F.O. CLASS #8 - Week of 11/11/18: AUC 207, T.B. – Fires 7 & 8, ERP – Add #4A - D, Eng Ops #5 - 7 Instructor: BC Mike Barvels Flashcards

1
Q

1) Subway operations are usually complex in nature and all officers should be familiar with established Department procedures. Of the following choices, which contains correct information regarding subway operations? (AUC 207 2.1 - 2.5)
A) Fire Department personnel will never be permitted to operate on track areas unless assured that the power is off; no exceptions.
B) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train at other than a station is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off.
C) Positive assurance of power shut-off will be verified through the Fire Department dispatcher or any Transit officer or employee equipped with a Transit radio, before power is assumed to be off.
D) Operations shall be conducted with the maximum commitment of manpower deemed necessary and with a maximum of supervision.

A
  1. B
  2. 1 Fire Department personnel will never be permitted to operate on track areas unless assured that the power is off. This rule may be ignored only if life is in imminent peril and direct and immediate action is required to save life. In the latter instance, every possible precaution should be taken to minimize the risk.

Positive assurance of power shut-off will be verified through the Fire Department dispatcher before power is assumed to be off.

2.5 Operations shall be conducted with the minimum commitment of manpower deemed necessary and with a maximum of supervision.

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2
Q

2) Two newly promoted Lieutenants were discussing subway operations and power removal. Which comment made was incorrect? (AUC 207 3.2, 3.2.1, 3.2.5, 3.2.6)
A) The first consideration on arrival at an operation involving electrified track will be a determination of whether the power is to remain on or turned off.
B) When power removal is required it shall be accomplished at all times via apparatus radio through our own Dispatcher.
C) Whenever power is removed, interior subway car lights will turn off, indicating that power has been removed.
D) Subway cars can receive power from the third rail via a contact rail shoe(s). When members are required to operate under a subway car, request that Transit personnel protect the contact rail shoes of the affected cars with wooden slippers.

A
  1. C
  2. 2.5 Whenever power is removed, lights in the right of way, the station lights, signals, drainage pumping equipment, tunnel ventilation equipment, and train headlights will not be affected. Interior subway car lights, found to be either on or off, shall be no indication that power has been removed. The only verification that power has been removed shall be via the FDNY Dispatcher, as per Section 2.3 of this bulletin.
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3
Q

3) Lt. Green made one incorrect comment when conducting a subway drill in quarters. Indicate the incorrect comment. (AUC 207 3.2.4, 3.3.1)
A) When there is immediate danger and power must be shut off to save lives in imminent danger, the nearest power removal box shall be used and the Desk Superintendent shall immediately be notified, via the emergency telephone, that power is to remain off.
B) Failure to notify the Desk Superintendent of power removal at the power removal box will result in immediate restoration of power.
C) A power removal box and emergency telephone will be located near a blue light.
D) If power is reported off by Transit personnel upon our arrival, the Fire Department Dispatcher will not need to be notified to confirm power removal.

A
  1. D
  2. 3 If power is reported off on our arrival:
  3. 3.1 The Fire Department Dispatcher must still be notified to confirm power removal.
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4
Q

4) Subway fires can range from simple, rubbish fires to complex operations requiring evacuation. All of the following choices contain correct information regarding subway fires except in which choice? (AUC 207 3.4-3.8)
A) When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an Officer and a firefighter operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks. Tracks shall not be entered or crossed.
B) If the direction of smoke travel can be established, a unit shall be sent to the next emergency exit or station in an attempt to isolate the source of the fire. Information will be relayed to the Officer in Command via Handie-Talkie or apparatus radio.
C) Engine Companies shall not connect to a hydrant until the fire is located. Determination of the most direct means to the fire will be made before a line is stretched.
D) Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area and the establishment of the initial hoseline will always be given priority use of this means over evacuation.

A
  1. D

3.7 Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area. However, evacuating passengers will always be given priority use of this means. When ordered to use an emergency exit, the officer should check his TA emergency exit booklet and make
sure that he is on the correct line and track before members are committed to the track area. All units that have emergency exits in their district or first response area should have all members aware of their location.

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5
Q

5) In underground areas, handie-talkie communication with the surface will be adversely affected. A relay system shall be set up to overcome this. All choices below contain correct information regarding subway communications except? (AUC 207 4.1)
A) Handie-talkie communications are poor from level to level. Communications in a straight line are from fair to poor.
B) An engine and truck can set up a relay with 2 to 6 members. Members who are part of the communications relay must maintain their position throughout the operation until relieved by the Incident Commander.
C) If the token clerk booth is within 50 yards of stairs to street, the LCC should contact the train dispatcher through the clerk. There is a telephone in the token clerk’s booth.
D) In the Handie-Talkie relay, the Engine Officer should be located approximately 50 feet from the stairs on the platform for relay.

A
  1. D

Truck Chauffeur Bottom of subway entrance stairs. If the token clerk booth is within 50 yards of stairs to street, contact train dispatcher through the clerk. (There is a telephone in the token clerk’s booth. Try to obtain additional information for the Company Officer and Incident Commander). The LCC should relay the token booth phone number to the Truck Officer in
case it is necessary to call the booth from a blue light telephone.

Outside Vent FF The foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the Chauffeur.
Roof FF Approximately 50 yards from the stairs on the platform for relay.

Engine Officer Approximately 100 yards (line of sight) from Roof FF on the platform.

Truck Officer To location of the fire.

Additional HT equipped members every 100 yards, if necessary.

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6
Q

6) Due to the complex nature of subway operations, members may find themselves operating in ways different than what they are used to. Which tactic below is incorrect? (AUC 207 4.1-5.1)
A) Conditions may be such that all members are not needed in the relay to transmit messages to grade level. In this case, only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used, beginning with the Truck Chauffeur.
B) A proper transmission in a subway for the first arriving Truck, Ladder 4, conducting a communications relay would be “Ladder 4 to Ladder 4 Roof.”
C) If a train is available, consider use of the radio in the train to accomplish a message relay from the train to the desk superintendent to the borough communications office.
D) Engine Chauffeurs should not hook up until the location of the fire is determined. All Engine Company personnel should be committed to getting the first line into operation.

A
  1. B

Note: Members in the relay are reminded to use proper intra-unit communications. The Officer of the unit will be identified by the unit number (Ladder 4). Other members in the relay will be identified by unit number and riding assignment and the term “RELAY”
(Ladder 4 OVM Relay). EXAMPLE: Company Officer: “Ladder 4 to Ladder 4 Roof Relay. Notify Command there is a rubbish fire 100’ south of the southbound platform.”
Ladder 4 Roof: “Ladder 4 Roof Relay to Ladder 4 OVM Relay. Notify Command there is a . . . the southbound platform.”
Ladder 4 OVM: “Ladder 4 OVM Relay to Ladder 4 Chauffeur Relay. Notify Command there is a . . . the southbound platform.”
Ladder 4 LCC: “Ladder 4 Chauffeur Relay to Command. Ladder 4 reports there is a rubbish fire 100’ south of the southbound platform.”

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7
Q

7) Two members of your unit were discussing firefighter tactics in the subway. Which comment made was incorrect? (AUC 207 5.1, 5.2, 5.4.1, 5.4.2)
A) The Can FF should carry a wooden hook instead of a Halligan hook. For hoselines, an FT-2 nozzle should be used.
B) When walking out on the benchwall to extinguish a fire in the track area of a tunnel, the Officer, Irons FF and the Can FF are required. Other members of the company should act as safety people and be stationed on the platform where the benchwall is located, and also on the opposite platform.
C) The only justification for being on the track area with live (energized) 3rd rail power and moving trains, is if civilians are on the tracks, and we must keep them away from the third rail to save their lives or if going to the blue light to remove power because of life hazard.
D) If fire is on an express track, and the extinguisher cannot reach the fire, then power will have to be removed.

A
  1. B

5.4.2 When walking out on the benchwall to extinguish a fire in the track area of a tunnel, the Officer and the Can FF should be sufficient to achieve our purposes.
Other members of the company should act as safety people and be stationed on the platform where the benchwall is located, and also on the opposite platform.
Notification of oncoming trains should be made by radio and verbal communications by these members.

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8
Q

8) Most fires in a station are of a minor nature (e.g. rubbish fire in a trash receptacle, papers on railroad ties, or an overheated ballast at station lights.) An extinguisher will usually control these fires. There are occasions, however, when the fire will be under the platform. If this is the case, members will not be permitted in the track area unless certain conditions are met. Which condition is listed incorrectly? (AUC 207 5.3, 8.6)
A) Power is removed and confirmation of power removal is received from the Fire Department Dispatcher.
B) Members are posted at each end of the platform to act as safety people.
C) An alternate area of refuge is assured in case of train movement.
D) Areas of refuge are identified by diagonal red and white stripes painted on a wall.

