CO CLASS #3 - Week of 93018 FFP – Brownstones, T.B. – Foam – Pg 16 -30, ERP – Add #1 BIO, Safety Bull. #56Instructor BC Ken Ruggiero

Question 1

1. You are a new Lieutenant working in L100 for the 9x6 tour. After lunch you walk into the kitchen and find the members holding a drill on brownstone buildings. One of the junior members makes the following statement: “When searching the upper floors, do not overlook the possibility of small bedrooms having their only entrance from the hall. These rooms are only found in the front of the building. The single means of egress to the interior hall may cause occupants to be trapped when fire has possession of the open interior stairs. Because of this, these rooms have been referred to as the “deadman’s” room”. Do you agree or disagree with the member’s statement? 2.1.2 Note
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 1

1. D

Note: When searching the upper floors, do not overlook the possibility of small bedrooms having their only entrance from the hall. These rooms can be
found in the front or the rear.

Question 2

2. Which point listed below is incorrect regarding the description of brownstone buildings? 2.1
   A. The first floor (basement) was composed of a kitchen in the rear with a dining room in the front, and an interior stairway to the second floor (parlor) and cellar. There is also a large closet. This floor has two means of egress to the outside.
   B. The second floor (parlor) contained the front and rear parlor rooms, a hall, bedroom in the rear and the main entrance to the building. This floor has two means of egress to the outside.
   C. The third and fourth floors contained two bedrooms each, with hall rooms in the front and the rear, off the stairway. These may have been bedrooms or bathrooms.
   D. In brownstones, the basement is the first floor. The interior is of combustible construction, while the exterior shell is made of non-combustible material. Their width is 20 to 25 feet, and their depth varies to about 60 feet.

Answer 2

2. B

A. The first floor (basement) was composed of a kitchen in the rear with a dining room in the front, and an interior stairway to the second floor
(parlor) and cellar. There is also a large closet. This is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.
B. The second floor (parlor) contained the front and rear parlor rooms, a hall, bedroom in the rear and the main entrance to the building.

Question 3

3. Understanding how brownstone buildings are laid out and the terminology used in describing them is critically important to the safety of members operating at fires in these buildings. Which point below is not entirely correct? 2.1.3
   A. The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop.
   B. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop.
   C. Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor).
   D. An enclosed interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors. An iron ladder gives access from the top floor to the roof through a bulkhead.

Answer 3

3. D
4. 1.3 The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop. Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor). An open interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors. An iron ladder gives access from the top floor to the roof through a scuttle.

Question 4

4. Lt. Smith and his members are operating at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story brownstone. The fire was in the front parlor room and has been knocked down by the Engine Co. Lt. Smith then directs the proby to start pulling the ceiling in the front parlor room to check for extension. Which point below reflects correct information about overhauling on the parlor floor in a brownstone? 2.2.4, 2.2.5
   A. The weight of the ornamental plaster on the ceiling is not a concern and is usually found in the center of the room only. 6’ hooks will be sufficient in all circumstances.
   B. The weight of the ornamental plaster on the ceiling is not a concern and is usually found in the center and perimeter of the room only. 6’ hooks will be sufficient in all circumstances.
   C. The weight of the ornamental plaster on the ceiling can cause serious injury to members operating in this area and is often found in the center and around the perimeter of the room. 10’ hooks may be necessary to pull these ceilings.
   D. The weight of the ornamental plaster on the ceiling can cause serious injury to members operating in this area and is only found on the perimeter of the room. 10’ hooks will be necessary to pull these ceilings.

Answer 4

4. C
5. 2.4 The need for 10-foot hooks, to pull ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor), may exist in some Brownstone buildings.
6. 2.5 Ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) have much ornamental plasterwork. It is often in the center and around the perimeter of the room. Use caution when pulling ceilings. The weight of this plaster can cause serious injury to members operating in the area.

Question 5

5. During BISP members are inspecting a brownstone building that has been converted into a multiple dwelling. The building is a 4 story MD that has three apartments. As members enter the building they notice sprinklers in the hallways. Which statement made by the members is not correct? 2.2.7
   A. Since there are sprinklers in the hallway there will not be a rear fire escape. Most brownstones have fire escapes.
   B. Since there are sprinklers in the hallway there may not be a rear fire escape. Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.
   C. When sprinkler lines are in the halls and extend into individual rooms this indicates the building was converted to a rooming house.
   D. When a brownstone was converted into a multiple dwelling, fire escapes were added or sprinklers were installed in the interior halls.

Answer 5

5. A
6. 2.7 In many buildings, when they were converted to Multiple Dwellings, fire escapes were added or sprinklers were installed in the interior halls in lieu of secondary means of egress. Sprinkler lines were further extended into individual rooms when buildings were converted to Rooming Houses. The presence of these sprinklers may indicate the absence of a fire escape. Most brownstones, however, do not have fire escapes.

Question 6

6. The roof position demands an observant, determined, and experienced firefighter due to the hazards associated with this position. Which point regarding roof construction in brownstone buildings is not correct? 2.2.15
   A. The majority of brownstones roofs are flat construction with no parapet in rear. Some have a center peak which slopes toward the front and the rear.
   B. The cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 4” to 6’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the front of the building.
   C. Access to the roof is via the iron ladder leading up to the scuttle opening. The ladder is usually in a closet.
   D. Another type has more floors in the rear than in front. There may be five stories in the rear with full windows. The roof slopes to the front where there are small front windows making access to and removal of trapped persons from these areas difficult.

Answer 6

6. B
7. 2.18 In flat roof buildings, the cockloft space between the top floor ceiling and the roof is approximately 2’ to 3’ in height and the roof is pitched toward the rear of the building.

Question 7

7. Members were discussing brownstones while conducting building inspection and made several points regarding these type of buildings. Which point made below was not correct? (2.2.9, 2.2.10, 2.2.11, 2.2.12)
   A. Doors at top of cellar, basement, and parlor floor stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors and initial operations will remain the same.
   B. Immediate ventilation, entry, isolation, and search (VEIS) of the top floor is mandatory, and is considered to be one of the most important operations at these fires. This important operational tactic must be controlled, communicated, and coordinated between the inside and outside teams.
   C. The cellar fire is peculiar in that there are limited means of venting the cellar. The most that can be expected are a couple of very small windows at ground level in the rear, an opening under a grating near the basement vestibule, and possibly a coal chute.
   D. Rear extensions also have been added on the first floor. In some cases these extensions may be two or three stories in height, and 10 to 20 feet in depth. They will have their own cockloft.

Answer 7

7. A
8. 2.10 Doors at top of cellar and first floor (basement) stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors and initial operations will remain the same.

Question 8

8. Brownstone buildings are similar to tenements in their construction in that the interior is basically non fire proof while the exterior shell is made of non-combustible material. Fires in brownstones are generally confined to the original fire building however there can be some spread to adjoining buildings. All of the following are possible points where fire can extend to an adjoining building except which one? 2.3.2, 2.3.3
   A. Beams in the ceiling of the cellar where they butt up against beams of an adjoining building.
   B. Pockets in the walls on the second floor (parlor floor) which are built to facilitate the operation of the sliding (pocket) doors.
   C. Deterioration and faulty construction of the division walls in the cockloft.
   D. Fire can extend to an adjoining building via a cornice or Yankee gutter.

Answer 8

8. B
9. 3.2 The fire is generally confined to the original fire building, although there may be some spread in cellars due to beams of adjoining buildings butting up against one another, and in the cockloft due to the deterioration and faulty construction in division walls. Fire can also extend to adjoining buildings via the cornice and/ or the “Yankee gutter” (See Figure 8).
10. 3.3 In addition to typical problem areas associated with NFP buildings, particular points of examination inside the Brownstone should include dumbwaiter shafts, hot air ducts and registers running throughout the building and pockets in the walls on the second floor (parlor floor) constructed to facilitate the operation of sliding doors (pocket doors).

