
    C. Ensure availability of APR adaptors and canisters. Even if continuous SCBA use is not necessary, we can expect large quantities of dust, including steel dust, to be airborne.
    D. Lighting methods should cause as little noise and heat buildup as possible. Monitor for CO buildup when using generators to operate portable lighting. Consider the use of glow sticks, hand lights, and portable lighting.

Answer 22

22. A
23. 2.4 Plan tactics in proper sequence. For example, don’t be carrying bulky equipment down an emergency exit while the exit is being used for evacuation.

Question 23

23. At a recent incident in an under river tube, ambulatory patients walked to the base of an emergency exit and were directed to continue walking along the track to the nearest station which was about 750’ away. The decision to move passengers along the track to the nearest station will be based on all of the following factors except which one? (7.2.2 A)
A. The patient’s condition.
B. The smoke condition in the tube.
C. The status of the 3rd rail power.
D. The travel distance.

Answer 23

23. B

A. Direct passengers to walk along the track to the nearest station The decision to move passengers along the track to nearest station will be based on travel distance, patient condition, and the status of 3rd rail power.

Question 24

24. Safety is paramount at any operation but especially in an under river tube. There are many factors that can lead to unsafe operating condition such as heavy smoke condition, high heat, water from a ruptured tube, and moving trains to name a few. Which point below regarding safety at an under river rail incident is incorrect? (9.1)
    A. Once committed to the tubes, members must realize that the route they approached from may be their only means of egress. Conditions at the scene may not allow members to pass to the other side of the incident
    B. An explosion, collision, or derailment would generate large amounts of airborne dust. In addition to being a respiratory hazard, the dust would severely affect unprotected eyes.
    C. Third rails in the affected tube and in adjacent tubes may be live. In addition, 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level. These lines are deactivated by routine requests for power removal.
    D. Numerous severe injuries will result in body parts and bodily fluids at the incident scene. As time passes, high heat conditions in such an enclosed area will result in tissue decomposition.

Answer 24

24. C

9.1.1 Electrical Power
Third rails in the affected tube and in adjacent tubes may be live. In addition, 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level. (Figure 16) These lines are not deactivated by routine requests for power removal.

Question 25

25. It is critically important that FDNY members operating in an under river tube understand how to use a power removal box in order to remove power in an emergency life threatening situation. Which choice below is incorrect regarding power removal and the blue light phone? (AUC 207 8.1, 8.2, Under River Rails 2.9.7, 4.5)
    A. Contact shoes are pieces of metal that conduct electricity from the third rail to car motors. They stick out from the sides of the car near the wheels. There are contact shoes on both sides of the cars. If any contact shoe is on the third rail, all contact shoes of car will be energized.
    B. Whenever NYC Transit personnel determine that a Power Removal Box or the Telephone is out of service, they will be covered with a bag to identify them as being out of service. This bag will be white, with red lettering, and it will state Out Of Service.
    C. If a member encounters an out of service power removal box, the member should go to the next closest power removal box and use this box to shut the power and contact the Rail Control Center (RCC) to request the removal of power.
    D. To operate the telephone at a power removal box, remove the handset from inside the box and depress the button on the handset, keeping it depressed at all times during the conversation. Releasing the button will terminate the call.

Answer 25

25. C

If a member encounters an out of service Power Removal Box, the member should use the associated Telephone to contact the Rail Control Center (RCC) to request the removal of power. The member must identify him/herself, state the reason that the power must be removed, and
remain on the phone until they receive confirmation that power has been removed.

Question 26

26. True or False? A blue light phone can be used to call outside the system and can receive calls from outside the system. To call a blue light telephone from outside of the system, dial 1 + the area code (usually 718) + the three digit exchange + the four digit extension number. (2.9.7)
    A. True or B. False

Answer 26

26. B

 A blue light phone cannot be used to call outside the system, but can receive calls from outside the system. To call a blue light telephone from outside of the
system, dial 1 + the area code (usually 718) + the three digit exchange + the four digit extension number.

Question 27

27. Removal of non-ambulatory victims from a tube will be labor-intensive and will require increased personnel and logistical support. The FDNY uses four methods to remove non-ambulatory patients from a tube. Which method listed below has been tested and found to be a more efficient method of moving large numbers of patients over significant distances? Which method listed below has proven to be useful to move patients long distances over difficult terrain? (7.3)
    A. Rescue Train / SKED Stretchers.
    B. SKED Stretchers / Rail Cart.
    C. Rail Cart / Rescue Train.
    D. Victim Removal Relay / Sked Stretchers.

Answer 27

27. D

7.3.1 Victim Removal Relay Teams may be used to remove non-ambulatory victims. Teams would spread out from victim location to emergency exit. Victims would be passed from team to team in a relay fashion. This action would prevent carrying teams from having to pass each other in a narrow space. The relay concept has been tested in FDNY exercises and found to be a more efficient method of moving large numbers of patients over significant distances.
7.3.2 SKED stretchers have proven to be useful to move patients long distances over
difficult terrain.