A
  1. D

8.6 NO CLEARANCE SIGNS
Along the walls of tunnels we will find “no clearance” signs. They are identified by diagonal red and white stripes painted on a wall. It may appear that there is clearance at this location but train overhang on turns and contact shoes will hit you if you are standing there.

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9
Q

9) During serious incidents in the subway, evacuation may be required. In this case, you would be correct to follow which procedure listed below? (AUC 207 5.6)
A) Upon reaching the train, make contact with the train operator or conductor and see if the intercom system works. If it does, have a Fire Department member make an announcement that the Fire Department is on the scene and that the situation will shortly be under control.
B) If the intercom system does not work on the train, several members walking either on benchwalls or alongside the train can go as far as the last car, notifying people of our presence. This is critical to controlling panic and subsequent self-evacuation.
C) One of the best ways to reduce panic is to provide increased lighting. There should be a high degree of light along the right of way, in addition adequate lighting at the train debarkation point and close to the exit.
D) If at all possible, people should be evacuated to a station through the train. In situations where the train is unable to proceed to a station, consider transferring passengers to another train, after consulting with transit officials. Never walk passengers out of the tunnel using the roadbed or benchwall.

A
  1. B

5.6 EVACUATION
Upon reaching the train, make contact with the train operator or conductor and see if the intercom system works. If it does, have that person make an announcement that the Fire Department is on the scene and that the situation will shortly be under control. If the intercom system does not work, several members walking either on benchwalls or
alongside the train can go as far as the last car, notifying people of our presence. This is
critical to controlling panic and subsequent self-evacuation. One of the best ways to reduce panic is to provide increased lighting. There should be adequate light along the right of way, in addition to a high degree of lighting at the train debarkation point and
close to the exit.
There is a possibility that thousands of people will have to be evacuated. If at all possible people should be evacuated to a station through the train. In those situations where the train is unable to proceed to a station, consider transferring passengers to another train, after consulting with transit officials. As a last resort, walk passengers out of the tunnel using either the roadbed or benchwall.

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10
Q

10) Fires located on elevated roadways and railways present their own significant challenges. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (AUC 207 5.7)
A) Whenever possible, small fires in ties of an elevated railroad shall be handled by hand lines operated from the street below.
B) When an aerial or tower ladder must be raised to determine a particular situation at an elevated line, these ladders shall never be extended beyond the railing where they could be exposed over the track area to a moving train.
C) Small rubbish or tie fires in proximity to a raised aerial or tower ladder shall be extinguished, whenever possible, with a 2 1/2” line from the Transit stairway and track entry kept to a minimum.
D) The initial survey will be performed by an Officer before any members are committed to operations in a track area. Use extreme caution, as catwalks may be rotted, in disrepair, or eaten away from previous fires.

A
  1. C

5.7 ELEVATED ROADWAYS
5.7.1 Whenever possible, small fires in ties of an elevated railroad shall be handled by hand lines operated from the street below.
5.7.2 When an aerial or tower ladder must be raised to determine a particular situation at an elevated line, special precautions will be followed.
A. Aerial and tower ladders shall never be extended beyond the railing where they could be exposed over the track area to a moving train.
B. The initial survey will be performed by an Officer before any members are committed to operations in a track area.
C. Small rubbish or tie fires in proximity to a raised aerial or tower ladder shall be extinguished, whenever possible, with a 1¾” line from the aerial, or tower ladder basket and no track entry be attempted.

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11
Q

11) When a fuel spill on the street is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances by diking. Preferably, the proper order of diking is? (AUC 207 5.8 L)
A) 1. planking; 2. sand or earth; 3. charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill.
B) 1. charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill; 2. planking; 3. sand or earth.
C) 1. charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill; 2. sand or earth; 3. planking;
D) 1. sand or earth; 2. planking; 3 charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill.

A
  1. D

L. When a fuel spill is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances by diking. Preferably by sand or earth; if not, use planking. If none of these things are available, charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill. This should be followed by a layer of foam.

When a fuel spill is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances in order of preference using

SPiL:

1) Sand/earth
2) Planking
3) Lengths of hose

:

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12
Q

12) Several railroads have track sections that are serviced by a Dual Power System. This may be particularly found at junctions where different railroads (or formerly different railroads) share the same track facilities jointly. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding these systems? (AUC 207 6.6)
A) A track with a Dual Power System may be supplied simultaneously by an Overhead Catenary Line, usually 11,000 Volts AC current, and also a ground level 3rd Rail, usually 660 Volts DC current.
B) Officers in Command, requesting power removal from tracks with a Dual Power System, must communicate to ensure that power has been removed from both power systems for all affected tracks.
C) When power is reported to have been removed from an 11,000 Volt AC Overhead Catenary Line, members must be alert that there still remains a static electrical current in such lines. This static current still has the potential to dangerously shock anybody accidentally coming into contact with such a line.
D) Verification that Overhead Catenary Lines are safe after power has been reported removed, and that static current has also been removed, shall only be made through the Fire Department Dispatcher.

A
  1. D

A. When power is reported to have been removed from an 11,000 Volts AC Overhead Catenary Line, members must be alert that there still remains a static electrical current in such lines. This static current still has the potential to dangerously shock anybody accidentally coming into contact with such a line. Verification that such overhead lines are safe, after power has been reported removed, is made by railroad electricians employing special equipment and techniques at the site of operations. Such railroad electricians at the site of
operations can re-affirm to the Officer in Command that the static currents have also been removed.

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13
Q

13) Which safety consideration for operating in a subway is listed incorrectly? (AUC 207 7.2, 7.3, 7.4, 7.8)
A) Members crossing the third rail must not step on the third rail cover, but rather, over it.
B) Even with power off there are elements within the undercarriage electrical system that possess enough voltage to cause a shock. Contact with any undercarriage electrical components must be avoided.
C) A member directed to halt traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide, vertical motion of at least four feet.
D) A very dangerous condition exists when operations occur in proximity to a tunnel entrance or exit. Visibility will be extremely poor and must be counteracted by additional observers and extreme caution.

A
  1. C
  2. 4 A member directed to halt traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet. Train Operators are accustomed to seeing trackwalkers (inspectors) carrying lights. If this horizontal motion is not used, the firefighter might be mistaken for a walker and the train will not stop. Members must use extreme caution; stopping a moving train with a light is not assured. They shall ensure themselves a position of safety and warn any endangered members to stand clear.
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14
Q

14) A knowledgeable officer would be correct to identify which comments that reflect proper Department procedures and features of the subway system? (AUC 207 8.1, 8.1.1 C, 8.5.1)
1. Near the blue light, there is a power removal box, a telephone, and a dry chemical fire extinguisher. These are found along the right of way, approximately 600 feet apart.
2. The power removal box is operated by a pull down lever located inside the box. If forced to remove power, it is imperative to use the telephone near the blue light to inform the Desk Superintendent that power is to be removed and the reason why.
3. To operate the telephone at the blue light, remove the handset from inside the box and depress the button on the handset to talk. Then release the button to hear a reply.
4. The Power Removal Box will always be located directly under the blue light.
5. Whenever NYC Transit personnel determine that a Power Removal Box or the telephone is out of service, they will be covered with a bag to identify them as being out of service. This bag will be red, with white lettering, and it will state “Out Of Service.”
6. If a member encounters an out of service Power Removal Box, the member should use the associated telephone to contact the Rail Control Center (RCC) to request the removal of power. The member must identify him/herself and state the reason for power removal.
7. The blue light telephone does not ring; there is a buzzer mounted on the wall above the telephone that will intermittently activate.
A) 1, 2, 6, 7
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
C) 1, 5, 6, 7
D) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7

A
  1. A

To operate the telephone at these locations, remove the handset from inside the box and depress the button on the handset, keeping it depressed at all times during the conversation. Releasing the button will terminate the call.

The Power Removal Box may not necessarily be located under the blue light, but it will be in proximity to it or across the tracks from it. This will require us to cross live third rails and be subject to moving trains.

Whenever NYC Transit personnel determine that a Power Removal Box or the Telephoneis out of service, they will be covered with a bag to identify them as being out of service. This bag will be white, with red lettering, and it will state “Out Of Service.

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15
Q

15) The senior member of Ladder 100 was discussing subway safety with the newer members of the company. He made an incorrect comment in which choice? (AUC 207 8.2, 8.3, 8.5.2 - 8.5.4, 9.3.3)
A) Contact shoes are pieces of metal that conduct electricity from the third rail to car motors. They stick out from both sides of the car near the wheels and if any contact shoe is on the third rail, all contact shoes of the car will be energized.
B) Some benchwalls are provided with cut outs (safety niches), which are indented spaces in the wall of the tunnel that provide room for a person to stand while a train passes by. When using a cutout, firefighters are required to use the reduced-profile maneuver for their masks and if a train should come by unexpectedly, they should go back to the cutout just passed, if it is clear.
C) All under river tubes of the NYC Transit System are equipped with dry standpipe systems and have siamese connections on each end of the tube. Water supply is via Fire Department pumpers only.
D) Each unit shall prepare an exact list of emergency exit locations within their 1st alarm response district and securely fasten this list to the subway emergency exit booklet issued to all units. Highlight and tab the pages in the emergency exit booklet where these locations are found.