Question 9

9. Some brownstone buildings may have a second set of stairs in addition to the main stairway. Which point listed below is correct regarding the second stairway in a brownstone building? 2.3.4, Private Dwellings Chapter 1 3.3
   A. It will be found along a side wall toward the rear of the building. This stair will be an enclosed stair and will go from the cellar to the parlor floor.
   B. It will be found in the rear of the building. This stair will be an enclosed stairway and will go from the basement to the first floor.
   C. It will be found in the rear of the building. This stair will be an open stairway and will go from the basement to the parlor floor.
   D. It will be found along a side wall or in the rear of the building. This stair will be an open stair way and go from the 1st to 3rd floor or will connect the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd floors.

Answer 9

9. B
10. Some brownstone buildings may have a second set of stairs in addition to the main stairway. Which point listed below is correct regarding the second stairway in a brownstone building? 2.3.4, Private Dwellings Chapter 1 3.3
    A. It will be found along a side wall toward the rear of the building. This stair will be an enclosed stair and will go from the cellar to the parlor floor.
    B. It will be found in the rear of the building. This stair will be an enclosed stairway and will go from the basement to the first floor.
    C. It will be found in the rear of the building. This stair will be an open stairway and will go from the basement to the parlor floor.
    D. It will be found along a side wall or in the rear of the building. This stair will be an open stair way and go from the 1st to 3rd floor or will connect the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd floors.

Question 10

10. Please read the following two points of information and choose the correct answer below. (2.3.5, 2.3.6)
11. The large enclosed stairway with wood paneling provides a continuous combustible flue from the first floor (basement) to the roof. This will allow fire to spread rapidly and cut off escape of the occupants.
12. Transom windows, which may be found over the interior doors, can fail under fire conditions and allow heat and smoke into the hall areas. This also will allow fire to spread more easily.
    A. Both are correct
    B. Neither are correct
    C. Choice 1 is incorrect
    D. Choice 2 is incorrect

Answer 10

10. C
11. 3.5 The large open stairway with wood paneling provides a continuous combustible flue from the second floor (parlor floor) to the roof. This will allow fire to spread rapidly and cut off escape of the occupants.

Question 11

11. Members of E-75 and L-33 are operating at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story brownstone building. The fire, which has been knocked down, was on the 3rd floor and was contained to the rear bedroom. Which member below is under the functional supervision of his respective officer? 2.6 #11 note
    A. The LCC of L-33 is operating on the pedestal of the tower ladder and can see his officer in the front windows of the building.
    B. The irons firefighter, without using his HT, is overhauling in the rear bedroom and is talking to his officer who is in the other room.
    C. The Door firefighter who is on the landing between the 1st and 2nd floors feeding hose to the advancing hose team.
    D. The Control firefighter from E-75 is in the street about 100’ past the fire building and is removing a kink in E-75’s hose line.
    E. The Roof firefighter who is on the roof of the building and communicating with his officer via handie talkie.

Answer 11

11. E

Note: Members are under the “Immediate Supervision” of an officer when:
A. They are within visual or voice contact of the Officer.
B. They are working with a search line or hoseline which is under the supervision of an officer.

Question 12

12. E-99, E-98, E-97, L-100, and L101 have just arrived at a fire on the 4th floor of a five story brownstone building. The building has one apartment per floor and has a rear fire escape. Members of L-100, the 1st due truck, proceed to the 4th floor of the building and force open the fire apartment door. The officer left the can man at the door to the fire apartment to maintain control of the fire apartment door. The Officer and the irons firefighter then immediately started a thorough primary search at the front door of the fire apartment while proceeding to the location of the fire which is in the front living room. The officer of L-100 then informed the Officer of E-99 of the location of the fire and moved a small piece of furniture out of the way so the Engine had unobstructed access to the fire area. While the 2nd due truck was making their way to the 5th floor, the Officer from L-100 told the Officer of L-101 that the fire was in the front living room on the 4th floor of the building. The fire was quickly extinguished by the members of E-99 at which point the Officer of L-100 ordered the front windows vented. Do you agree or disagree with the actions of the Officer of L-100 at this fire? 2.6
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 12

12. D

Question 13

13. During a recent day tour the senior man of L-100, who is a regular chauffer, decided to let a newer LCC drive for the day tour to get some experience with this new position. During the tour L-100 caught a job on the 3rd floor of a 4 story brownstone building. After the fire the members were talking about their actions and things they could have done better. The LCC took the following actions at this fire and was incorrect in which one? 2.6 D
    A. He positioned the apparatus to completely cover the fire building, raised the aerial to the roof, and then immediately moved the ladder to VEIS the top floor.
    B. When venting, entering, isolating, and searching the top floor he teamed up with the 2nd due LCC.
    C. If this fire was on the top floor the LCC said that he would then raise and position the aerial to the roof of the exposure for use by the roof and OV firefighters who will be going to the roof.
    D. The LCC chose the middle window on the top floor to VEIS instead of the window over the main entrance.

Answer 13

13. A

DUTIES:

1. Position and prepare apparatus for complete coverage. When unable to complete this assignment, the IC must be notified.
2. Raise aerial to roof.
3. Wait for completion of roof size-up.

Question 14

14. L-99 just arrived at a fire on the 4th floor of a 5 story brownstone and a person is hanging out of the middle window on the 4th floor threatening to jump. The LCC immediately set up the apparatus, raised the aerial to the 4th floor, and made the rescue of the victim. The roof firefighter had to find an alternate method to the roof and top floor VEIS was delayed since the LCC had to use the aerial ladder to address this known life hazard. Do you agree with the actions of the LCC at this fire? 2.6 D 4
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 14

14. A
15. The only variation from this procedure shall be when there is a known life
    hazard at another location requiring action, e.g.
    A. Aerial ladder/Portable ladder rescue on the front of the building
    B. LSR rescue
    Note: This involves the principle of taking care of known life
    hazard before moving toward an area of possible life
    hazard.

Question 15

15. The tool assignment for the 1st due OV at a fire in a brownstone building is a 6’ hook, halligan tool, flashlight, and a HT. The brownstone bulletin mentions two additional tools that can help the OV firefighter perform his/her job more efficiently. The two tools mentioned in the bulletin are correctly listed in which choice below? 2.6 E
    A. 12’ straight ladder and a 12’ halligan hook.
    B. 10’ scissor ladder and a 10’ hook.
    C. “A” frame ladder and a 12’ hook.
    D. 24’ extension ladder and a 10’ halligan hook.

Answer 15

15. B

A. When necessary to vent the second floor, the option of utilizing a 10-foot hook will assure venting of both upper and lower panes of 2nd floor level while placing the member out of range of falling glass.

B. The 10-foot scissor ladder is also a useful tool for the OV. It can be used to accomplish the following:
 In closed position it can be used for venting.
 Access to 2nd floor for VEIS. Prior to VEIS, he/she shall be
teamed up with another available member.
 Access to roof of 1 story setback.
 Access to the 3rd floor from the roof of setback for
ventilation. Prior to entry and search, he/she shall be
teamed up with another available member.
 Provide means of climbing fences.

Question 16

16. Which point below regarding the 1st due OV position at a fire in a brownstone building is not entirely correct? 2.6 E
    A. When the OV determines that a laddering operation is practical, he/she may initiate such an attempt. Generally, there is less effort and staffing involved than a LSR rescue.
    B. When the OV determines that it is impractical to get a portable ladder to the rear due to room layout, hallways, remodeling, fences between yards, etc., the OV must remain in the rear assuring the victim that help is on the way.
    C. When no rear rescue is needed and the OV is able to enter and search, they shall be teamed up with another available member. When unable to team up with another member or if unable to enter for search, the OV shall return to the front of the building to team up with the chauffeur for top floor VEIS.
    D. Due to conversions to multiple dwellings, some of these buildings may have fire escapes. If such is the case, the OV will operate as outlined in Ladders 3. They shall team up with the roof firefighter (or another available member) to VEIS the fire floor and, if not needed for search on that floor, proceed to VEIS the floors above.