Question 28

29. Ladder Companies should consider specialized tools to aid in operations in under river tubes. All of the following tools listed below may prove useful and should be considered in under river rail operations except which one listed below? (8.2.5)
A. Search Ropes.
B. A Frame and Extension Ladders.
C. Glow Sticks.
D. Dry Chemical Extinguishers.
E. Thermal Imaging Cameras.

Answer 28

29. B

8.2.5 Deliver and Operate Tools
 Standard firefighting tools, for use in initial stages of the operation, including:
o Wooden hooks
o Forcible entry tools
o Bolt cutters (to gain access to Emergency Evacuation Devices)
 Specialized Tools. The following tools may prove useful and should be considered:
o Cordless Sawzalls™
o Glow sticks (provide light without extra noise or heat)
o Suitcase/scissor ladders and A frame ladders. (Useful to move from track level to benchwalls, train cars and emergency exit platforms)
o Cutters Edge saw blades, Hurst™ tools (Hurst™ tools may be difficult to transport to the point of operations)
o Dry chemical extinguishers
o Search ropes
o Thermal imaging cameras
o Torches and gas saws (may cause unacceptable contamination of the atmosphere)
Note: Do not carry down unnecessary tools; this will waste effort and possibly crowd an already congested work area.

Question 29

30. Column numbers are on columns or walls in tunnels and stations and are usually in \_\_\_\_ letters on a \_\_\_\_ background? (Add 1 Page 6)
A. Black / Yellow
B. Red / White
C. White / Red
D. Yellow / Black

Answer 29

30. A

Question 30

31. Signal numbers are attached to signal lights in stations and tunnels and are usually in \_\_\_\_ letters on \_\_\_\_ background? (Add 1 Page 6)
A. Black / Yellow
B. Red / White
C. Black / White
D. White / Red

Answer 30

31. C

Question 31

32. Members operating in an under river tube near a column can use the column numbers to help pinpoint their location. If a number on a column says 112+35 members should report the number as? (Add 1 Page 6)
A. 112
B. 147
C. 11235
D. 112+35

Answer 31

32. C
33. NYCT of FD units may report column or signal
    number near an incident. Compare reported numbers to numbers on guide. For column numbers, drop the “+” sign. View as one number.

Question 32

1. Subordinates may test a new superior to see how much the new superior will bend the formal rules of the organization. This “testing” typically goes through stages. Listed below are the different stages of testing. Please put the stages in the correct order starting with the beginning stage to the final stage of testing. (TB MGMT 1.1)
2. The Request Stage.
3. The Confrontation Stage.
4. The Conquest Plateau.
5. The Open Warfare Stage.
6. The Feeling Out Stage.
   A. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
   B. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
   C. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
   D. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer 32

1. D
2. The “Feeling-Out” Stage: Subordinates violate minor rules which are commonly violated on the job to see if the supervisor will object to these customary infractions. They test how far they can go.
3. The “Request” Stage: Subordinates ask for permission to do little things which are in violation of the official rules. They seek formal approval for the infractions.
4. The “Confrontation” Stage: If the superior has denied permission to do something, some subordinates will not accept that immediately; they will confront the superior and tell him/her that they intend to break the rule no matter what the superior says. Some other
   subordinates may support the one who leads the confrontation.
5. The “Open Warfare” Stage: If the superior does not back down after the confrontation, there is occasionally a subordinate or a few subordinates who will take some action to intimidate the superior, perhaps damaging the superiors belongings or threatening the
   superior or in rare instances physically attacking the superior. It is rare that other subordinates will support this kind of behavior. Subordinates will support the superior who takes a decisive action at this stage.
6. The “Conquest Plateau”: The superior who has overcome confrontation and open warfare does not usually have to face the same kind of situation with anyone else. A superior who has been through this kind of situation has a reputation which obviates any
   later confrontations.

Question 33

2. You are a new Lieutenant working a day tour in L7 and are going to delegate some of your duties to a member who is on the Lieutenants list and is getting promoted in a few months. You are confident that this member will be able to handle these tasks successfully. You would be correct to delegate all but which of the following tasks listed below? (TB MGMT 1.2)
   A. Have the member train the new proby on how to properly perform house watch duties.
   B. Have the member give a tour of the firehouse to the local Boy Scout troop.
   C. Have the member make out the riding list and give out the tool assignments for the day tour.
   D. After operating at a 10-38-3 have the member gather the information for the fire report.