A
  1. C

8. 5.2 All under river tubes of the NYC Transit are equipped with wet standpipe systems.

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16
Q

16) In the NYC subway system, emergency exits consist of stairways that lead up to the street from the track area and exit on sidewalks or ventilating towers near the river. All of the following choices contain correct information regarding these exits except? (AUC 207 8.8, 8.9)
A) A prism-shaped sign, or a cluster of 5 white lights, identifies emergency exits in subway tunnels.
B) Transit has installed intrusion alarms on all of their subway emergency exits. All units inspecting an emergency exit, or responding to an incident at an emergency exit, shall notify the Fire Department Dispatcher and communicate the exit number and location for transmittal to the Transit Control Center.
C) All companies have been issued Subway Emergency Keys with three different key shapes and a pry bar on the tool. The pry bar end is used to lift the emergency exit door, and to scrape out debris between the door and the door buck.
D) When encountering an emergency exit lock with other than the standard shapes, no Fire Department tool will open the exit and a NYC Transit representative must be requested to open the exit with the appropriate key.

A
  1. D

8.9 SUBWAY EMERGENCY KEYS
All companies are issued Subway Emergency Keys. There are three different key shapes and a pry bar on this tool. All the Subway lines (IND, BMT, IRT) emergency exits can be opened with this one key. The pry bar end is used to lift the emergency exit door, and to scrape out debris between the door and the door buck. However, some emergency exit locks are now appearing with other than the standard shapes. If this is the case, a pair of
vise-grips or pliers will have to be used to open the emergency door.

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17
Q

17) Two Battalion Chiefs discussing Fire Department operations and communications in subways agreed on three statements, and were able to identify which incorrect comment? (AUC 207 2.6.6, 4.3, 8.1.1 C)
A) The first arriving Chief Officer at the scene of a Transit Authority fire or emergency shall determine if the response of a Transit Authority representative is needed. If so, have the FDNY Dispatcher notify the Transit Authority Dispatcher and request that a “Transit Supervisor” respond to the scene. Ensure that the FDNY Dispatcher advises the Transit Authority Dispatcher of the exact location of the FDNY Command Post.
B) When a Chief will be operating in the tunnel, arrange for a Transit Authority Police Officer, or other employee equipped with a Transit Authority portable radio, to be assigned to the Chief in Charge operating in the tunnel. The radio can be used for communicating with the Desk Superintendent, and relay via telephone to the Borough Communications Office.
C) If the Truck Officer did not obtain the token booth telephone number prior to proceeding to the location of the fire or emergency, the Officer can use any blue light telephone to contact the Desk Superintendent and request to relay the blue light telephone number to the FDNY Borough Dispatcher, who shall relay the number to the Chief. The Chief can then have the token booth telephone used to call the blue light telephone to contact the Truck Officer.
D) To use a token booth telephone, which is a conventional telephone, request the token booth clerk to pass the telephone through the window. The Chief can also call the blue light telephone with his/her cellular telephone from the street, which is preferable over using the token booth telephone.

A
  1. D

The Chief Officer can call the blue light telephone with his cellular telephone from the street, but the token booth phone is the preferred method. The blue light
telephone does not ring, there is a buzzer mounted on the wall above the telephone that will intermittently activate.

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18
Q
18) On her first day as a Battalion Chief working in Battalion 45, BC Robinson was able to correctly identify herself as which designation on a response? (Comm 2-37)
A) BC45F - FAST Group Supervisor
B) BC45D - Division Task Force
C) BC45L - Firefighter Locator Officer
D) BC45R - High-Rise Roof Chief
A
  1. C
Battalion Chief
C Communications Unit Leader 
D Tech Decon Task Force Leader Officer
F Foam Coordinator
G FAST Group Supervisor 
H Hi-Rise Roof Chief
K Division Task Force
L Firefighter Locator Officer
P Staging Area Manager
R Resources Unit Leader
 High Rise Unit
S Safety Officer
T Transit Liaison 
N High Rise Nozzle
V Ventilation Support Unit
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19
Q

19) According to the Department’s “Command and Control” policy, all of the following choices contain correct information with the exception of which choice? (C&C Ch 2 2.1.5, 2.1.6, 2.4.5)
A) Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive Battalion Chief shall be designated the Deputy Incident Commander or the Operations Section Chief.
B) Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive BC shall continue to manage the tactical operations of the incident under the supervision of the DC and both Chief Officers shall operate together for the duration of the incident. The DC and first to arrive BC shall remain at the ICP to ensure effective command and control.
C) A critical role of the first to arrive BC is to monitor HT Channel 2 (Command) for the transmission of critical messages, and ensure the timely response to such.
D) All units shall be informed when a particular sector/group has been established. Example: “Command to all units operating in exposure 2, Exposure 2 Sector has been established by Battalion 6, all transmissions are to go through the Exposure 2 Sector Battalion 6 unless urgent.”

A
  1. C

find out where C&C is

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20
Q

1) Two firefighters discussing the differences between incinerators and compactors identified which incorrect statement made by a fellow member? (TB Fires 7 1.1, 1.2 B, 1.3, 2.3 H Note)
A) New buildings (except hospitals and municipal buildings) are permitted to install only compactors. In existing buildings, an incinerator must either be converted to a compactor or be updated by adding a scrubber, an auxiliary gas or fuel burning mechanism and oversized fans.
B) Extension is unlikely but is much more probable in the case of an incinerator than in the case of a compactor, since incinerator chutes are designed for burning.
C) A compactor fire is a structural fire while an incinerator fire which does not extend or communicate from the shaft is an emergency. Operational priorities are different depending on the incident: Compactor - Put the fire out. Incinerator - Clear the blockage.
D) A fly ash collector is an area near the top of the incinerator vent shaft and can be as small as an enlarged area in the shaft or as large as a small room. It is always equipped with a means of access cleaning (generally a steel door).

A
  1. B

B. Extension is unlikely but is much more probable in the case of a compactor than in the case of an incinerator, since compactor chutes are not designed for burning. Therefore the operational priorities are different, viz:

1) Compactor - Put the fire out.
2) Incinerator - Clear the blockage.

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21
Q

2) At an incinerator emergency, every member has a duty to fulfill. All of the following choices contain an accurate description of these duties except? (TB Fires 7 2.1, 2.3 F, 2.4)
A) The Officer, FE team, and OV FF of the Ladder Company will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search and locate the blockage.
B) The Roof FF proceeds to the roof to ventilate stairways and check the spark arrester for blockage.
C) It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby, he/she ensures the stairwell door at the ground floor level is maintained shut to prevent a draft which will inhibit vertical ventilation.
D) The Ladder Company Chauffeur may be used to locate and check out the incinerator room or assist in search and ventilation of the building as ordered by the Officer.

A
  1. C

F. The roof firefighter of the ladder company proceeds to roof to ventilate stairways and to check spark arrester for blockage. As stated above, the bulkhead door can be opened and secured in order to vent stairways.

NOTE: It is very important that, before the roof firefighter leaves the lobby he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the roof bulkhead door is opened.

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22
Q

3) There are many ways to locate and mitigate an incinerator emergency. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Fires 7 2.2, 2.3)
A) If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally below that floor. If instead, when you open it, a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally above that floor or the blockage has freed itself.
B) One way to free the blockage includes using a hook, or reinforcing rod that is about 10 feet long and bent into an L shape, to push down the blockage from above. Some hopper frames can be removed to provide easier access to the chute.
C) Another method to free the blockage would be to tie a heavy weight to a rope and drop it from above. Do not drop anything which is not secured with a rope.
D) If the blockage cannot be freed using a hook, rod or tied-off weight, consider burning it off. (This is used only on incinerators).

A
  1. A

2.2 Locating the blockage.
A. If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above that floor. Refer to Reference #2
B. If instead, when you open it, a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself. Refer to Reference #2
NOTE: If smoke is present on the uppermost floor, there may be a clogged or blocked spark arrester or fly ash collector. (See roof firefighter, below)

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23
Q

4) Which tactic listed below is incorrect in regard to incinerator operations? (TB Fires 7 3.2, 3.3, 4.1)
A) When opening a chute door, the member should be wearing full firefighting gear, including gloves, and eye shields down. The member should consider using a mask, if necessary.
B) When opening a chute door, stand to the side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, stand on the hinged side.
C) At the chute door, eyes should be below the opening, and face turned away. Always stay clear of the opening, in case there is an explosion or an eruption of fire.
D) Generally, the Engine Company will stand-fast in the lobby with masks, roll ups and the standpipe kit. Some members may be used to assist the Ladder Company in search, vent, etc, however, generally the Officer and at least 1 member shall remain in the lobby.