Answer 16

16. B
    E. When the OV determines that it is impractical to get a portable ladder to the rear due to room layout, hallways, remodeling, fences between yards, etc., the OV will have to make a decision whether to stay in the rear reassuring the victim that help is on the way or proceed to the roof and assist with a LSR rescue.
    This decision should be based on:
     The emotional state of the victim.
     The fire/smoke condition in the immediate vicinity of the victim.
     The location and severity of the fire, e.g. 2nd floor (parlor floor) of fire building or adjoining building.

Question 17

17. At a recent fire on the top floor of a 4 story brownstone with a rear fire escape, the OV
    from L-99 took the following actions. In which action was he not entirely correct? (2.6 E 6)
    A. Since the fire was on the top floor he proceeded to the roof with the saw and a halligan
    tool.
    B. Prior to going to the roof, he checked the rear of the building for trapped occupants.
    C. After dropping the saw off he descended the rear fire escape to perform top floor VEIS
    when coordinated with the Ladder Co. Officer inside the fire area to be vented.
    D. If unable to descend the fire escape, he would have attempted to vent the fire apartment
    from the roof level when coordinated with the Ladder Co. Officer inside the fire area to be
    vented.

Answer 17

17. B
18. TOP FLOOR FIRE

For a fire on the top floor, the OV will proceed to the roof with the saw and halligan tool. When possible, descend the fire escape and perform ventilation of the top floor when coordinated with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented. Prior to VEIS, he/she shall team up with the 2nd OV (or another available member).

When unable to descend the fire escape, attempt to vent the fire apartment from roof level, when coordinated with the

Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented, and then assist with roof ventilation.

Question 18

18. The roof position can be dangerous and a difficult position to reach. This is why only members who are experienced, observant, and capable of decisive action should be assigned the roof. A member who is assigned the roof position would know that the correct order of preference to reach the roof at a fire in a brownstone can be found in which choice below?
    (2.6 F)
    A. Aerial ladder, 2nd arriving aerial ladder, adjoining building.
    B. Adjoining building, aerial ladder, 35’ portable ladder.
    C. Aerial ladder, adjoining building, rear fire escape.
    D. Adjoining building, aerial ladder, rear fire escape.

Answer 18

18. A

ACCESS TO THE ROOF: (Order of Preference)

1. AERIAL LADDER

A. Access through adjoining building is often difficult and undependable.

B. Eliminates possibly time consuming forcible entry and needless structural damage to other than the fire building.

C. Scuttle ladders, the usual means of access to the roof, are often loose, broken, or missing.

D. Scuttle covers are often locked, chained, nailed and/or completely tarred over.

E. Area in vicinity of scuttle ladder is frequently used for storage of excess household furniture, bicycles, boxes of clothing, etc.

F. Size of scuttle opening is narrow, making it difficult to get through, especially with a mask, tools and LSR.

G. As will be noted in a subsequent section, the aerial normally will be raised at these operations to facilitate VEIS of top floor.

H. With the roof firefighter ascending via aerial, there is visual assurance that member is in position.

I. The aerial will be in position for rapid ascent by the chauffeur and additional personnel, in the event immediate LSR rescue in the rear is required.

NOTE:
When using aerial for access to roof, have the roof firefighter assist the chauffeur in setting up the apparatus for the operation.
2. 2ND ARRIVING AERIAL LADDER (when available)

3. ACCESS VIA ADJOINING BUILDINGS

A. Aerial ladder rescue must be performed.

B. Apparatus will be blocked out of the street or otherwise delayed.

C. Street conditions, e.g. overhead wires, trees, etc., will negate the use of the aerial.

D. The roof firefighter should use the building offering easiest access to its interior as indicated by persons on the stoop, lights in either basement or parlor windows, etc. obviating the need for forcible entry or the possibility of encountering prolonged delay.

Question 19

19. Members of L-100 were drilling with their proby about the roof position at fires in
    brownstone buildings. Listed below are some points that were made during the drill. Which
    point is not correct? 2.6 F
    A. Access through adjoining buildings is often difficult and undependable. Scuttle ladders, the usual means of access to the roof, are often loose, broken, or missing.
    B. Area in vicinity of scuttle ladder is frequently used for storage of excess household furniture, bicycles, boxes of clothing, etc. Size of scuttle opening is narrow, making it difficult to get through, especially with a mask, tools and LSR.
    C. When using an adjoining the roof firefighter should use the building offering easiest access to its interior as indicated by persons on the stoop, lights in either parlor, 3rd, and 4th floor windows.
    D. When using an aerial ladder for access to roof, have the roof firefighter assist the chauffeur in setting up the apparatus for the operation.

Answer 19

19. C

D. The roof firefighter should use the building offering easiest access to its interior as indicated by persons on the stoop, lights in either basement or parlor windows, etc. obviating the need for forcible entry or the possibility of encountering prolonged delay.

Question 20

20. L-100 has just arrived at a fire on the parlor floor of a 3 story brownstone. The fire is in the front of the building and there is a heavy smoke condition pushing out of the 2nd and 3rd floor windows. The LCC raised the aerial ladder to the roof and when the roof FF notified the LCC that there was no need for a rear rescue; the LCC then raised the aerial to the top floor windows and placed the aerial ladder to the middle of the three top floor windows. The additional truck has just arrived on the scene and while standing fast awaiting orders from the IC, members grabbed a portable ladder off the 1st due truck in front of the building and placed the ladder to the top floor window located above the front stoop. Regarding the actions of the LCC and the extra truck you should know that: 2.6 D, Portable Ladders 10.2
    A. Neither action is correct.
    B. Only the LCC’s action was correct.
    C. Only the action of the additional truck was correct.
    D. Both actions were correct.

Answer 20

20. B

B. When roof firefighter indicates no need for rescue, chauffeur will
place ladder to top floor for VEIS as necessary. He/she shall team
up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

 Laddering the Front of the Building:
o Placing a portable ladder at the window of the small room over the front entrance
door will be difficult because of the long, high stoop, which may interfere with
firefighting operations. Consider placing the ladder at the adjoining window to
gain entrance to this small room. (Figure 12)

Question 21

21. Initial vertical ventilation tactics must be performed as directed by the ladder company officer. Initial vertical ventilation tactics include the venting of bulkheads, skylights, and scuttles over stairways and hallways. From the choices below choose the proper sequence when venting a skylight on the roof of a brownstone. 2.6 F 4 Note
    A. Break out a small pane of glass first, then warn members via handie talkie, and finally break out the remaining larger sections of glass.
    B. Break out large sections of glass, then warn members via handie talkie, and finally break out and remaining small sections of glass.
    C. Warn members via handie talkie, then break out a small pane of glass, and finally break out the remaining larger sections of glass.
    D. Warn members via handie talkie while simultaneously breaking out all glass in the skylight.

Answer 21

21. C

Question 22

22. Which point listed below is incorrect regarding the roof position at a fire in a brownstone building? 2.6 F 4
    A. Persons attempting to escape via the roof may have been trapped and/or overcome under the scuttle enclosure. There may be a door on the closet leading to the scuttle. Fire or excessive heat may be immediately behind the door. Do not descend the scuttle ladder to open the door.
    B. When the building has a rear fire escape, after completing roof ventilation duties, the roof firefighter will operate as per Ladders 3 and team up with the OV (or another available member) to VEIS the fire floor and if not needed for search on that floor, proceed to VEIS the floors above.
    C. Members will notify their Officer via HT that they are leaving their primary area of responsibility and initiating a search. The scuttle ladder shall never be used to descend to the lower floors unless the fire is knocked down and probably will hold.
    D. For top floor fires, pending the arrival of the saw to the roof, the roof firefighter shall open up the returns and ventilate the top floor windows from the roof level as directed by the Ladder Co. Officer operating on the top floor. The roof firefighter is also responsible for utilization of the saw to vent the cockloft and top floor as needed after completing their initial duties.