Answer 33

2. C

TASKS WHICH ONLY THE SUPERVISOR SHOULD DO:
¨ Check and sign reports
¨ Make out assignments
¨ Check on work being done
¨ Handle complaints

TASKS WHICH THE SUPERVISOR SHOULD DELEGATE:
¨ Getting data for reports
¨ Some training of subordinates
¨ Give a tour of the firehouse
¨ Make a schedule for inspections

TASKS WHICH THE SUPERVISOR SHOULD NOT DO:
¨ Housewatch
¨ Equipment maintenance
¨ Taking the nozzle at a fire
¨ Driving the apparatus

Question 34

3. During a day tour in L7 a young Lieutenant asked his LCC if he could drive the rig when the unit goes out on BISP. The LCC agreed and the Lieutenant drove the rig to the first stop on morning BISP without incident. Do you Agree or Disagree with the Lieutenants actions above? (TB MGMT)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 34

3. D

TASKS WHICH THE SUPERVISOR SHOULD NOT DO:
¨ Housewatch
¨ Equipment maintenance
¨ Taking the nozzle at a fire
¨ Driving the apparatus

Question 35

4. You are a new Captain working the day tour in L39 and have just returned from a fire on the 2nd floor of a private dwelling. The fire was contained to the living room on the 2nd floor but the windows in the living room and the adjoining kitchen were broken for ventilation. The owner of the house has just arrived at the firehouse is very upset and agitated because these window were broken and water leaked into the 1st floor kitchen and living room. The owner wants to file a complaint and talk to you. The owner feels that this an especially serious complaint. While talking with the upset owner you took the following actions and were correct in all except which one? (TB MGMT 4.9)
   A. When talking to the civilian you gave him your name.
   B. You did not take any notes and instead gave him your full attention.
   C. You asked the civilian for his name.
   D. You used his name repeatedly when speaking to him regarding the complaint.

Answer 35

4. B

If the complaint is especially serious and the person is very excited, it is often helpful to take notes while the person is speaking. This lets the person know that the complaint is being taken seriously. It also has the effect of slowing the person down if the person is very excited and making the person careful about how the complaint is being stated.

Question 36

5. When conflicts occur between supervisors and subordinates and the conflicts are work related, the supervisor should observe certain rules in dealing with the conflict. All of the following rules are correct except which one below? (4.7)
   A. A problem between the supervisor and a particular subordinate can, if necessary, be aired in front of others, however other people should not be dragged into it.
   B. Deal with people in private, one by one. Stress uniform standards and rules for all members of the unit.
   C. A “cooling off period” is often desirable if the problem will not get worse due to the delay.
   D. Deal with only one problem (or problem person) at a time. A supervisor can seldom win if fighting two battles at once.
   E. In dealing with a problem subordinate, it is better to deprive the subordinate of an ally by keeping on good terms with the rest of the unit.

Answer 36

5. A
6. Deal with people in private, one by one. A problem between the supervisor and a particular subordinate should not be aired in front of others, and other people should not be dragged into it.

Question 37

6. When conflicts occur between two subordinates, the supervisor should apply basic principles of “conflict management” to the situation. Which principle of conflict management listed below is incorrect? (4.8)
   A. Size up the situation to assess if there are any physical dangers, whose feelings are being hurt, and who are the individuals involved.
   B. Speak with both members at the same time and start with the one who is most upset. Tell the other member to wait for his/her turn to speak.
   C. Move the conflicting parties from a public place and get away from bystanders. Separate conflicting parties and allow emotions to ventilate.
   D. If future conflicts may occur, ask for suggested solutions within the confines of what is proper and allowable. Strong individual personality conflicts are often solved only by transfers.

Answer 37

6. B
7. Speak with one at a time:
   Start with the one who is most upset.
   Tell the other to wait for his/her turn to speak.
   Use the person’s name.

Question 38

7. Firefighter Jones has been a member of E99 for 35 years and is the senior man in the company by far. Recently a new proby, a female firefighter, was assigned to the unit. After learning about this new member FF Jones approached the Captain of E99 and told him that he does not want to work with a female firefighter and that he wants her to be transferred to another unit. The Captain of E99 would be correct to take which action listed below? (4.8)
   A. Explain to Firefighter Jones that a transfer to another unit based on the fact that the new firefighter is a female is an inappropriate and an ineffective way to deal with this situation.
   B. Explain to the new firefighter that it would be in her and the company’s best interest if she would agree to a transfer since FF Jones is “old school” and has never worked with a female firefighter before.

Answer 38

7. A

Question 39

8. You are a Captain working a night tour, after a busy day tour in L33 and have been running around nonstop since the start of the tour at 1800. When you finally return to the firehouse around 2030 hours there is a note pad on your desk with the following four messages:
9. The Deputy Chief in D7 called regarding a member of L33 who owes 10 mutuals. He wants to know why this member owes so many tours.
10. A civilian from a run you were on earlier in the tour wants to talk to you since some of your members were rude to her during a water leak in her apartment. She is very upset.
11. FF Smith wants to talk to you because he is unsure if he has a roster tour in the morning.
12. A Chief from DOB called and wanted to discuss an upcoming meeting regarding DOB referral procedures.
    You would be correct to return the messages above in which order below? (TB MGMT 2.3)
    A. 2, 1, 3, 4
    B. 4, 3, 1, 2
    C. 1, 2, 4, 3
    D. 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer 39

8. C

When it comes to the rule of “people before paper,” the people can be prioritized in terms of who should be given first response. Apart from situations involving threats to safety, the order of consideration is:

1. Superiors
2. People who are upset, whether outsiders or insiders
3. Outsiders: from another agency or unit, civilians
4. Routine contacts with insiders