A
  1. D

4.1. Engine companies shall be guided by the following:
A. Generally, the engine company will stand-fast in the lobby with masks, rolled ups and standpipe kit.
1) Some members may be used to assist the ladder company in search, vent, etc. However, generally the officer and at least 2 men shall remain in the lobby.

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24
Q

5) In order to familiarize her members with compactor units and chutes, Lt. Wall conducted a drill in quarters and pointed out which incorrect statement made by one of her members? (TB Fires 6.2, 6.5, 7.3, 7.5)
A) The photo-electric mechanism of a compactor unit operates on a delayed time principle and an object must block the beam for four seconds before the compactor starts. The time factor may be either consecutive or accumulative.
B) The type of compactor that FDNY units most frequently encounter is the “incinerator conversion,” installed at the base of the original incinerator chute. It is usually located in a separate room, accessible from the rear of the building.
C) An electrically operated sprinkler head in a compactor unit is thermostatically controlled to operate at approximately 135°F, and once activated, will flow until the temperature falls below 135°F.
D) In refuse chutes constructed in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not more than three stories apart for the height of the chute. They shall be recessed and so arranged that fused sprinkler heads may be readily replaced unless electrically operated.

A
  1. D
  2. 5 In refuse chutes constructed in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute. They shall be recessed and so arranged that fused sprinkler heads may be readily replaced unless electrically operated.
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25
Q

6) When there is fire in a compactor chute, all of the following unit and individual actions would be considered correct except? (TB Fires 7 8.2)
A) The first arriving Engine Company will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.
B) The Officer and FE team of the Ladder Company will operate in the compactor room to first, locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
C) The Roof FF will generally proceed to the roof to vent. After venting the roof, this member will search and vent stairways, floors, etc., as needed.
D) The OV FF’s duties will vary and will generally be as directed by the Officer to provide special tools in the compactor room or assist in search and venting, etc.

A
  1. D

B. OV operates with engine to provide access to the chute and to check for extension.

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26
Q

7) There are many hazards when attempting to extinguish a fire in a compactor chute or unit. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (TB Fires 7 8.2 A, 8.3, 8.4, 9.4)
A) For a fire in the compactor chute, freeing the blockage, as you would in an incinerator fire, could result in a more serious situation in the compactor unit, because it is not designed for burning refuse. The possibility of extension is greater in the chute than in the unit.
B) When there is fire in the compactor unit, if it has not extended into the room, the Engine Company stretches a line to the first floor, and operates into the chute to extinguish the fire.
C) If fire has extended from the compactor unit to the compactor room, utilize firefighting tactics as you would for a cellar fire.
D) If hydraulic lines of the compactor unit rupture, the escaping flammable fluid adds to the potential of the fire. This would also create a slippery condition for members operating in the area.

A
  1. A

The possibility of extension is greater in the unit than in the chute.

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27
Q

8) Lt. Brown was questioning a probationary firefighter on motor vehicle accident (MVA) operations. The probationary firefighter made one incorrect comment which can be found in which choice? (TB Fires 8 4.2 C, 4.7, 5.1-5.3)
A) The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of moderate to heavy traffic volume with the usual accompanying high speed.
B) Where weather conditions (snow, rain, fog, sleet, etc.) or smoke blowing across the highway limit visibility, the highway must be closed.
C) No fewer than two units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other potentially dangerous roadway.
D) All fires and emergencies involving motor vehicles on other than express highways shall receive a minimum response of one Engine Company and one Ladder Company.

A
  1. A

• Traffic flow: the volume and speed of the moving traffic on the highway or street. The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of light to moderate traffic volume with the usual accompanying high speed.

28
Q

9) Proper apparatus placement is critical at incidents on highways and roadways. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Fires 8 6.2 - 6.6)
A) At a vehicle fire where placement of the apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, the pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but the second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces.
B) Where the fire or emergency occurs near a curve, or beyond a hill, the second apparatus shall be located where it will be visible to oncoming traffic and furnish a warning to such traffic in sufficient time to avoid a secondary collision.
C) At times, particularly when fire is small and a period of examination and overhaul is necessary, it may be possible to move the fire vehicle and the fire apparatus off the roadway to a safe location. When the operation occurs off the roadway (i.e. on the roadway shoulder or other service area), an apparatus is not required to block traffic.
D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least fifty (50) feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area. Members shall avoid standing on highway pavement to the rear of second apparatus, unless placing flares, cones or signs, and traffic is stopped.

A
  1. C
  2. 4 At times, particularly when fire is small and a period of examination and overhaul is necessary, it may be possible to move the fire vehicle and the fire apparatus off the roadway to a safe location. Even when the operation occurs off the roadway, an apparatus must be placed to provide a safe working environment.
29
Q

10) Flares and cones can be a great asset during MVAs and car fires. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding flares? (TB Fires 8.1 B-E)
A) Flares shall be used at night or periods of reduced visibility. Flares and cones may be used at any time where, in the judgment of the officer in command, their use would add to the safety of operation.
B) One single member should be designated to place 2 to 3 flares and or cones. Flares burn for approximately 15 minutes.
C) The furthest flare and or cone is placed about 2’ from the edge of the roadway. The next flare and or cone is then lit and or placed equidistant back to the scene of the operation, moving the flares and or cones about 2 feet further into the roadway at each point. This is continued until the lane is completely blocked.
D) When encountering curves in the roadway, the distance may have to be expanded or more flares and or cones employed to provide additional coverage.

A
  1. B

E. Placing Flares and cones.
1. Flares and cones should be placed to block one or two lanes or to completely block a roadway. At least 4 to 6 cones and/or flares should be used to build a lane closure or safety zone. Vests shall be worn as per
section 7.

30
Q
11) At an incident on a roadway with a posted speed limit of 40mph, but the fastest speed to be expected is 50mph, what should be the minimum distance to the furthest flare? (TB Fires 8.1 E 3)
A) 220 ft
B) 310 ft
C) 160 ft
D) 250 ft
A
  1. B
31
Q

12) MVAs on highways are especially dangerous to Fire Department members. Of the following choices, all are correct regarding Department response and operations at these incidents except? (TB Fires 8 9.1 B, C, H, I)
A) Often the company traveling in the direction opposite that of the incident will reach the scene first, and will have to commence operations across the center divider. As soon as possible, this unit should be released and its function taken over by one operating from the incident side of such divider.
B) Normally, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up.
C) At times, the practice of gaining access to an express highway incident from a service road, across a grassy slope, avoids placing the apparatus on the highway proper. However, firefighters operating on/from a service roadway must be extremely careful and warning devices have to be placed as soon as possible at both locations.
D) Where access to an elevated or depressed roadway is obtained by use of ladders, extreme caution shall be observed in placing and using the ladders. Aerial and/or Tower Ladders may be extended beyond the shoulder where they could be exposed to moving traffic only if proper warning devices are placed.

A
  1. D

I. Where access to an elevated or depressed roadway is obtained by use of ladders, extreme caution shall be observed in placing and using the ladders. Aerial or
Tower Ladder shall not be extended beyond shoulder where they could be exposed to moving traffic. Aerial and/or tower ladder should be cantilevered parallel to the elevated roadway.

32
Q

13) A knowledgeable company officer would be able to identify correct tactics in which choice below? (TB Fires 8 10, 11.2 B)
1. Never take a partial lane.
2. Never allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene.
3. For a fire in the engine compartment, where the hood is difficult to open, operate the stream through the front grill.
4. Cool hydraulic bumpers, tires or gas tanks in vicinity of the fire. Some foreign vehicles have gas tanks in the front.
5. Use a coarse spray stream (partially open nozzle with tip removed) when magnesium parts are on fire.
6. Ladder company members may be used to operate a second line to either protect victims or to protect extrication procedure.
A) 3, 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
D) 1, 2, 4, 5

A
  1. C

• For a fire in the engine compartment, where the hood is difficult to open, pry up the side of the hood and operate stream through this opening. Do not attempt to operate through the front grill.

33
Q

14) Though hybrid vehicles tend to get better fuel economy than conventional vehicles, they present some unique hazards. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding hybrid vehicle operations? (TB Fires 8 11.6 C)
A) Do not approach from the front or rear until the vehicle has been disabled as it may only appear as being shut down. Never assume the vehicle is off simply because it is silent.
B) Never cut high voltage cables which are usually color-coded orange, although some may be blue.
C) Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 5 feet away from the vehicle.
D) At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

A
  1. C

• Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.