Answer 22

22. C

Question 23

23. Lt. Smith is working in L-100 on a 6x9 tour and has just arrived as the 2nd due truck for a fire on the parlor floor of a four story brownstone building. The officer from the 1st due truck, Lt. Taylor, notifies Lt. Smith that the fire is in the front parlor room and is blowing out into the hallway. He also says that the interior stairs are also involved in fire. E-99, the 1st due Engine, is still in the process of stretching the 1st hose line. Realizing that access to the floor above is blocked by the fire, Lt. Smith orders his members to place a portable ladder to the middle window on the 3rd floor in order to gain access to the floor above. Do you agree or disagree with Lt. Smith’s order? 2.7 Inside Team Duties
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 23

23. A

When the 2nd Ladder Company Officer finds their access to the floor above blocked by fire on the interior stair, they may order a portable ladder raised to the selected floor to attempt access via the exterior or fire escape, when available.

Question 24

24. During a recent day tour L99, which is a tower ladder, arrived 1st due for a fire on the 1st floor of a 4 story brownstone building. Which member of L99’s outside team was incorrect in their actions at this fire? 2.8
    A. The Chauffeur remained at the pedestal for overall safety, control, and coordination.
    B. The OV operated as the basket firefighter for ventilation and the saw and lifesaving rope were taken in the basket since the basket was being used for roof access.
    C. The Roof firefighter proceeded to the roof via the TL basket and after completing his initial roof duties he teamed up with the OV for top floor VEIS.
    D. The OV waited for completion of the roof size up, then repositioned the basket to the top floor for VEIS, and when that was completed he repositioned the basket to the fire floor for VEIS.

Answer 24

24. D

OUTSIDE VENT FIREFIGHTER:
POSITION
Operates as basket firefighter for ventilation.
DUTIES
1. When the basket is used for roof access the saw and life saving rope will be
brought to the roof. The OV will wait for completion of roof size-up before
repositioning the basket to the fire floor for ventilation as coordinated with the
Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented.
2. After venting the fire floor, reposition the basket to the top floor for VEIS.
3. Prior to VEIS of the top floor the OV shall team up with the roof firefighter (or
another available member).

Question 25

25. During evening drill members of L99 were taking about the 2nd due LCC duties in a brownstone building when the 1st to arrive Ladder Co. is a tower ladder. The LCC of L99 said that “if the 1st due truck is a tower ladder, the 2nd due LCC must report to the pedestal of the 1st due tower ladder and see if the 1st due LCC needs assistance. If his/her assistance is not needed then the 2nd due LCC can be directed by his/her officer to examine exposures, assist with roof operations, or be available to team up with another available member”. You would be correct to? 2.9
    A. Agree with the LCC’s statement.
    B. Disagree with the LCC’s statement.

Answer 25

25. B

Note: When the first to arrive ladder company is a TL, the chauffeur will remain on the pedestal. Therefore the chauffeur of the 2nd to arrive ladder company does not
have to report to the pedestal and may be assigned other duties by their company
officer: e.g.
 Examination of exposures.
 Assist with roof operations.
 Be available to team up with another available member, if needed.

Question 26

26. During the “Make Engines Great Again” drill at the rock members of different Engine Co.’s were discussing Engine tactics at fires in brownstone buildings. Which point made at this drill was correct? Section 3
    A. All interior hose lines stretched will be considered 1 ¾” for speed, mobility, and close quarters.
    B. The nozzle firefighter shall make an announcement via the handie-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to commence.
    C. When a building is fully involved with fire showing in exposure(s) the first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a TL, and a hoseline for entering the building.
    D. When a building is fully involved consider stretching a 2½” hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water, and increased exposure protection.

Answer 26

26. B

Note: The Engine Company officer shall announce via the handi-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to commence. Conditions in areas behind, adjoining or above the operating hoseline must be monitored for sudden possible deterioration due to the effects of hoseline advancement on the fire. All members must be alert to fireground communications concerning hoseline placement and the commencement of hoseline operations so that they may seek refuge if necessary.

Question 27

27. Engine 99’s first due response area has a large amount of brownstone buildings making Engine 99 very experienced in fighting fires in these buildings. Engine 99 operated as the 1st due Engine at two separate fires on a recent night tour and took the following actions listed below. Please read their operations and indicate in which operation(s) they operated correctly. (Section 3)
    Fire 1 – Since the fire was located in the cellar of a brownstone, Engine 99 stretched a 1 ¾” hose line through the front door on the 1st floor and then down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.
    Fire 2 – Since the fire was in the basement of a brownstone, Engine 99 stretched a 1 ¾” hose line to the parlor floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
    A. Engine 99 operated correctly at both fires.
    B. Engine 99 operated incorrectly at both fires.
    C. Engine 99 operated correctly at fire 1 and incorrectly at fire 2.
    D. Engine 99 operated correctly at fire 2 and incorrectly at fire 1.

Answer 27

27. C

3.2 First Floor Fires
A. First Line
First hoseline stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the
fire.
B. Second Line
Second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched
through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the
interior stairs.
C. Third Line
If a third hoseline is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the Incident
Commander.
Note: Interior wooden stairs connect the first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor).
If interior stair doors are present at the top and/or bottom of these stairs, they shall be
closed to control the flow path.

Question 28

28. Units are operating at a fire in the cellar and basement of a brownstone building. The fire started in the cellar and spread to the basement. The 1st due Engine stretched the 1st line into the basement, but was unable to advance down the cellar stairs due to the large amount of fire in the basement. The 3rd due Engine stretched the 2nd line into the basement and then down into the cellar after the 1st due Engine secured the first floor. Do you agree or disagree with the actions of the Engine Co.’s at his fire? Section 3
    A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 28

28. A

3.2 First Floor Fires
A. First Line
First hoseline stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the
fire.
B. Second Line
Second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched
through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the
interior stairs.
C. Third Line
If a third hoseline is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the Incident
Commander.
Note: Interior wooden stairs connect the first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor).
If interior stair doors are present at the top and/or bottom of these stairs, they shall be
closed to control the flow path.

Question 29

29. BC Question. During the command class newly promoted Battalion Chiefs were discussing the duties and actions of the 1st due Battalion Chief at a fire in a brownstone building. Which point made by one of the students was not entirely correct? 4.1
    A. The first to arrive battalion chief shall assume the position of the incident commander and establish the incident command post in proximity to the front of the fire building. The battalion chief must size-up the situation and note what actions have been taken prior to their arrival.
    B. The IC shall establish sectors and/or groups early into the operation. Sector/group supervisors shall be assigned as necessary as they arrive by the IC. Units shall be made aware of the different sectors/groups being established and the identification of their sector/group supervisor.
    C. The IC should not enter the building nor become directly engaged in firefighting operations. It is imperative battalion firefighters stay with their assigned chief during the incident in the event a secondary tactical channel is activated.
    D. As units arrive, assign specific tasks for them. Get reports from units on the progress of their specific operations, especially when a LSR rescue is required or is in progress in rear of the building.

Answer 29

29. C

It is imperative battalion firefighters stay with their assigned chief during the incident in the event a command channel is activated.

Question 30

30. BC Question. You are a brand new BC working a day tour in B37 and after 10-10 ing every unit in your Battalion that is out on BISP you receive a phone alarm for a fire in a brownstone. As you are responding the 1st due Engine gives a 10-75 for a fire in the basement of a four story isolated brownstone. When you arrive on scene the 1st due Engine tells you that there is a medium fire on the 1st floor which they are knocking down. A few seconds later the 2nd due truck tells you there is a heavy fire condition now showing on the second floor. The 3rd due Engine is in the process stretching the 2nd line to the Parlor floor. Based on these two reports you would be correct to? 4.4
    A. Transmit a second alarm since there are two floors of fire.
    B. Transmit a second alarm since there is heavy fire in the cellar.
    C. Continue to operate with the 10-75 assignment since the fire in the basement is being knocked down.
    D. Transmit the all hands and call for an extra Engine and Truck.

Answer 30

30. D

4.4 Determine if the fire has extended into exposures, the cellar or the cockloft. Special call an extra engine and ladder for two floors of fire. Transmit a second alarm for a heavy
fire in the cellar and basement.