Question 40

1. When dealing with hazardous materials there are many hazards that are not always immediately identifiable to members and can pose a threat to member’s safety. To operate safely first responders must take certain precautions. Which general guideline listed below is incorrect regarding first responder actions at a hazardous material incident? (4.1, 4.2, 4.5, 4.7)
   A. Look for any visible placards, labels, chemical names, symbols, etc. on the container, tank, drum, or vehicle. Often, plant personnel or the vehicle driver can supply the name of the material.
   B. Obtain as much information as possible to assist in identification. Often, a series of numbers and letters which mean nothing to you will provide much information to trained personnel.
   C. Sometimes the configuration, size, shape, construction or use of the vehicle or container is a tip off to the material involved. Do not assume, because there are no clearly recognizable signs, that there are no hazards.
   D. Proper identification of the material involved is essential to decide on safe tactics to handle any hazardous materials incident. Identification should be the initial action taken after a command post and staging area are established.

Answer 40

1. D
2. 1 Proper identification of the material involved is essential to decide on safe tactics to handle any hazardous materials incident. Identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units.

Question 41

2. Hazardous materials may be shipped via truck, railroad, aircraft, and ships. Each of these methods of transportation require that shipping papers be carried by the operator of the particular mode of transportation. From the list of the different transportation methods below choose the incorrect choice. (4.4)
   A. In a truck the bill of lading is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
   B. On a railroad the waybill is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
   C. On an aircraft the air bill is kept by the pilot
   D. On a ship the cargo manifest is kept by the captain of the ship.

Answer 41

2. D

♦ Truck ———The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
♦ Railroad ——The “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
♦ Aircraft——-The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
♦ Ships ———-The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.

Question 42

3. During afternoon drill members of Hazardous Materials Unit 1 were talking to their newest member about operating with hazardous materials. The new member made the following four points and was only correct in which one? (5.3, 7)
   A. If first arriving units are able to identify the substance by name, this shall be relayed to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and to the HMRT. When relaying the name to the dispatcher, speak slowly and clearly.
   B. Empty containers are less hazardous than full ones. Vapors or residue of the product they formerly contained may be present.
   C. In general, DOT regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting OVER 1000 pounds of one particular material.
   D. Water may be used on any substance that is fuming. Once the fuming stops, water should be shut down and a proper identification and hazard assessment completed.

Answer 42

3. C

♦ Empty containers may be MORE HAZARDOUS than full ones. Vapors or residue of the product they formerly contained may be present.
♦ Do not use water on any substance that is fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment.

5.4 If first arriving units are able to identify the substance by name, this shall be relayed, letter by letter, phonetically (A-Adam, B-Boy, etc.), to the dispatcher for notification to
Chemtrec and to the Hazardous Materials Response Team (HMRT). It cannot be overemphasized how critical the spelling of a chemical name is.

Question 43

4. BC Question - BC Judge is working a day tour in B99 and is responding to a report of a stuck train at the rail yard near the firehouse. Upon arrival, BC Judge is told by the 1st due Truck Officer, Lt. Torres, that one of the cars has derailed and that there are no injuries since the train is a freight train. A few minutes later Lt. Torres tells BC Judge that the car that derailed is carrying anhydrase ammonia and that there are no leaks or damage to the rail car. He also states that the train was traveling less than 5 miles per hour when it derailed. The rail yard supervisor is on the scene and tells Lt. Torres that FD assistance is not required, the train cars are safe, and that rail yard personnel are going to put the car back on the rail so the train can continue on to its final destination. Lt. Torres recommends a 10-18 for a 10-31. BC Judge agrees and transmits the signal to the dispatcher and puts B99 10-8. Do you Agree or Disagree with BC Judges action at this incident? (Section 7)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 43

4. D

Damage assessment requires specialized training and skill. Initial responders are notqualified to fully assess these situations. In all cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars the Hazardous Materials unit must be called, even when it appears there is no damage. Haz-Mat will provide the technical knowledge and skills to assist the Incident Commander in determining the condition and contents of the involved tank car(s). This
will aid in controlling the incident safely.

Question 44

5. Members are operating at an overturned tractor trailer on the Grand Central Parkway in Queens. The tractor trailer is the only vehicle involved and witnesses say the driver ran away. There is a placard that is visible on the trailer of the truck. The placard has the number 6 on it and it also has a 4 digit ID number. Which choice below reflects a correct action when trying to identify the product carried on the overturned tractor trailer? (2.1, 5.2)
   A. Assume that the material is some kind of poison and use the 4 digit ID number to look up the product in the emergency response guidebook.
   B. Assume that the material is some type of corrosive material and match the placard on the trailer with those found in the back of the emergency response guide book.
   C. Assume that the material is some type of compressed gas and send a member into the cab of the tractor to locate the waybill to determine the 4 digit ID number.
   D. Assume that the material is radioactive and match the placard on the trailer with those found in the back of the emergency response guide book.