34
Q

15) An experienced company officer would be able to identify which incorrect statement? (TB Fires 8 Ref 1, Ref 2, Ref 4, Ref 6)
A) Whenever possible, avoid standing directly in front of or in the rear of vehicle fires. Attack from the flanks and keep onlookers from standing in front of or to the rear of vehicle fires for a distance of at least 100 feet.
B) When removing a vehicle battery, disconnect the ground terminal first.
C) When dealing with a fire in the back of a garbage truck without a 2 1/2” female inlet coupling, the rear of the truck will have to be raised in order to extinguish the fire. When using the hydraulic system to raise the back portion, no one should be allowed within 50’ of the rear of the truck.
D) A reflective warning sticker that reads “1075” on the left side of the bumper of a vehicle indicates a vehicle fueled by natural gas.

A
  1. D

THIS PASSENGER CAR IS….
PROPANE POWERED

35
Q

16) Safety is one of the Incident Commander’s greatest concerns at serious motor vehicle collisions. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (TB Fires 8 5.1-5.3)
A) One Engine and one Ladder from each direction, and a Battalion Chief, will be assigned to all express highway incidents. All fires and emergencies involving motor vehicles on other than express highways shall receive a minimum response of one Engine Company and one Ladder Company.
B) No fewer than four units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other potentially dangerous roadway. There may arise occasions where additional units are necessary to establish a proper area of safety.
C) Fire units will be automatically dispatched to EMS responses on highways involving accidents with injuries and/or pedestrians struck. Fire units shall position apparatus to protect both EMS and fire members operating on or near the roadway. The existing dispatch policy of one Engine and one Ladder from each direction, and a Battalion Chief, will be assigned.
D) When EMS units are on scene at a highway incident for other than an accident or pedestrian struck, and requests a fire unit for back-up, a single Ladder company will be dispatched to the verified incident location to divert or block oncoming traffic for the duration of both fire and EMS operations

A
  1. B

No fewer than two units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other potentially dangerous roadway.

36
Q

17) A recently promoted Battalion Chief conducting drill on motor vehicle collisions was incorrect in which statement regarding the High Visibility Safety Vests? (SB 88 2.1, 2.1.1, 2.2, 8.1)
A) Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night.
B) Exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of firefighting, hazardous material mitigation, or technical rescue.
C) If spare vests are required, units shall contact their administrative Division. Units shall use Division vests until they receive their replacement vests. Division vests, including spares, shall be identified by unit designation, e.g., D-1, D-3.
D) The high visibility safety vests are designed to be worn in place of the bunker coat and have no flame resistant qualities. Each unit will be issued one vest per riding position.

A
  1. D

2.2 The high visibility safety vests are designed to be worn over bunker gear and are flame resistant in compliance with ASTM standards. Each unit will be issued one vest per riding position. Members shall pre-fit the vest at the beginning of the tour for a custom
fit and ease of donning.

37
Q

1) Which statement below contains incorrect information regarding the Radalert 50 Radiological Monitor? (ERP Add 4A 2.1 6, 2.2)
A) A spare 9-volt alkaline battery shall be kept with the Radalert 50.
B) After turning the unit on, the Radalert 50 requires one full minute to show a complete reading on the LCD.
C) If the rate at any time goes over 1 millirem per hour (mr/Hr), the monitor will immediately sound the alert tone.
D) Continuous screen readings will reflect normal background radiation. Background radiation will vary, maintaining normal levels between .05 and .9 mR/Hr.

A
  1. D
  2. 2 After the unit has been turned on for one minute, the hourglass icon will disappear, and the unit is now ready for use. The continuous screen readings will reflect normal background radiation. Background radiation will vary, maintaining normal levels between .02 and .05 millirems per hour (mR/Hr).
38
Q

2) Two recently promoted Lieutenants were having a discussion about the radiological threat to NYC. One made an incorrect comment regarding the Radalert 50. Indicate the incorrect comment. (ERP Add 4A2 2.4-2.6)
A) Any area that causes the Radalert 50 to alarm requires confirmation by a second unit.
B) When examining for contamination, slowly move the monitor one to two inches from the surface with the alpha port (open window on the top of the case) facing the object, area or person to be tested.
C) The Radalert 50 alarms at 1 mR/Hr, indicating an area that has radiation above normal background. A circular pattern should then be used around the object or area to determine the size of the isolation zone as scene size-up continues.
D) The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of 1 mR/Hr, and marked with the red “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

A
  1. D

The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone) should be established at a rate of 2 mR/Hr, and marked with the red “hazardous materials” barrier tape supplied by Tech Services.

39
Q

3) Maintenance of the Radalert 50 and its use to monitor natural background radiation the first full week of May can be the most difficult part of using the Radalert 50. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (ERP Add 4A 3.1, 3.2, 4.1)
A) Using the Radalert 50, all units will monitor the area in front of quarters for 5 minutes at each of the times on the designated day and determine the background rate for each.
B) Background radiation information will be recorded on the RAD-3 report, titled “Radiation Background Monitoring Chart.” Any unusual or elevated background readings (over .05mR/Hr but under .9mR/Hr) shall require the officer to forward a copy of the RAD-2, titled “Elevated Background Radiation Readings Above 0.05mR/Hr” to the Battalion.
C) A copy of the data chart must be forwarded to the unit’s respective Battalion for consolidation and forwarding to the Division. Normal background readings for some areas may be several times higher than others.
D) Maintenance of the Radalert 50 requires that the 9-volt alkaline battery be changed every 3 months. The 9-volt alkaline battery shall be changed on Jan. 1, April 1, July 1, and Oct. 1 of each year.

A
  1. B

Any unusual or elevated background readings (>.05mR/Hr but

40
Q

4) Potassium Iodide (KI) has been approved by the FDA as a nonprescription drug for use as a thyroid “blocking agent” to prevent the human thyroid gland from absorbing radioactive iodine. Of the following choices, which is the only one that contains correct information? (ERP Add 4C 1.1, 1.2. 2.1, 2.2, 3.2)
A) KI is important in the event of a radiological incident involving the release or use of radioactive iodine. Due to the rapid absorption of iodine, KI must be taken early in the event.
B) KI will protect the thyroid gland from radioactive iodine and may protect other internal organs from the detrimental effects of radiation.
C) The adult dose recommended for FDNY members following an exposure to radioactive iodine is one tablet as soon after exposure as possible. Taking a higher dose, if available, will offer additional protection.
D) Women who are pregnant or breastfeeding should not take KI as it is harmful to their breast milk and baby.

A
  1. A

Using KI will only protect the thyroid gland from radioactive iodine. It will not protect other parts of the body from radioactive iodine and it will not protect a person from the effects of exposure to other radioactive materials that may be released.

KI is most effective when taken soon after an exposure.
The ideal window is pre-exposure or immediately post exposure. Some radiation physiologists argue that the time frame is within one-hour post exposure. The utility of KI drops off rapidly as a function of time with respect to exposure and the exposed person’s age. The optimal administration will be prior to or immediately coincident with the passage of the radioactive cloud with a 3 to 4 hour window after exposure to radioactive iodine. Because the radioactive iodine will be present in the initial release and decays quickly, a single dose of KI may be all that is required.

3.2 Women who are pregnant or breastfeeding should also take KI to protect themselves and their breast milk.

41
Q

5) The high concentrations of iodine in KI can be harmful to some people and individuals should not take KI in each of the cases below, except in which choice? (ERP Add 4C 4)
A) They have ever had thyroid disease (such as hyperthyroidism, thyroid nodules, or goiter).
B) They know they are allergic to iodine.
C) They are allergic to shellfish.
D) They have certain skin disorders, such as dermatitis herpetiformis or urticaria vasculitis.

A
  1. C

4.1 The high concentrations of iodine in KI can be harmful to some people. People should
not take KI if they:
4.1.1 have ever had thyroid disease (such as hyperthyroidism, thyroid nodules, or goiter)
4.1.2 know they are allergic to iodine (if you are allergic to shellfish, ask your doctor about taking KI)
4.1.3 have certain skin disorders, such as dermatitis herpetiformis or urticaria vasculitis
NOTE: In preparation, people should consult their doctor prior to an incident if they are unsure whether or not to take KI.

42
Q

6) BC Willow was instructing a newly promoted Lieutenant on basic radiological operations. Which point stated by the Chief was incorrect? (ERP 4 4.4.1 B, 4.4.2 B, Add 4A 1.1)
A) The Radalert 50 radiological monitor has been issued to all Engine and Ladder companies, Rescues, Squads, HMC1, Haz Tac, Battalion and Division Chiefs throughout the city.
B) If a radiological emergency involves a fire, extinguishing the fire should be the last consideration. Isolating and mitigating the radiological source should remain the first priority to facilitate rescue, evacuation and scene control.
C) The Hotline is the edge of the Hot Zone and the point after which no contamination is present. Greater than 2mR/hr is the hot zone and less than 2mR/hr is the cold zone.
D) Establish the Command Post and Operations Section in the Cold Zone and monitor for the presence of radiation. Proceed towards the suspected area of contamination slowly. The Rad50 takes a full minute for a change to be indicated on the LCD display/readout, however, if the rate at any time exceeds 1mR/hr, the Rad50 will immediately sound the alert tone.