Question 31

1. Exposure to biological agents can occur through accidental, natural, or intentional release. Microorganisms have been used as agents of terrorism throughout history and pose a viable threat in today’s society. Which point about biological agents in incorrect? ERP Add. 1
   A. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that are capable of causing harm or disease in humans, animals or plants. Bacteria are responsible for human diseases such as anthrax, plague, tularemia and brucellosis.
   B. By weight, biological toxins are thousands of times more lethal than chemical nerve agents. The effectiveness of medical treatment is often diminished or limited once symptoms appear.
   C. Haz Mat Co. 1 and Haz Mat Tech Units are the only units that carry devices that can detect the presence of a biological agent in real time.
   D. With biological agents, the presenting signs and symptoms do not constitute a definitive diagnosis. A biological incident may not occur as an obvious, overt attack or threat.

Answer 31

1. C
2. 1.2 There are no devices currently available to the Department that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously or in real time.

Question 32

2. Manifestation of a biological incident is not immediate; however, manifestation of a chemical attack will be immediate. It may take several hours, days or even weeks before a biological occurrence is suspected and even longer before a suspected outbreak/release can be confirmed. Which biological toxin(s) listed below may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent? (More than one correct) ERP Add. 1 2.1.1
A. Ricin
B. Mycotoxins
C. Fungi
D. Rickettsia

Answer 32

2. A, B

2.1.1 Manifestation of a biological incident is not immediate; however, manifestation of a chemical attack will be immediate. It may take several hours, days or even
weeks before a biological occurrence is suspected and even longer before a
suspected outbreak/release can be confirmed. However, exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic
exposure to a chemical agent.

Question 33

3. The physical characteristics of a suspicious substance may indicate the presence or release of a biological agent. Biological agents can be delivered in liquid or dried form. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the physical characteristics of biological agents? (ERP Add. 1 3.2.8)
   A. Agents in liquid form are opaque, but can vary in color depending on the method of production and the agent itself.
   B. The viscosity of a biological agent in liquid form is typically thicker than water, usually as thick as syrup.
   C. The color of dried biological agents also varies depending on the method used to prepare the agent. For example, weaponized anthrax may appear gray or brown in color.
   D. Liquid biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than dried biological agents.

Answer 33

3. B

 Agents in liquid form are opaque, but can vary in color depending on the method of production and the agent itself. The viscosity of a biological agent in liquid form is typically thicker than water, but not as thick as syrup.

Question 34

4. Please read the following two statements below and indicate which one(s) are correct. (2.1.7)
5. With exposure to chemical agents, the presenting signs and symptoms are fairly consistent between victims and typical of the mode of action of the chemical.
6. With exposure to biological agents, patients may exhibit differing signs and symptoms.
   A. Both correct.
   B. Both incorrect.
   C. Only statement 1 is correct.
   D. Only statement 2 is correct.

Answer 34

4. A

2.1.7 With exposure to chemical agents, the presenting signs and symptoms are fairly
consistent between victims and typical of the mode of action of the chemical.
However, with exposure to biological agents, patients may exhibit differing signs
and symptoms (e.g. with exposure to nerve agents, victims will exhibit neurological problems; with exposure to biological agents, one person may have a
mild respiratory reaction such as a cough, whereas another person may develop
pneumonia or severe respiratory distress).

Question 35

5. Units should maintain “situational awareness” and look at the scene for clues of what is around. Units should be especially cautious when responding to the subways, hotels and high profile apartment complexes, and national landmarks to name a few. Which point listed below is incorrect? 3.2.2, 3.2.3, 3.2.5, 3.2.7
   A. An outward warning sign of a biological release may be the presence of suspicious spray devices, abandoned spray devices, or spray devices “out of place” in the environment.
   B. All members should be cognizant of paraphernalia that may be used in the production of a biological agent such as containers from laboratories, incubators, biohazard containers, and culture plates.
   C. A weaponized biological agent will behave differently from its naturally occurring counterpart, which might be encountered in an accidental release or natural outbreak.
   D. A suspicious incident involving explosives where the damage is substantial may be considered suspect and meant only as a tool for dispersion of a biological agent.

Answer 35

5. D

3.2.7 A suspicious incident involving explosives where the damage is minimal may be considered suspect and meant only as a tool for dispersion of a biological agent.
 Suicide bombers may be considered a tool of bio-terrorism. Suicide bombers
infected with a debilitating disease may detonate explosive devices on their
bodies and inflict physical trauma from shrapnel, thereby exposing victims to
the disease they are harboring through infected bone shards and tissue.

Question 36

You are a newly promoted BC and are SA for a 9x6 tour and working in Battalion 23 on Staten Island. Shortly after lunch you receive a phone alarm for a suspicious powder in Tottenville High School. While enroute the dispatcher advises you that the call from the NYPD and they said that a white powder was released in the school’s cafeteria. Upon your arrival you confer with the NYPD and they tell you that there were no students in the cafeteria at the time of the release and that a white powder, possibly weaponized anthrax was found on a table in the cafeteria. They also tell you they have credible information that the powder is in fact anthrax. You also requested a Haz Mat response (10-80) however they are at least 30 minutes out. The police also tell you they opened a few windows in the cafeteria to “air the place out”.

6. BC question. The officer of the 1st due truck asks you if you want his unit to set up an exclusion zone. You would be correct to tell the officer from the 1st due truck to establish the initial exclusion zone \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in all directions. 5.2.2
A. 200’ in all directions.
B. 600’ in all directions.
C. 300’ in all directions.
D. 1000’ in all directions.

Answer 36

6. C

5.2.2. Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the
source or point(s) of release, per U.S. Department of Justice “Emergency
Response to Domestic Biological Incidents.” Re-evaluate the Exclusion Zone
periodically

Question 37

Please answer questions 6 and 7 based on the following scenario.
You are a newly promoted BC and are SA for a 9x6 tour and working in Battalion 23 on Staten Island. Shortly after lunch you receive a phone alarm for a suspicious powder in Tottenville High School. While enroute the dispatcher advises you that the call from the NYPD and they said that a white powder was released in the school’s cafeteria. Upon your arrival you confer with the NYPD and they tell you that there were no students in the cafeteria at the time of the release and that a white powder, possibly weaponized anthrax was found on a table in the cafeteria. They also tell you they have credible information that the powder is in fact anthrax. You also requested a Haz Mat response (10-80) however they are at least 30 minutes out. The police also tell you they opened a few windows in the cafeteria to “air the place out”.

7. BC question. At an incident such as this, you as the IC would be most correct to give which order below? 5.2.3
   A. Since the release is indoors have units open as many windows and doors as possible and avoid entry into the area for a minimum time of 60 minutes to 2 hours.
   B. Since the release is indoors have units open as many windows and doors as possible and avoid entry into the area for a minimum time of 30 minutes to 1 hour.
   C. Since the release is indoors have units close as many windows and doors as possible and avoid entry into the area for a minimum time of 30 minutes to 1 hour.
   D. Since the release is indoors have units seal any openings with plastic and avoid entry into the area for a minimum time of 60 minutes to 2 hours.

Answer 37

7. C

5.2.3 If release is indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the
site for a minimum time of 30 minutes to 1 hour to allow the biological to settle to
reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard.
Note: Weaponized biological agents are often engineered to remain airborne
indefinitely.

Question 38

8. Members of a study group were discussing this bulletin and made the following four points. Which point listed below is correct? 5.2.4, 5.6.3 A, C, 6
   A. Protection from a secondary device is a top priority after establishing a command post and staging areas. The Incident Commander shall request that NYPD search selected locations.
   B. A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact than one released during the middle of the day.
   C. Lower humidity will facilitate the dispersal of a liquid agent, whereas higher humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent.
   D. Confirmation of a biological release will be immediate. Appropriate testing by the NYC Dept. of Health and Mental Hygiene is required to confirm if a biological agent is present.

Answer 38

8. B

5.2.4 Be aware of secondary devices and/or multiple release points. Protection from a secondary device is a top priority before establishing a command post and staging areas. The Incident Commander shall request that NYPD search selected locations. A common tactic in the placement and timing of a secondary device is to draw a large crowd and then detonate the device to inflict additional harm. The Incident Commander should limit personnel and
apparatus from entering forward positions until adjacent areas are adequately
searched and cleared.