Answer 44

5. A
6. 1 The Department of Transportation classifies chemicals according to their major hazardous characteristics.
7. Explosives.
8. Compressed Gases.
9. Flammable Liquids
10. Flammable Solids. .
11. Oxidizers.
12. Poisons
13. Radioactive Material.
14. Corrosives.
15. Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods.

d. Only if no ID number or shipping name can be found should you resort to matching the diamond shaped placard on tank, vehicle, or railroad car with a placard in the back of the Guidebook, and then turn to the guide pace number given.

Question 45

6. Members of E99 operated at three different incidents during a recent day tour. At which incident listed below did E99 take an incorrect action? (References 1 and 2)
   A. While operating at an incident where there was a small spill of muriatic acid, members of E99 wore their full firefighting protective equipment and requested the response of the Haz Mat unit. E99’s apparatus was parked upwind of the incident.
   B. E99 was operating at an EMS run where a person overdosed on heroin. The Officer had his members check for the presence of hypodermic needles by having his members by gently rub the patient’s pockets.
   C. E99 operated at a fire in a private dwelling that was being used as a meth lab. Once the Officer from E99 realized it was a meth lab, he ordered his members to approach with caution and not to handle any products or equipment. The Police were notified and Haz Mat was requested to respond.

Answer 45

6. B

When administering first aid to suspected drug abusers and checking for possible presence of hypodermic needles, do not rub the victim’s pockets. Gentle patting of the pocket areas should reveal the presence of the needle. Cut the pocket area away to retrieve the needle. Never attempt to retrieve the needle by placing
your hand in the victim’s pocket.

Question 46

7. BC Question - BC Knowitall is operating at a steam explosion inside of a high rise commercial building where there has been an asbestos release. BC Knowitall gave the following orders at this incident but was incorrect in which one listed below? (Section 4)
   A. BC Knowitall ordered all members suspected of being contaminated with asbestos to be isolated until they were washed down. This was necessary to prevent cross contamination.
   B. BC Knowitall told the isolated members to remove all of their PPE, their SCBA’s, and their face pieces while waiting to be washed down since it was a hot day outside.
   C. BC Knowitall had members gently wet down suspected asbestos material by using a fog spray to minimize the amount of fibers that can become airborne.
   D. BC Knowitall contacted the Haz-Mat Battalion by using the 800 MHz radio. After consulting with the Haz-Mat Battalion, he transmitted the appropriate 10-80 signal and specified that this was an asbestos related incident.

Answer 46

7. B
8. 4 Strictly enforce the Department’s SCBA policy to reduce inhalation exposure. This is critical to the health and safety of members operating in the contaminated area.

Question 47

8. Agree or Disagree? Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material” when intact, does not present a health hazard. The hazard is created when the material becomes friable, enters the atmosphere, and is inhaled or ingested. This occurs when the material is disturbed during fire or overhaul operations, flakes off due to age, or from deterioration of the protective covering. The major health issue with asbestos is inhalation of the fibers. Respiratory protection is of paramount importance.
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 47

8. A
9. 1 Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material” (ACM), when intact, does not present a health hazard. The hazard is created when the material becomes friable, enters the atmosphere, and is inhaled or ingested. This occurs when the material is disturbed during fire or overhaul operations, flakes off due to age, or from deterioration of the protective covering.

Question 48

9. Due to increased public awareness and the availability of carbon monoxide (CO) detectors for the home, the Fire Department is being called to investigate activated CO detectors and other CO related emergencies. All of the following are properties of CO with the exception of which one? (Section 2)
   A. CO is virtually undetectable without special instruments. It is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees and has a LEL of 12.5% and an UEL of 74%.
   B. CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air. Since warm air rises, CO rises with it. Once this emitted air cools to room temperature, CO will disperse evenly through the room.
   C. CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-irritating, toxic gas and is a natural by-product of incomplete combustion from fuels such as gasoline, wood, coal, propane, oil, and methane.
   D. In the home, heating and cooking equipment are possible sources of CO. Vehicles running in an attached garage can also produce dangerous levels of CO.

Answer 48

9. B

2.5 CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly lighter than air (.968). Since warm air rises, CO rises with it. E.g. air from a furnace, hot water heater, or a fire. Once this
emitted air cools to room temperature, CO will disperse evenly through the room.

Question 49

10. Understanding the health hazards of carbon monoxide is important when dealing with CO incident and emergencies. Listed below are some points regarding the health hazards of carbon monoxide. Which is the only correct point listed below? (Section 3)
    A. CO provides no early warning signs and has a greater affinity for hemoglobin than O2. CO is about 200 times more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.
    B. Low level CO poisoning can mimic the flu with symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, dizziness, confusion, irritability, and a severe headache.
    C. Although CO is nontoxic, it will displace O2 in bloodstream and asphyxiate the victim. CO is absorbed into the body through the lungs where it is transferred to your blood.
    D. Once in the body CO combines with hemoglobin and becomes a deadly compound called carboxyhemoglobin. To reverse the buildup of COHb in the body, over 210 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.

Answer 49

10. B
11. 4 Highly toxic.
12. 9 CO has a greater affinity for hemoglobin than O2 . CO is about 210 more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.
13. 11 To reverse the buildup of COHb in the body, over 200 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.