A
  1. B

B. Identify other hazards, if present
If the radiological emergency involves a fire, extinguishing the fire is a high priority to facilitate rescue, evacuation and radiological contamination control.

43
Q

7) All of the following are correct regarding the storage and use of KI tablets with the exception of which choice? (ERP Add 4C 5)
A) KI tablets can be stored for at least 5 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration is not required.
B) Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall all carry KI tablets in the glove box of their apparatus/vehicle.
C) Additional caches of KI tablets will be stored at Battalion offices. If needed, units and/or members must respond to the nearest Battalion office, or as directed, to obtain KI tablets.
D) Members shall only take a KI tablet when directed by the Chief of Department.

A
  1. C

Additional caches of 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets will be stored at Division offices. If needed, units and/or members must respond to the nearest Division office, or as directed, to obtain 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets.

44
Q

1) Lt. Johnson knows when the Ladder Company is present, the first arriving Engine Officer shall attempt to enter the IDLH when teamed up with another available member. She also knows that in other cases, when the Ladder Company is forcing the door to the fire area, the Engine Officer should proceed to the area immediately below the fire and take all of the following actions except? (Eng 5.1.5)
A) Determine the layout of the area (in multiple dwellings, layouts tend to be similar in each vertical line of apartments).
B) Look at the floor for signs of structural weakness or holes.
C) Look out a window to determine the location and extent of the fire on the fire floor.
D) When returning to the fire floor, look out a stairway window in order to gain a different view of the fire floor from below.

A
  1. B

If the ladder company is forcing the door to the fire area, the engine officer should proceed to the area immediately below the fire and:
 Determine the layout of the area (in multiple dwellings, layouts tend to be similar in each vertical line of apartments).
 Look at the ceiling for signs of structural weakness or holes.
 Look out a window to determine the location and extent of the fire on the fire floor.
 When returning to the fire floor, look out a stairway window in order to gain a different view of the fire floor from below.

45
Q

2) While gathering information concerning the hoseline stretch, the Engine Officer should be alert to building occupants with information relative to persons trapped or distressed. If persons were reported trapped on the initial alarm, or if information or statements indicate this possibility, the Engine Officer would be most correct to try and determine all of the following except? (Eng 5.1.7)
A) Where are the people trapped?
B) How many people are trapped?
C) Are there any pets or animals trapped in the building?
D) Are the occupants normally home at his time of day?

A
  1. C

If persons were reported trapped on the initial alarm, or if information or statements indicate this possibility, the engine officer should determine the following:
 Where are the people trapped?
 How many people are trapped?
 Are the trapped persons children or adults?
 Are the occupants normally home at his time of day?

46
Q

3) Engine Company Officers should develop a communication system with the Nozzle Firefighter for use when voice communications are impaired due to stream impact noise, power saw operations, opening up and ventilation noise. The following system of touch signals is accurately reflected in all but which choice? (Eng 5.1.19, 5.1.21)
A) Opening or closing the nozzle - One or two slaps on the back or shoulder.
B) Direction of stream - Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle, either left or right.
C) Advancement of hoseline - Steady push on the back or mask cylinder.
D) Halt or stop advance - Four (4) strong slaps on the shoulder.

A
  1. D

The following system of touch signals can be used in conjunction with verbal commands to relay orders:
 Opening or closing the nozzle–One or two slaps on the back or shoulder.
 Direction of stream–Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle, either left or right.
 Advancement of hoseline–Steady push on back or mask cylinder.
 Halt or stop advance–Pull back on shoulder, bunker coat or mask
assembly.

47
Q

4) An experienced Engine Officer can assist in ventilation of the fire apartment by ordering use of the hoseline. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding this ventilation tactic? (Eng 5.1.23)
A) When conditions permit, the Engine Officer may order a fog or broken stream directed out a window in the fire area to assist in removal of heat and smoke conditions. This action will also make search and overhaul operations easier.
B) If the main stream tip (MST) was used to extinguish the fire, an effective broken stream can be produced for venting purposes by removing the tip and partially shutting down the control handle.
C) If the FT-2 was used for extinguishment, the tip is adjusted so that a fog pattern fills the window opening and is operated similar to the MST.
D) The stream is directed out the selected window with the nozzle held 2-3 feet back from the window and the stream filling only the top portion of the window.

A
  1. D

The stream is directed out the selected window with the nozzle held 4-5 feet back from the window and the stream filling the opening.

48
Q

5) The manner in which a firefighter physically advances the hoseline may depend on the conditions encountered. There are several methods that can be used, each with their own advantages. Which method described below is correct? (Eng 5.3.14)
A) “Duck walking” is useful where heat conditions require a very low approach to the fire area.
B) “Leg forward (or outstretched leg)” is useful where rubble or debris which cannot be swept with the stream may cause injury or difficulty to the nozzle team.
C) “Leg forward (or outstretched leg)” can be used where the integrity of the floor is in doubt. The outstretched leg is used to feel for holes in the floor before the full weight of the firefighter moves forward.
D) “Crawling” will help the Nozzle Firefighter recognize the presence of descending stairs, ramps, or open shafts. This technique is recommended for commercial occupancies.

A
  1. C

 Crawling - This method is useful where heat conditions require a very low approach to the fire area.

 Duck walking - This tactic is useful where rubble or debris which cannot be swept with the stream may cause injury or difficulty to the nozzle team. In housing projects or office buildings with concrete floors, duck walking keeps scalding water, a consequence of the fire attack, from absorbing into the bunker pants and burning firefighters knees.

 Leg forward (or outstretched leg) - This method can be used where the integrity of the floor is in doubt. The outstretched leg is used to feel for holes in the floor before the full weight of the firefighter moves forward.
Probing with the leg forward will also help the nozzle firefighter recognize the presence of descending stairs, ramps, or open shafts. This technique is recommended for commercial occupancies.

49
Q

6) You would be most correct to identify which decisions below that may be delegated by the Engine Officer to the nozzle team? (Eng 5.1.26)
1. Direction of stream.
2. Direction of advancement.
3. Opening or closing the nozzle.
4. Partial shutdown of nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
5. Calling for more line.
6. Sweeping floors with stream.
A) 1, 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 3, 4, 6
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

A
  1. A

5.1.26 Decisions that may be delegated by the engine officer to the nozzle team include:
 Direction of stream.
 Rate of advancement.
 Opening nozzle in an emergency.
 Partial shut down of nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
 Calling for more line.
 Sweeping floors with stream.

50
Q

7) The specific duties of the second arriving Engine Officer are accurately described below in all choices but one. Indicate the incorrect statement. (Eng 5.7.2)
A) Water Resource Officer for the second hoseline.
B) Provide a communications link between first due Engine and the IC.
C) Control the number of members on the fire floor, limiting it to those necessary and directing others to appropriate staging areas below the fire floor.
D) Keep track of members going to the floor(s) above the fire.

A
  1. A
    5.7.2 The specific duties of the second arriving engine officer include:
     Water resource officer for the first hoseline.
51
Q

8) BC Brown was present during multi-unit-drill and had to correct a member who made which incorrect comment regarding Engine operations? (Eng 5.6.7, 5.7.2, 5.7.3, 5.7.4)
A) When the second due Engine arrives at the scene and a hoseline is being stretched, the first due Control Firefighter should delegate the Control position to the second due Control Firefighter and proceed to chase the kinks and assist in the stretch.
B) All members going to the floor(s) above the fire, before the fire is controlled, should communicate their identity to the second due Engine Officer before proceeding above.
C) The second arriving ECC shall monitor the Department radio and answer for the Battalion or Division aide if either fails to respond to repeated calls from the dispatcher.
D) When Signal 10-70 is transmitted, the dispatcher will designate the second arriving Engine Company as the “Water Resource Unit.” They must be prepared to initiate water supply operations compatible with conditions encountered at the scene and their primary objective is to assist the first arriving Engine to obtain a positive water source.

A
  1. A

5.6.7 When the second due engine arrives at the scene and a hoseline is being stretched, the first due control firefighter should not delegate or transfer the control position to the second due control firefighter. Instead, the first due control firefighter should maintain a position at the hose bed and complete the hose estimate and
removal. The arrival of the second engine is not justification for the first due control firefighter to leave that position. Rather it eliminates the reason to leave,
since there are now an additional 3 or 4 firefighters to assist with the stretch.