A. A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a
greater impact. The temperature of the ground and the air hovering just
above the ground is cooler than the upper layers of air, creating a temperature inversion, which keeps the aerosol cloud closer to the ground, thereby increasing the potential for exposure.

C. Humidity will also factor into the type and timing of the dissemination of
a biological agent. Higher humidity will facilitate the dispersal of a liquid
agent, whereas lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried
biological agent.

Confirmation of a biological release will not be immediate. Appropriate testing by the New York City Department of Health and Mental Hygiene is required to confirm if a biological agent is present. However, if an overt act is witnessed and metering
equipment does not indicate radiological or chemical release and people in the direct vicinity are not manifesting immediate, clinically similar symptoms, release of a biological agent is a strong possibility.
 General Operations indicate a universal approach to hazardous materials or unknown substances.

Question 39

1. Safety bulletin 56 has been issued to set forth guidelines for the reporting of motor vehicle collisions/incidents involving FDNY apparatus. During multi-unit drill on a Sunday morning, officers and members were discussing the new bulletin and made the following four points. Which point is incorrect? SB56 section 3 and 4.
   A. Whenever any department apparatus is involved in a major collision, the officer, driver, and the members on the apparatus at the time of the accident shall be tested for the presence of illegal drugs and/or alcohol.
   B. When an individual alleges that the Department is responsible for a collision or incident the individual should be informed that he/she may file a notice of claim by calling the Comptroller’s Office or visiting their website.
   C. If two or more FDNY apparatus collide, the occurrence is considered to be two or more collisions, and an Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) is required from each unit.
   D. All motor vehicles assigned to the FDNY shall be considered apparatus. In addition, for collision reporting purposes, member’s private vehicles, when authorized for use on Department business, are also considered apparatus.

Answer 39

1. A
2. 2 Whenever the driver or operator of any Department apparatus is involved in a major collision as defined in Section 4.3, he/she shall be tested for the presence of illegal drugs and/or alcohol.

Question 40

2. Listed below are different occurrences that units were involved in during the course of a week. Which one is considered a collision? 4.2, 4.4
   A. E99 was operating at a car accident on the highway when their apparatus caught on fire after it overheated.
   B. E98 was properly parked on BISP when a tree limb fell onto the cab of the apparatus and caused minor damage.
   C. E97 was properly parked on BISP when a civilian riding his bike lost control and crashed into the back of E97.
   D. L100 was operating at a fire and when the LCC lowered the passenger side outrigger it struck a parked civilian vehicle.

Answer 40

2. C

4.2 COLLISION
An apparatus collision is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian,
or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object.

4.4 INCIDENT
A vehicle related occurrence that is not a collision such as:
 Apparatus fire.
 Damage to an apparatus caused by an unusual occurrence (i.e. a tree limb falls on an
apparatus).
 Damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the vehicle.
 Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at
alarms, (i.e. a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked car) inspection activities, and Multi Unit Drill (MUD).
 A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus. (Incident for the apparatus that was struck).
 An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or
property. If a Fire apparatus is involved, the officer on duty must make a journal
entry of the allegations.
 Damage caused by vandalism.

Question 41

3. BC question. You are a new BC who just landed a UFO spot in B13 in Manhattan. E295, assigned to B52 in Queens, was relocated to E63 (who is assigned to B15) in the Bronx. While in E63’s response area, E295 gets an EMS run on White Plains Road and E240 Street. Upon taking up from the run the new ECC accidentally backs into a parked car and causes minor damage to the parked car. B13 is the nearest available battalion and is dispatched to the accident to investigate this collision. After investigating this accident you would be correct to take which action below? 11.2, 8.1
   A. Prepare a CD19A and wait for the E295 to send you the CD19. Instruct the Officer from E295 to complete an FOC1 report and email it to FDOC.
   B. Prepare a CD19A and forward it to B52 and complete an FOC1 report and email it to FDOC.
   C. Prepare a CD19A and forward it to B15 since E295 was relocated to E63. Complete an FOC1 report and email it to FDOC.
   D. Prepare a CD19A and forward it to B52 and instruct the Officer from E295 to complete an FOC1 report and email it to FDOC.

Answer 41

3. B

8.1 Battalion Chiefs/EMS Officers should be aware that timely notification to Fire
Department Operations Center is required whenever a Fire Department apparatus is
involved in a collision/incident. As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the
scene, the Battalion Chief/EMS Officer responsible for conducting the investigation
shall email a completed FOC-1 report to Fire Department Operations Center at
FDOC@fdny.nyc.gov, followed by a phone call to FDOC at (718) 999-7900 to verify
receipt of email. The FOC-1 report can be accessed via the Fire Admin Forms section
on the FDNY intranet under the Forms drop down.

11.2 Chief Officers investigating apparatus collisions/incidents involving units NOT of their command will NOT review the CD-19 but must include full particulars of the collision in their CD-19A investigation report. CD-19As shall be forwarded promptly to the command initially responsible for reviewing the unit’s Apparatus Collision Report (usually the Battalion and Division/Bureau to which unit is assigned).

Question 42

4. Please read the following three points below and choose which ones are correct. 5.2.1, 9.1, 9.2
5. Upon being involved in an apparatus collision/incident, FDNY Officers and FDNY members must realize that their primary initial obligation is to prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.
6. At a major collision, if at least one lane of traffic is blocked or if motorists are temporarily inconvenienced due to traffic conditions, then the involved vehicles should be moved.
7. If at a major collision it becomes imperative to move apparatus or other vehicles, the location of tires (if double wheeled, then the outside tire only) of all involved vehicles shall be marked with “T” shaped marks indicating the outside edge of each tire and the center-line of the axle of each wheel.
   A. All correct.
   B. All incorrect
   C. 1 and 2 correct.
   D. 1 and 3 correct.
   E. 2 and 3 correct.

Answer 42

4. D

9.1 At Major Collisions - DO NOT MOVE VEHICLES - EXCEPT AS INDICATED
BELOW.
A. The fact that one lane of traffic is blocked, or that motorists are temporarily
inconvenienced due to traffic conditions, does not warrant moving the involved
vehicles.

Question 43

5. When a company officer is preparing a collision packet all of the following items must be included in the packet except which one listed below? 10.2
   A. Two copies of the completed CD19.
   B. Two copies of the MV104(s) when required.
   C. A blank piece of paper with the driver’s name, driver license number, and the state of issuance (NY).
   D. Two copies of the police accident report.

Answer 43

5. C

10.2 The officer in charge or the operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident shall prepare and forward a Collision Packet through the chain of command.
The Collision Packet being forwarded should include:
 Two copies of the completed CD-19
 Two copies of the MV-104(s) when required.
 Two copies of the Police accident report when required
When possible all forms should be batched as a “Collision Packet” and forwarded
through the chain of command for review/endorsements.

Question 44

6. A CD19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within \_\_\_\_\_ hours of the apparatus collision/incident. A copy of the MV104, if required, must be sent to the Safety Command - Collision Recording Unit within \_\_\_\_\_ days of a collision? 10.1, 12.1
A. 72 hours / 10 days
B. 96 hours / 10 days
C. 96 hours / 4 days
D. 72 hours / 4 days

Answer 44

6. C

12.1 The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104 revised 5/11) must be completed and sent NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours of a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1,000 to the property of any one person, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.
Note: MV-104 forms can be completed and printed on the FDNY Intranet or copies can be ordered from the FDNY Stationary Supply Unit.

Question 45

7. Which point listed below regarding the New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident, MV104, is incorrect? 12.1
   A. The MV104 must be completed if a collision results in a death.
   B. The MV104 must be completed if a collision results in a personal injury.
   C. The MV104 must be completed if a collision results in damage over $1,000 to the property of any one person.
   D. The MV104 must be completed if a collision results in damage where the dollar amount cannot be estimated.
   E. The Company Officer is responsible to complete the MV104.