Question 50

11. E63 and L39 have just arrived at a 1 story private dwelling for a report of a CO detector activation. Members are wearing all of their PPE and SCBA’s. When the only occupant of the dwelling opens the door she tells the members that her CO detector went off about an hour ago and won’t stop beeping. Members of L39, using their CO meter, take initial readings at the front door of the premise and then enter the house to continue their investigation. Lt. Kirk is getting readings on his CO detector of 8 ppm in the kitchen area of the house while his OV has 0 readings in the basement. The occupant then states that she has a headache and wants to take a nap. Lt. Kirk immediately orders his members to don their face pieces, has the occupant removed from the building, and has his members ventilate the area. Members of E63 treat the occupant of the dwelling, request the response of EMS to the scene, and notify the dispatcher to have Con Ed respond since this is a CO emergency. Lt. Kirk has his members shut down the defective gas stove in the kitchen which caused the CO levels to hit 8 ppm. The CO detector was reset and stopped beeping. Do you Agree or Disagree with actions that E63 and L39 took at this box?
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 50

11. A

Question 51

12. Occupants of an area with elevated CO levels can remain in their apartment of house if CO levels do not exceed \_\_\_\_\_ ppm. It is recommended that occupants leave their apartment or house if CO levels reach \_\_\_\_\_ ppm but are not greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_ ppm. Occupants must leave their apartment or house if CO levels reach \_\_\_\_\_\_ ppm or greater. (4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
A. 10/35, 100/100
B. 9/10, 35/200
C. 9/10, 99/100
D. 35/100, 199/200

Answer 51

12. C

Question 52

13. The GasAlert Extreme is a pocket sized warning device issued to all units for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. Use of the instrument is intended to alert the user to CO presence in the environment. Members would not being using this piece of equipment correctly in which choice below? (Add1)
    A. The meter is equipped with four push buttons. To turn on and activate the meter press the green circular button on the right side. The right button is the only button to be used by field units.
    B. If affixing the CO meter to handie-talkie strap, affix it in the chest area. Having CO meter near handie-talkie antenna will cause false activation.
    C. Field units are not to perform any maintenance on, or open the device. At the start of each tour turn the meter on and allow it to perform a self-test. Ensure the sensor port is clear from any blockage.
    D. The unit is water resistant with a concussion-proof housing. However, do not use detector if it is damaged. If marking the meter with company ID, do not etch or use a marker the use of sticker or tape are acceptable.

Answer 52

13. A
14. 1 The meter is equipped with four push buttons. To turn on and activate the meter press the green circular button on the left only. When activated, meter will perform a self-test showing date, time, CO low and high alarm ranges, calibration due date and then go into operational mode. To turn off the meter, press and hold same circular button on the left for 5 seconds. The left button is the only button to be used by field units. The other 3 buttons are for use by Haz Mat OPS meter room only. (See Photo 1)

Question 53

14. The CO meter will display a visual and a low audible warning with a slow vibration if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds \_\_\_\_\_ PPM. The CO meter will display a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds \_\_\_\_\_\_ PPM. (Add 1)
A. 10/99
B. 35/200
C. 9/100
D. 35/100

Answer 53

14. D

2.4 If the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM, the meter will signal the following alarm:
 a slow modulating tone (every 1 second)
 with slow flashing red lights (every 1 second)
 and a slow vibration (every 1 second)
When the CO concentration falls below 35 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.

2.5 If the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM the meter will signal the following alarm:
 a fast modulating tone (every ½ second)
 with fast flashing red lights (every ½ second)
 a fast vibration (every ½ second)
When the CO concentration falls below 100 PPM, the meter will go into low alarm.
Note: CO meters will display readings up to 999ppm. If readings of 1000 ppm or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an over limit condition.

Question 54

1. Members of E99 were talking with their newest ECC about supplying sprinkler systems at operations. All of the members made the following points and were mistaken in which one listed below? (10.3.1, 10.3.2, 10.3.3, 10.3.8)
   A. Siamese connections are color coded for ease of identification. Either the caps or the entire siamese connection may be painted. Automatic sprinkler siamese connections are painted green while standpipe connections are painted red.
   B. If no color coding is present, the siamese connection will usually be embossed or stamped on a plate or the siamese connection itself as to the type of system it supplies.
   C. Sprinkler systems should always be supplied with 3 ½ or 2 ½” inch hose depending on conditions. Sprinkler systems should always be augmented by at least two different engine companies.
   D. Non-automatic sprinkler systems may also be encountered. These systems are usually found in cellars and sub-cellars of older commercial buildings and depend solely upon the fire department to supply water for firefighting.

Answer 54

1. C

10.3.1 Siamese connections are color coded for ease of identification. Either the caps or the entire siamese connection may be painted. Sprinkler siamese connections are painted green. For reference, the other colors used and what they indicate are as follows:
Green Automatic Sprinkler System
Red Standpipe System
Aluminum Non-automatic Sprinkler or Perforated Pipe
Yellow Combination Sprinkler/Standpipe
If no color coding is present, each siamese connection should be identifiable as to
the type of system it supplies. This information is usually embossed or stamped on
a plate or the siamese connection itself.