52
Q

9) Which choice below contains the correct statements regarding the many types of hydrants found in NYC? (Eng 6.2.2-6.2.4)
1. The Smith Low Pressure Hydrant has two outlets, one 2 1/2 inch and one 4 1/2 inch.
2. The number on the barrel of a Smith hydrant indicates the size of the main supplying the hydrant.
3. On a Smith Low Pressure Hydrant, a white line under the number on the barrel indicates this hydrant is on a standard main and is supplied from both directions.
4. Dead end mains are generally larger in diameter and provide more water than mains fed from two directions.
5. The Dresser Low Pressure Hydrant differs from the Smith in appearance but its operation is the same. It will provide 10% to 15% greater discharge than the Smith hydrant.
6. The Chapman and Eddy Hydrants were originally installed by private water companies and will have either two 2 1/2 inch outlets or one 2 1/2 inch and one 4 1/2 inch outlet.
7. The Eddy hydrant is found in areas served by Jamaica Water Supply. It opens and closes in a direction opposite of the Smith and Dresser hydrants. New hydrants as well as replacement hydrants will be standard NYC hydrants.
A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 B) 1, 2, 4, 7 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 D) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7

A
  1. D

A white line underthe number on the barrel indicates this hydrant is on a dead end main and is only supplied from one direction. Dead end mains are generally smaller in diameter and provide less water than mains fed from two directions (see Fig. 6-1)

53
Q

10) Engine Companies will be equipped with a variety of hydrant connections. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding these connections? (Eng 6.3.1)
A) The 35-foot Soft Connection (yellow, 5-inch synthetic hose with 4½ inch butts) provides the largest flows of any of the hydrant connections. This hose shall only be used as a supply line from a hydrant.
B) The 10-foot Small Connection (3½ inch hose with 4½ inch butts) is semi-rigid and shall only be used as a supply line from a hydrant.
C) A 50-Foot length of 3½ inch Hose permits the most flexibility in apparatus positioning and provides more water flow than the 10-foot connections.
D) The 10-Foot Hard Suction (4½ inch hose with 4½ inch butts) is rigid and must be used for drafting. It is rarely used for connection to hydrants.

A
  1. C

50-Foot length of 3½ inch Hose - This is one length of standard 3½ inch hose (3 inch butts) set up for rapid connection to a hydrant when use of the 35-foot soft
connection or the 10-foot small connection is not possible. This option permits the most flexibility in apparatus positioning, but provides the least water flow
(see Figure 6-6).

54
Q

11) There have been many security devices utilized over the years to protect hydrants from illegal use. Which statement below is inaccurate? (Eng 6.4)
A) The HYDRA-SHIELD consists of a threaded hydrant cap with three (3) indentations on its surface. Except for the three tapered indentations, the cap has a smooth rounded surface which prevents removal using conventional tools.
B) The CUSTODIAN HYDRANT GUARD consists of a free spinning cap which completely covers the hydrant operating nut. A special wrench, equipped with an internal magnet, enables the hydrant to be opened.
C) Only as a last resort should the Custodian Hydrant Wrench be struck with an axe, sledge hammer or other similar tool.
D) The HYDRO-LOC and HYDRANT HARNESS are no longer being installed, but may still be encountered.

A
  1. C

Under no circumstances shall this wrench be struck with an axe, sledge hammer or other similar tool (see Fig. 6-9).

55
Q

12) All members should be familiar with hydrant discs and their appropriate use. Which choice below contains correct information regarding these discs? (Eng 6.5)
A) The company number and individual disc number shall be marked in black on both sides of each disc.
B) The White Disc is for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of unserviceable hydrants and 3 inch siamese of out of service auxiliary fire protection systems.
C) The Yellow Disc is for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of frozen hydrants or the 3 inch siamese of auxiliary fire protection system.
D) The Blue Disc is for placement on 3 inch siamese of auxiliary fire protection system to indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and the system is unable to be supplied.

A
  1. B
    6.5.2 Different color discs are used to indicate different problems as follows:
     White Disc - available in two sizes, for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of unserviceable hydrants and 3 inch siamese of out of service auxiliary fire protection systems.
     Yellow Disc - available in two sizes for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of frozen hydrants.
     Blue Disc - for placement on 3 inch siamese of auxiliary fire protection system to indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and/or a portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when
    supplied.
56
Q

13) When a hydrant is selected for use and the 2 1/2 inch outlet cap is missing, an apparatus cap or spare hydrant cap carried on the apparatus can be used to cap the outlet. If the outlet threads are damaged or missing, or if no cap is available, a hydrant plug should be used. All of the following choices contain correct instructions in the placement of the hydrant plug with the exception of which choice? (Eng 6.6.2)
A) Remove the 4 1/2 inch cap and flush hydrant. Shut down hydrant and examine the barrel for sharp objects and debris before inserting T-Bolt.
B) Grip the T-BOLT firmly with one hand and maneuver it through the 4 1/2 inch opening into the hydrant barrel. Place the threaded rod of the T-BOLT through the 2 1/2 inch opening and center it in the middle of the opening.
C) The non-threaded section of the T-BOLT being held inside the hydrant should be maintained in a vertical rather than horizontal position in order for sufficient thread to protrude through the opening to complete the connection.
D) The washer must be on the inside of the hydrant for the plug to work correctly. Turn the handle clockwise while holding the T-BOLT until the handle is tight against the 2 1/2 inch nozzle or barrel.

A
  1. D
     Hold the T-BOLT firmly against the inside of the hydrant barrel with one hand and turn the handle onto the threaded end of the T-BOLT with the other hand. The washer must be on the outside of the hydrant for the plug to work correctly
57
Q

14) Two Engine Officers were discussing the various types of hydrants located in their response areas, as well as the methods for operating these hydrants. Which comment made was correct? (Eng 6.7.1, 6.9)
A) Yellow Hydrants on parkways and expressways are shut down at the curb valve year round. To use a yellow hydrant, it must be turned on using a curb valve key, which will require 18 turns to the right (clockwise) to open fully.
B) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are on 30 inch diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points). They are excellent sources of water for fire department use.
C) Red Air Cock Hydrants are located on large mains and consist of either two high-pressure hydrants, or when available, special hydrants with two 4 1/2” outlets. Engine companies should avoid the use of these hydrants.
D) Each unit has been issued a custodian hydrant wrench with an individual serial number. If a custodian wrench is broken, it should be delivered to the administrative Battalion for replacement by Technical Services. Each Battalion has two (2) wrenches on hand as spares and marked as such.

A
  1. A
  2. 7.2 Red Air Cock Hydrants - Hydrants on 30 inch diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points). They allow Water Department repair crews to bleed off air when repairs are completed. These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for fire department use.

6.7.3 Red Satellite Water System Hydrants - Twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and adequate source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and are either two high-pressure hydrants, or when available, special
hydrants with two 4 1/2” outlets. The special design of these twin hydrants will allow Satellite Units to take advantage of the water in the mains. Engine companies should avoid the use of these hydrants.
 In areas where there are large mains and few hydrants, this arrangement provides a large capacity supply that will allow a relay to the fire area.
 This design, with large diameter barrel hydrants, has overcome the restriction to flow experienced when operating through a single hydrant. The closeness of the hydrants will allow the Satellite pumpers to rapidly
connect the multiple 6” hoselines needed for supply.

6.9.3 If a custodian wrench is broken, it should be delivered to the administrative Division for replacement by Technical Services.

58
Q

15) Two members of Ladder 100 were discussing the various types of hose used within the Department. Which statement made during the conversation was incorrect? (Eng 7.2.2, 7.2.3, 7.2.5, 7.5.1)
A) Marine companies have 3 1/2 inch hose with 3 1/2 inch couplings.
B) High pressure engine companies carry 3 inch high pressure hose with 3 inch couplings. This hose has a maximum working pressure of 600 psi. High pressure hose couplings and fittings are painted white for identification and are noticeably heavier than standard couplings and fittings.
C) Each Engine Company should maintain a minimum of (30) thirty lengths of 1 3/4 inch,(20) twenty lengths of 2 1/2 inch and (10) ten lengths of 3 1/2 inch hose. This does not include hose for winter operations, standpipe operations and replacement lengths stored in quarters as well as that which is carried in the apparatus hose beds.
D) The maximum pressure in hose lines should be limited to 250 psi. Only emergency needs which allow for no other corrective action permit the use of higher pump pressures. Pressures in excess of 250 psi can only be ordered by the IC.

A
  1. C

7.2.5 Pursuant to the requirements determined by the Bureau of Operations, each engine company should maintain a minimum of (20) twenty lengths of 1 3/4 inch, (30)thirty lengths of 2 1/2 inch and (10) ten lengths of 3 1/2 inch hose. This includes hose for winter operations, standpipe operations and replacement lengths stored in
quarters as well as that which is carried in the apparatus hose beds. Greater amounts of hose may be carried by specific units depending upon the individual units requirements.