Answer 45

7. E

12.1 The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104 revised 5/11) must be completed and sent NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours of a collision resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1,000 to the property of any one person, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated. This is the express responsibility of the vehicle operator involved in the collision.
Note: MV-104 forms can be completed and printed on the FDNY Intranet or copies can be ordered from the FDNY Stationary Supply Unit.

Question 46

8. Company officers preparing CD19’s should know that additional CD19’s will be required in which of the following situations listed below? (More than one correct) 2.2
   A. Additional CD19’s are required if a collision/incident involves more than one apparatus.
   B. Additional CD19’s are required if a collision/incident involves more than one civilian vehicle.
   C. Additional CD19’s are required if a collision/incident involves more than two civilian pedestrians.
   D. Additional CD19’s are required if a collision/incident involves more than two bicyclists.
   E. Additional CD19’s are required if more room is needed to list all the vehicle’s occupants.

Answer 46

8. All

2.2 Additional forms (CD-19) are required if a collision/incident involves more than one
apparatus, more than one civilian vehicle, more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists (not motorcyclists - a motorcycle is a motor vehicle), or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants.

Question 47

Please answer question 9 and 10 based on the scenario in question 9.
9. You are working a day tour in E99 and are 10-8 getting the meal. As your unit pulls into the parking lot your brand new ECC side swipes E98, who is also getting the meal. E98 was properly parked in the parking lot. You, the Officer of E99, would be correct to be guided by which point of information below? 6.14
A. Since E99 hit E98 only one CD19 is required. E99 will be designated as Vehicle One while E98 will be designated as Vehicle Two. The CD19 will be completed by the officer of E99. E98 does not have to complete a CD19 but will complete an unusual occurrence report.
B. Even though E99 hit E98, 2 CD19’s are required, one from each unit involved. The Officer of E99 will prepare a CD19 for his unit and consider E99 Vehicle 1 and E98 Vehicle 2. The Officer of E98 will also prepare a CD19 and consider her unit Vehicle 1 and E99 Vehicle 2.

Answer 47

9. B
   6.14 The two top lines of the CD-19, and those areas under the headings VEHICLE 1 and Vehicle 1 FDNY Personnel provide for information about the apparatus and members of one Fire Department unit. Therefore, additional forms are required to identify apparatus and members of other units in the event two or more apparatus collide.
   E.g. Engine 6 and Engine 8 collide. The Engine 6 Officer completes the entire CD-19 with the exception of the vehicle 2 driver and owner information spaces and the vehicle 2 damage box.
   A. The member preparing the Apparatus Collision Report designates his unit’s
   apparatus as vehicle 1, therefore, the Engine 6 Officer considers his apparatus as vehicle 1 and the Engine 8 apparatus as vehicle 2.
   B. The Engine 8 Officer completes his report in the same manner as the Engine 6
   report, except that he designates his apparatus vehicle 1 and Engine 6 as vehicle 2.

Question 48

Please answer question 9 and 10 based on the scenario in question 9.
9. You are working a day tour in E99 and are 10-8 getting the meal. As your unit pulls into the parking lot your brand new ECC side swipes E98, who is also getting the meal. E98 was properly parked in the parking lot.

10. BC question. The Battalion Chief who investigates the accident above would be correct to fill out how many CD19A’s? 11.6 note.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Answer 48

10. D

Note: When two or more FDNY apparatus are involved in a collision only one CD-
19A is required. The officer completing the CD-19A can add additional
identifying information for all apparatus involved in the other comment section.

Question 49

11. E99 has been involved in a minor collision and B75 is investigating the collision. E99 is assigned to B74, however B74 was unavailable to investigate the accident. In this situation who is required to fill out the FOC1 report, email it to FDOC, and follow up with a phone call to FDOC to ensure they received the report via email? 8.1
    A. The Chief in B75.
    B. The Chief in B74.
    C. The Officer from E99.
    D. An FOC1 report is not required in this situation.

Answer 49

11. A

8.1 Battalion Chiefs/EMS Officers should be aware that timely notification to Fire
Department Operations Center is required whenever a Fire Department apparatus is
involved in a collision/incident. As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the
scene, the Battalion Chief/EMS Officer responsible for conducting the investigation shall email a completed FOC-1 report to Fire Department Operations Center at FDOC@fdny.nyc.gov, followed by a phone call to FDOC at (718) 999-7900 to verify receipt of email. The FOC-1 report can be accessed via the Fire Admin Forms section on the FDNY intranet under the Forms drop down.

Question 50

12. True or False? A motorcycle is not considered a motor vehicle but is considered a bicycle. (SB 56 Add 6 2.2, 13.1)
    A. True or B. False

Answer 50

12. B
    2.2 Additional forms (CD-19) are required if a collision/incident involves more than one
    apparatus, more than one civilian vehicle, more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists (not motorcyclists - a motorcycle is a motor vehicle), or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants.

Question 51

13. True or False? If the Officer/Operator of the unit at the time of the collision/incident is unavailable to prepare the collision report, another Officer assigned to the unit shall prepare and forward the report. (SB 56 Add 6 2.2, 13.1)
    A. True or B. False

Answer 51

13. A
14. 1 The name (printed), signature, rank/title, unit, and group/platoon of the member preparing the report is entered. DATE is the date the report is prepared. The forwarding of reports shall not be delayed due to medical, vacation, regular, or other leaves. If the Officer/Operator with the unit at the time of the collision/incident is unavailable to prepare the collision report, another Officer/Supervisor assigned to the unit shall prepare and forward the report.

Question 52

1. The Captain of E99, which is a foam storage depot, was discussing the proper stacking and rotation of supplies to ensure effective foam concentrate is available to attack fires. Which point made by the Captain was not entirely correct? 10.1
   A. Foam concentrate should be stacked no more than three containers high. All foam concentrates have an indefinite shelf life.
   B. When foam concentrate is delivered to the foam depot, the officer on duty should inspect the containers for a stamped date. If there is not a date on the container then a date should be affixed using an indelible marker.
   C. The Company Commander of the foam depot should ensure the proper rotation of foam concentrate.
   D. The oldest foam concentrate should be used first and if using foam for drill purposes then use the oldest foam concentrate available.

Answer 52

1. A
2. STORAGE 10.1 Storage and supply of foam concentrate play an important role in the foam generating system. Proper stacking and rotation of supplies are essential to ensure effective foam concentrate is available to attack fires.
    Foam concentrate should be stacked no more than two containers high.
    All foam concentrates have a shelf life. Each manufacture has its own recommendation.
    When foam concentrate is delivered to a Foam Depot, the officer on duty should inspect the containers for a stamped date. If there is no date stamped, a date should be affixed with an indelible marker.
    The Company Commander of the Foam Depot shall ensure the proper rotation of concentrate so the oldest supplies will be utilized first.
    Use the oldest foam concentrate available for drill purposes.

Question 53

2. Maintenance is an important aspect regarding foam operations. Foam concentrate can have a severe and debilitating effect on the equipment used to generate it and any foam equipment that comes in contact with foam requires flushing. Which point about the proper maintenance of foam equipment is incorrect? 12
   A. Foam eductors, pick up tubes, FIMM’s generators, hose, and pumps are to be washed out and cleaned after every use. B. When cleaning an eductor, water should be educted through it until clean water flows through the eductor.
   C. All eductors of Engine Co.’s should be tested monthly at MUD by attaching the eductor to a hose line one length from the pumper and supplying the eductor with 225 psi.
   D. Any nozzle or eductor that is not functioning properly should be sent to the fire tools and equipment unit with an RT2 attached.
   E. All valves, pumps, and gates of foam pumpers need to be operated on a regular basis to maintain functionality.

Answer 53

2. C

The following maintenance schedule shall be followed:
 All eductors of Engine companies should be tested at weekly MUD using the following procedure:
o Attach the eductor onto a gated outlet of the apparatus.
o Stretch a hoseline from the eductor.
o Connect a foam nozzle to the hoseline. o The ECC supplies 200 PSI to the eductor.
o Place a hand over the bottom of the foam pick-up tube. Suction should be felt.