10.3.2 Sprinkler systems should always be supplied with 3 1/2-inch hose.

10.3.3 If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be stretched to the standpipe siamese. If the first due engine is supplying both the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the second and third due
engine companies must stretch additional lines to augment both systems.

10.3.8 Whenever possible, sprinkler systems should be augmented by at least two different engine companies.

Question 55

2. Lt. Corrpez and his unit, E98, have just arrived at a phone alarm for a fire on the 33rd floor of a 75 story high rise fireproof multiple dwelling. The building is fully sprinklered and there is a report of a fire in apartment 33B. There is no visible indication on the exterior of the building of a fire and the Ladder Co. has just entered the elevator and are on their way up to investigate. While waiting in the lobby for the OV to come and get E98, an employee of the building tells Lt. Corrpez that there is a fire on the 33rd floor. Another person in the lobby says to Lt/ Corrpez that she was visiting a friend on the 32nd floor and that she just came down and did not see or smell smoke. Lt. Corrpez calls his ECC and tells him to supply and charge the sprinkler system after he supplies the standpipe siamese. Do you Agree or Disagree with Lt. Corrpez’s actions? (10.3.3, 10.3.4)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 55

2. A
3. 3.4 If a sprinklered building is not equipped with a standpipe system, the first line stretched should be a handline (either 1 3/4-inch or 2 1/2-inch, depending upon fire conditions) and the second line used to augment the sprinkler system.

Question 56

3. E99 has arrived at a fire on the 10th floor of a 20 story high rise fire proof multiple dwelling. The fire is in apartment 10B on the 10th floor. The building is fully sprinklered and has a standpipe system. Members of Engine 99 have stretched a 2 1/2” line from the 9th floor outlet. The public hallway is fully charged with smoke because the occupant left the door to the fire apartment open. The 2 ½” line is charged and the members are ready to enter the hallway and move toward the fire apartment. The Officer of E99 would be most correct to give which order listed below? (10.3.2, 10.3.4)
   A. Tell the ECC to supply the standpipe system first and then supply the sprinkler system. Supply 145 psi to the standpipe system and 150 psi to the sprinkler system.
   B. Tell the ECC to supply the sprinkler system first and then supply the standpipe system. Tell the ECC to supply the standpipe system with 105 psi and the sprinkler system with 150 psi.
   C. Tell the ECC to supply the standpipe system first and then supply the sprinkler system. Supply 150 psi to the standpipe system and 150 psi to the sprinkler system
   D. Tell the ECC to supply the standpipe system first and that he does not have to supply the sprinkler system. Supply the standpipe system with 150 psi.

Answer 56

3. A
4. 3.4 If a sprinklered building is not equipped with a standpipe system, the first line stretched should be a handline (either 1 3/4-inch or 2 1/2-inch, depending upon fire conditions) and the second line used to augment the sprinkler system.

10.3.10 Pump discharge pressure for supplying a sprinkler system should start at 150 psi. This pressure will have to be adjusted accordingly based on reports of sprinkler
system performance received from ladder company personnel, if more than two lengths of 3 1/2-inch hose are needed to reach the siamese connection and for fires
on upper floors.

Question 57

4. Listed below are four different types of sprinkler system control valves. Which two are the most commonly encountered? More than one correct. (10.4.4)
A. Post Indicator Valve
B. Outside Stem and Yoke
C. Wall Indicator Valve
D. Wall Post Indicator Valve
E. Butterfly Type Indicating Valve

Answer 57

4. A, B

10.4.4 Sprinkler system control valves may be one of four basic types:
· Outside Stem & Yoke (OS&Y)
· Post Indicator Valve (PIV)
· Wall Indicator Valve (WIV) or Wall Post Indicator Valve (WPIV)
· Butterfly Type Indicating Valve
The Outside Stem & Yoke (sometimes called an Outside Screw & Yoke) and Post Indicator Valve are the most commonly encountered. See Fig. 10-1A to 10-1D
for illustrations of each type of valve. The OS&Y’s and PIV’s may also be found in standpipe systems for use as section or zone control valves.

Question 58

5. During the “Make Engines Great Again” drill at the rock members were discussing Engine operations and made the following four points. Which point should be corrected? (10.4)
   A. Due to the potential danger of high concentrations of carbon monoxide gas being present where sprinkler heads are operating, masks shall be used and face pieces properly affixed.
   B. Both engine co. and ladder co. personnel should carry wooden sprinkler wedges or sprinkler tongs to stop the flow of water from a sprinkler head in order to facilitate operations and reduce water damage.
   C. The member assigned to the sprinkler system control valve (oftentimes an Engine Co. chauffeur) must be equipped with a handie-talkie and prepared to reopen any shut valve immediately on orders of the IC.
   D. The sprinkler system control valve should only be shut down on orders from the Incident Commander once it is determined that the fire has been controlled and hose lines are in position.

Answer 58

5. C
6. 4.5 The member assigned to the sprinkler system control valve (oftentimes a ladder company chauffeur) must be equipped with a handie-talkie and prepared to reopen any shut valve immediately on orders of the Incident Commander.