59
Q

16) It is important to properly identify hose to ensure hose lengths are maintained and replaced as required. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (Eng 7.3.1, 7.6.1, 7.6.6)
A) The HOSE manufacturer’s name or trademark and date of manufacture can be found on both couplings.
B) The COUPLING manufacturer’s name or trademark and Date of Issuance to unit can be found on the female coupling. The Company and registry numbers can be found on the male coupling.
C) At a nozzle pressure of 50 psi, the 1 3/4 inch handline will flow approximately 180 gpm.
D) All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be 2 1/2 inch diameter hose with controlling nozzle and 1 1/8 inch MST. All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be connected to outlets on floors below the fire floor.

A
  1. A

7.3.1 Each length of hose is marked as follows:
Marking Location
Hose manufacturer’s name or trademark Both ends of hose, not less
Date of manufacture than 4 feet from couplings
Coupling manufacturer’s name or trademark Female coupling
Date of Issuance to unit
Company and registry numbers Male coupling

60
Q

17) There are many hazards to hose deployed out in the street. Of the following choices, which would be considered an incorrect tactic for dealing with these hazards? (Eng 7.5.6, 7.8.6)
A) Kinks should be removed manually. Attempting to straighten kinks hydraulically by use of unwarranted pressures is not good practice.
B) Apparatus shall not be driven over hose lines unless absolutely necessary. When it is necessary to drive over hose lines, do so before they are charged. Hose is more susceptible to damage when it is charged.
C) When it is necessary to drive over hose lines, running over couplings should be avoided. To prevent the hose from bursting, speed should be reduced to a minimum.
D) 5-inch hose should not be driven over unless properly bridged.

A
  1. B

7.8.6 Apparatus shall not be driven over hose lines unless absolutely necessary. When it is necessary to drive over hose lines, the following precautions should be taken:
• Charge the line if possible. Hose is more susceptible to damage when it is uncharged than when it is charged because the wheels tend to separate the jacket from the rubber lining of dry hose.
• Running over couplings should be avoided.
• To prevent the hose from bursting, speed should be reduced to a minimum.
• 5-inch hose should not be driven over unless properly bridged.

61
Q

18) Engine operations during the coldest days of winter present many challenges. Which tactic listed below contains incorrect information regarding the thawing of frozen hose and couplings? (Eng 7.10)
A) For frozen HOSE, do not attempt to chop the ice away as this may cut the hose jacket; use the thawing apparatus.
B) For frozen COUPLINGS, use heat from the exhaust pipe of the apparatus or use the thawing apparatus.
C) Frozen hose may be transported on pumpers, provided long round turns are made when placing it on the apparatus.
D) Frozen hose shall be handled and bent as little as possible. If the hose is frozen solid, consideration should be given to transporting it on an aerial apparatus.

A
  1. A

7.10.1 The following methods should be considered to free hose from ice:
• Chop the ice away carefully so as not to cut the hose jacket.
• Use the thawing apparatus.

62
Q

19) The proper maintenance of hose is important to an Engine Company’s effectiveness. Of the following choices, which is correct? (Eng 7.11.1, 7.11.2)
A) Hose on the apparatus is removed and cleaned in the Spring and Fall of each year. If the serviceability of a length of hose is in doubt, immediately place it out-of-service (OOS).
B) Any hose that will reach 10 years in the current calendar year is to be taken out of service with the company officer immediately notifying the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit via fax. If the serial number stamped on the coupling of a length of hose reads “120023,” this indicates a 2023 length needing to be replaced in 2033.
C) Hose exposed to chemicals, oils, acid, etc., must be properly decontaminated and should not be repacked on the apparatus.
D) Hose that has been used to carry salt water or exposed to salt used for snow removal should be immediately placed out-of-service (OOS).

A
  1. C

7.11.1 Hose on the apparatus is removed and cleaned in the Spring and Fall of each year in accordance with Section 13.3.24 of the Regulations.
Units must check the hose bed, roll-ups and stored hose serial numbers for replacement due to age. The age of the hose is determined by the first two numbers of the serial number stamped on the coupling (i.e. 970023 - the first two numbers “97” would be a 1997 length needing to be replaced in 2007). Any hose that will reach 10 years in the current calendar year is to be taken out of service
with the company officer immediately notifying the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit via fax (718-391-9488) the serial numbers, size and length for replacement.

63
Q

20) The senior Chauffeur working in Engine 100 had to correct Probationary Firefighter Walker after he made which incorrect comment? (Eng 7.12.3, 7.12.7 K, 7.12.9, 7.13.1)
A) Each individual length of hose shall be disconnected and drained prior to reloading. When reloading, each length of hose shall be reconnected just prior to reaching the hose bed.
B) Engine Companies shall carry not less than four lengths of 2 ½ inch and not less than one length of 1 ¾ inch hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including, but not limited to, appropriate hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.
C) Each Engine Company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 ¾ inch hose with nozzle, either rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus. This hose must be easily accessible so that it can be used to replace a burst length or for adding to a short stretch.
D) Company Commanders shall establish a method whereby a length of 3 ½ inch hose can be stretched from either side of the apparatus in the event a hydrant hookup with a standard hydrant connection is not feasible.

A
  1. B

7.13.1 As required by Section 13.2.8 of the Regulations, engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2 inch and not less than three lengths of 1 3/4 inch
hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation including, but not limited to, appropriate hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.

64
Q

21) While preparing hose for a hose test, and prior to charging with water, an experienced officer should know which of the following defects noted during the inspection would exclude the hose from being tested? (Eng 7.14 B)
1. Abrasions.
2. Mildew or rot.
3. Burnt hose jacket.
4. Worn hose jacket; be sure to inspect area immediately behind couplings for this condition.
5. Grease pencil markings.
6. Salt or salt deposits.
7. Dried, cracked or broken gaskets.
8. Damaged couplings; e.g., out of round.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8
C) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
D) 1, 3, 6, 7, 8

A
  1. D

B. Conduct a visual inspection of hose while preparing it for test and prior to charging with water. The following defects noted during the inspection would exclude the hose from being tested.
• Abrasions.
• Mildew or rot.
• Burnt hose jacket.
• Worn hose jacket, be sure to inspect area immediately behind couplings for this condition.
• Dried, cracked or broken gaskets.
• Damaged couplings; e.g. , out of round.

65
Q

22) Captain Green recently conducted a hose test with members of his unit but they made one error. Indicate the incorrect action. (Eng 7.14 B)
A) They stretched a maximum of two lengths of hose from the one way gate to the hose test gauge. Only 2 1/2 inch hose was used to supply the manifold during hose testing operations.
B) Hose was stretched from an outlet on the side of the apparatus opposite the control panel.
C) Up to 6 lengths of hose (300 feet) was stretched from each of the 2 1/2 inch gated outlets. A water soluble marker was used to mark and draw a line around the circumference of the hose as close as possible to the male butt at each coupling.
D) The Captain placed one firefighter on the right side of the manifold, facing the hose at a distance of 15 feet from the hose.

A
  1. D
  2. Place one firefighter on the left side of manifold facing the hose at a distance of 15 feet from the hose (see note 2).
66
Q

23) Calculations based on nozzle pressure, friction loss of three lengths of 2½” hose, head loss, system friction loss and friction loss of two lengths of hose supplying the fire department connection have been used to provide recommended pump discharge pressure for standpipe operations. What is the recommended Engine discharge pressure for a fire on the 72nd floor of a high-rise building? (Eng Ch 9 Add 1 2.1)

A) 450 psi
B) 500 psi
C) 550 psi
D) 250 psi

A
  1. B
Fire Floor
Recommended
Pump Discharge Pressure
1 – 10 150 psi
11 – 20 200 psi
21 – 30 250 psi
31 – 40 300 psi
41 – 50 350 psi
51 – 60 400 psi
61 – 70 450 psi
71 – 80 500 psi
81 – 90 550 psi
91 – 100 600 psi
101 – 110 650 psi
67
Q

24) When interoperable communications are required using the UTAC “direct” channels, a knowledgeable Chief Officer should know the order of preference for such channel use can be found in which choice? (Comm 14 Add 4 2.1)
1. UTAC 41D
2. UTAC 42D
3. UTAC 43D

A) 2, 1,3
B) 3,1,2
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,3,2

A
  1. A
  2. 1 UTAC DIRECT CHANNELS

1) UTAC 42D: The primary Interoperability channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region. It provides direct point to point communications for
portable radios that are within range of each other.

2) UTAC 41D: The secondary Interoperability channel. It is to be used when there are multiple operations that are in close proximity and UTAC Ch. 42D is already in use.
3) UTAC 43D: The tertiary Interoperability channel.