 All Engine companies that house Foam Tankers should conduct monthly drills with their tanker on the first MUD of the month. The tank to pump valve, as well as all of the gates, should be operated. At the conclusion of the test a thorough cleaning of the foam equipment will have to be performed.

Question 54

3. A fire in a bulk oil storage facility has a potential unequaled by many other incidents. The millions of gallons of flammable and combustible liquids stored can cause a major life, health and environmental hazard if ignited. Which point made about a fire in a bulk oil storage facility in incorrect? 8.10
   A. Quick water applied to exposures before they become involved is essential. If fire is exposing the piping in the dikes, cool them before flange fires develop.
   B. Sometimes there are small tanks located in the dike area that are used for additives to the fuel, vapor recovery units, etc. Many of these tanks are pressurized and are identified by their rounded ends. C. An empty tank will act as a heat sink and will not be as dangerous as a tank that is full. A tank full of product is much more dangerous than a tank full of vapors. Use large amounts of at these fires.
   D. Remember, while cooling anything in the dike area with water or foam you are filling the dike with water. Make sure the dike does not overflow. The specific gravity of most petroleum products is such that they are lighter than water and will float on the surface. Carefully monitor so that no product is allowed to run off.

Answer 54

3. C

Initial actions taken can make a tremendous difference in the final outcome. Quick water applied to exposures before they become involved is essential. If fire is exposing the piping in the dikes, cool them before flange fires develop. If another tank is exposed by fire, that tank may need to be cooled. The level of liquid in the tank will have to be determined. A tank that is full will act as a heat sink and will not be as dangerous as a tank that is partially full. A tank full of vapors is much more dangerous than a tank full of product. Do not use water indiscriminately at these fires. Use water only when a tank is steaming; when the tank stops steaming, shut down the line. Reapply at intervals to keep the exposure cool. The indiscriminate use of water to cool a tank that does not need it will limit the water supply needed to produce foam and may fill the dike with water.

Question 55

4. You  are  new  Lieutenant  who  is  working  a  day  tour  in  E99  which  is  a  satellite  unit  and carries  a  high  expansion  foam  generator  on  their  second  piece.    The  hi-ex  generator  can  supply 7500  cubic  feet  per  minute  of  high  expansion  foam.    During  the  tour  you  respond  to  a  3rd  alarm for  a  fire  in  a  warehouse.    The  building  is  50’  x  100’  with  10’  ceilings.    All  members  have  been pulled  out  of  the  building  and  it  is  an  exterior  operation.    When  you  report  into  the  IC,  he  tells you  that  he  wants  to  use  high  expansion  foam.    You  would  be  correct  to  tell  the  IC  that  he  will need how many  hi-ex  foam generators  for  this operation?                           13.18 
A.  One generator. 
B.  Two generators. 
C.  Three generators. 
D.  Tell the  IC  you have  no idea.

Answer 55

4. B

o The generator output is computed in cubic feet per minute (CFM). The NFPA, in its suggested table of application rates for foam application on materials consisting of cartons, bags, fiber drums and rubber tires stored in buildings of unprotected steel construction (e.g. bar joist, etc.), allows five minutes submergence time for Hi-Ex foam to totally fill an area. Using five minutes and taking into consideration the type of stock and length, width and height of ceilings, a fire officer might use the following rule of thumb for determining the size generator(s) required.

 Divide the volume (cubic content) of the area by five minutes. For example, a building with dimensions of 50’ x 100’ with 10’ ceiling, or 50,000 cubic feet, would require a 10,000 CFM generator or a combination of generators adding up to a minimum output of 10,000 cubic feet (CFM)

Question 56

5. If members must operate in a foam environment there are precautions that must be taken to ensure a safe operation since the foam will hamper vision, hearing, and communications. Which point below is incorrect when operating in a foam environment? 13.16
   A. Members are to avoid becoming completely immersed in foam. If submerged in foam, members’ hearing and vision will be impaired and the possibility of becoming disoriented greatly increases.

B. Entering a Hi-Ex foam mass without a SCBA shall not be attempted. Under fire conditions, foam may become contaminated with the products of combustion and toxic materials.

C. The use of handie-talkies will be difficult because of possible contamination of the microphone caused by the foam, which will also garble messages. The microphone can be protected inside of the turnout coat.

D. Electrical equipment should be de-energized before the team enters the area. Members should move quickly through the foam to avoid be completely enveloped in it.

Answer 56

5. D

Members are cautioned to move slowly through foam to avoid stepping into any openings or tripping over any obstructions.

Question 57

6. High expansion foam concentrate is a detergent-based product designed for use in special generators that blow large quantities of air through a screen, which is being sprayed with solution. This results in the production of large quantities of very large and light foam bubbles. Which point below about hi-ex foam is incorrect? 13.2, 13.6, 13.7

A. Hi-Ex foam is primarily used to control fires that are inaccessible or difficult to approach due to excessive heat. It is particularly suited for use on Class “A” fires in confined spaces.

B. The effectiveness of a Hi-Ex foam blanket depends on the expansion ratio, eductor mixture setting, thickness of the blanket, and drainage time characteristics. Increasing the setting on the eductor can increase the thickness of the blanket, increase the foam’s resistance to heat and fire, and improve drainage time.

C. Hi-Ex foam can be used on alcohol or polar solvents. Hi-Ex foam has a slow drainage time, good resistance to burn back, and can be used in freezing weather.

D. Hi-Ex foam can confine and suppress the fire to a point where final extinguishment can be achieved with less debilitating effect on members. Under certain conditions Hi-Ex foam has been found effective on Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) fires.

Answer 57

6. C

Limitations of Hi-Ex foam:
 Should not be used on alcohol or polar solvents.
 Short drainage time, necessitating frequent re-applications.
 Relatively poor burn-back resistance.
 Freezing weather could have an adverse effect on the foam concentrate and finished foam blanket.

Question 58

7. During a Hi-Ex foam drill, the Captain conducting the drill made the following statement regarding the Hi-Ex foam generator and the foam chute applicator used to deliver the Hi-Ex foam. “The Foam Chute Applicator is a plastic sleeve used to deliver Hi-Ex foam from the generator to the fire. The generator should be used with the delivery chute. The chute can be placed to deliver foam to a level higher than that of the generator. The generator will be able to overcome the backpressure of the foam”. Do you agree or disagree with the Captain’s statement? 13.14

Answer 58

7. D

 The chute cannot be placed to deliver foam to a level higher than that of the generator. The generator cannot overcome the backpressure of the foam. Foam will flow back down the chute and out through the generator, ceasing foam generation.

Question 59

8. E99 operated at two different fires where Hi-Ex foam was employed. At which fire did E99 operate correctly? 13.15

Fire 1 – At this fire E99 had to deliver Hi-Ex foam to a below grade area below the generator. Since there were no obstructions in the area near the foam discharge, E99 did not seal the area around the discharge.

Fire 2 – At this fire E99 had to deliver Hi-Ex foam on the same level as the generator. In this situation E99 sealed the area around the foam discharge using cardboard and salvage plastic.
A. E99 operated correctly at both fires.
B. E99 operated incorrectly at both fires.
C. E99 operated correctly at fire 1 only.
D. E99 operated correctly at fire 2 only.

Answer 59

8. A

 When using the generator to fill an area on the same level as the generator, it is necessary to seal the area around the foam discharge. The sealing of this area is essential in keeping the foam contained. To seal off the area around the chute discharge, use materials such as wood, rugs, cardboard, salvage plastic, drapes and/or tarpaulins, etc. If the foam continues to back out of the area, it is an indication that the foam is being prevented from gaining access into the fire area. This would suggest that an alternate point be selected for foam delivery.

 When delivering foam into an area that is below the generator it may not be necessary to seal off the area around the foam discharge. If there are obstructions in close proximity of the discharge preventing a free flow of foam and causing the foam to back out of the area, sealing the area around the discharge outlet or repositioning the generator must be considered.