Question 59

6. Large caliber stream use requires strict adherence to various safe operating procedures to avoid serious injury or unnecessary property damage. High pressure LCS can dislodge glass, masonry, slate shingles, and turn them into dangerous projectiles. Which point below regarding safety and LCS is incorrect? (11.2, 11.3)
   A. If LCS use is ordered, all operating forces within the building must be notified and time permitted for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions.
   B. The use of a LCS can only be ordered by the Incident Commander. This includes the first arriving engine using its deck pipe for a quick fire knock down or exposure protection.
   C. To reduce the destructive effects of a water hammer on pumps, appliances, and members, all valves and gates used in supplying LCS must be opened and closed slowly.
   D. The LCS should be slowly swept through the building without stopping at any window or other opening to serve as a warning to any members left in the area of operation.

Answer 59

6. D
   11.2.3 As an additional safety measure, the LCS should be QUICKLY swept through the building without stopping at any window or other opening to serve as a warning to
   any members left in the area of operation.

Question 60

7. A large caliber stream, also called a master stream is any stream with a flow of \_\_\_\_\_\_ gallons per minute or more? (11.1)
A. 250
B. 300
C. 800
D. 1000

Answer 60

7. B

11.1 LARGE CALIBER STREAM DEFINED:
A large caliber stream (also called a “master stream”) is any fire stream with a flow of 300 gpm or more.

Question 61

8. The loss of water on the fire ground is a very serious situation, and something all members should strive to prevent. Members of E99 were discussing kinks in a hose line and how to correct them. Which point made was not correct? (Section 2)
   A. When a severe kink occurs and is recognized by any member, an “Urgent” message shall be transmitted via the handie-talkie.
   B. Effectively controlling the number of lengths in the hose stretch will minimize kinks. The key is to have extra hose, but not an excessive amount.
   C. The engine officer must initiate action to correct the problem of kinks in the hose line. This shall include dispatching the control firefighter to find and correct the problem and/or requesting assistance from the IC.
   D. Only Engine Company members operating at an incident are responsible for eliminating kinks from the hose stretch. Kinks that cause a loss of water will compromise safety.

Answer 61

8. D
9. 4 All members operating at an incident, both engine and ladder, are responsible for eliminating kinks from the hose stretch. Kinks that cause a loss of water will compromise safety.

Question 62

9. Kinks, burst lengths, and stretching short can severely impact an operation. Each one will affect the water supply, and if not handled quickly and efficiently, can jeopardize the lives of both civilians and firefighters. Which one is considered the more common problem? (2.1)
A. Kinks.
B. Burst lengths.
C. Stretching short.
D. All are considered common problems.

Answer 62

9. A

2. 1 Water loss due to kinks is the more common problem.

Question 63

10. E99 has the B team working the 6x9 tour and has just arrived at a fire on the 4th floor of a 5 story brownstone. As the members are advancing into the fire apartment, the nozzle firefighter tells his officer that they don’t have enough hoseline to advance into the rear bedroom to extinguish the fire. The Officer of E99 calls the 2nd due Engine Officer and tells him that they need a length of 1 ¾” hose to add to the front of the hose line. The fire is lapping out into the hallway and the nozzle firefighter is holding the fire at bay while awaiting the additional hoseline. E99 stretched 6 lengths of 1 ¾” and a length of 2 ½” hose line for a total of 7 lengths. The 2nd due Engine brings the extra hoseline and the members attach the line to the front of the hoseline. The Officer of E99 keeps the bedroom door closed while they are adding the extra length of hose. Members successfully extinguish the fire. Do you Agree or Disagree with the actions of the members of E99 at this fire? (Section 4)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 63

10. D

Note: If the 6 lead lengths of 1¾” hose have already been stretched, only a length(s) of 2½” hose can be added.

Question 64

11. Which point made at afternoon drill period was incorrect?
    A. An indication of a burst length is when the engine officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC sees an adequate pressure reading and an increased flow showing on the outlet flowmeter with the pumps RPMs increasing automatically.
    B. Once a water loss due to a burst length is confirmed by any member, an “Urgent” message shall be transmitted. It is essential that the Incident Commander, members operating on the fire floor and floors above be notified.
    C. Once the location of a burst length is verified and after the water has been shut down, there are two ways to correct a burst length. If enough hose is available, remove the burst length and reattach the existing couplings or replace the burst length with a new length of hose, when there is not enough existing hose available in the stretch.
    D. One engine company in each battalion is required to store an extra length of 1¾” hose, with a controlling nozzle attached, on the apparatus in an easily accessible location. This hose or the 2½” hose folds on the apparatus for standpipe operations can be used to replace a burst length or added to a short stretch as necessary.

Answer 64

11. D

3.4 All engine companies are required to store an extra length of 1¾” hose, with a controlling nozzle attached, on the apparatus in an easily accessible location. This hose or the 2½” hose folds on the apparatus for standpipe operations can be used to replace a burst length
or added to a short stretch as necessary. The engine officer shall dispatch a member to obtain the appropriate replacement length.